TOEFL PREDICTION TEST

(PAPER BASED TEST)

Number of
Section Time Limit
Questions

Listening Comprehension 35 minutes 50

Structure and Written

25 minutes 40
Expression

Reading Comprehension 55 minutes 50

Total 115 minutes 140

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SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Tune—approximately 35 minutes
(including the reading of the directions for each part)

In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand
conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section, with special directions for each
part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers you hear. Do
not take notes or write in your test book at any time. Do not turn the pages until you are told to do so.

Part A

Directions: In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation,
you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to
the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Here is an example.
Sample Answer
On the recording, you will hear:

(man) That exam was just awful.

(woman) Oh, it could have been worse.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?

In your test book, you will read: (A). The exam was really awful.
(B). It was the worst exam she had ever seen.
(C). It couldn’t have been more difficult.
(D). It wasn’t that hard.

You learn from the conversation that the man thought the exam was very difficult and that the woman
disagreed with the man. The best answer to the question, “What does the woman mean?” is (D), “It
wasn’t that hard.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D).

1. (A) Her concerns were expressed. 3. (A) He spends half his time with his
(B) She wonders if the concert was good. daughter.
(C) The music was fantastic. (B) His daughter’s under a year old.
(D) She wandered about during the night. (C) His daughter will start school in a
year and a half.
2. (A) In a bus station. (D) His daughter’s eighteen months old.
(B) In a post office.
(C) In an airport.
(D) In a travel agency.

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4. (A) He’s on the basketball team. 12. (A) His desk is made of metal.
(B) He doesn’t even like to play (B) He never meddles with his office
basketball. workers.
(C) He’s too short to make the team. (C) His desk is on the right side of the
(D) He thinks he’s tall enough. office.
(D) He works in the center of the office.
5. (A) She’s thinking about her grade in the
seminar. 13. (A) Learning something about golf.
(B) The seminar is quite realistic. (B) Taking fewer lessons than he has in
(C) The seminar will take a great deal of the past.
time. (C) Letting her play golf instead of him.
(D) She agrees with the man about the (D) Going to play golf together.
seminar.

6. (A) The location of the meeting. 14. (A) He does not live nearby.
(B) The purpose of the meeting. (B) They will go later.
(C) Who will attend the meeting. (C) It is not time to deliver the paper.
(D) The time the meeting starts. (D) He does not have time to read.

7. (A) Preparing dinner later. 15. (A) She will assign the homework
(B) Going to a restaurant. tomorrow.
(C) Cooking a full dinner. (B) The man can do the homework next
(D) Eating dinner outside in the garden. week.
(C) She will return the homework next
8. (A) She is fond of Joe. week.
(B) Joe is not lost anymore. (D) The assignment must be turned in
(C) She visits Joe regularly. tomorrow.
(D) The call was already made.

9. (A) He was quite fortunate. 16. (A) The woman is really beautiful.
(B) He lacked the opportunity to play the (B) The woman should repeat what she
game. said.
(C) He didn’t actually win the game. (C) He shares the woman’s opinion.
(D) He came sometime after Luke. (D) He has time this year to travel.

10. (A) It’s quite clean. 17. (A) In a shoe store.

(B) It doesn’t move. (B) In a motel.
(C) It’s clearly better. (C) In a clothing store.
(D) It’s rather dirty. (D) In a storage facility.

11. (A) bus driver. 18. (A) She’s going to the supermarket.
(B) An art teacher. (B) She works in a grocery store.
(C) A flight attendant. (C) She’s not going out.
(D) A travel agent. CD) She doesn’t have enough money for
groceries.

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19. (A) He didn’t really get the highest grade. 25. (A) An artist.
(B) He’s rather intelligent. (B) A tour guide.
(C) He’s not done with the exam. (C) A teacher.
(D) He’s not even in the class. (D) A pilot.

20. (A) Resting for a few minutes. 26. (A) Buying some cream for coffee.
(B) Studying a bit longer. (B) Cleaning out the garage.
(C) Taking a five-hour break. (C) Painting the apartment walls green.
(D) Studying for shorter periods of time. (D) Putting the apartment in order.

21. (A) She needs a new suitcase. 27. (A) He was happy to write the check.
(B) She’s putting on a suit. (B) He received a large sum of money.
(C) She’s preparing for a trip. (C) He was working in a huge factory.
(D) She just received a package. (D) He found some hidden bones.

22. (A) It was the last game. 28. (A) She doesn’t need to store anything.
(B) The dream was really bad. (B) She prefers shopping nearby.
(C) The man never lets her talk. (C) The stores are all too far away.
(D) She feels the same way as the man. (D) She doesn’t want to go shopping.

23. (A) He’s a bit too strong. 29. (A) The door was closed really hard.
(B) He’s bitter about the accident. (B) Alice left because she was hungry.
(C) He’s still weak. (C) The door was smoothly sanded.
(D) He feels the accident was not his (D) Alice went out through the door on
fault. the left side.

24. (A) There seems to be a problem with the 30. (A) Take a bike ride.
motor. (B) Take the high road.
(B) He doesn’t want to be an engineer. (C) Go for a walk in the forest.
(C) The music on the car stereo is good. (D) Look for firewood.
(D) He likes the sound of the engine.

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Part B

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you
will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to
the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

31. (A) A new bicycle. 35. (A) Planning a trip.

(B) An inexpensive bicycle. (B) Camping in the woods.
(C) A fast bicycle. (C) Putting up a tent.
(D) A stationary bicycle. (D) Looking at photos.

32. (A) A half mile. 36. (A) It looks comfortable.

(B) A mile. (B) It doesn’t seem very big.
(C) Two miles. (C) It looks funny.
(D) Four miles. (D) It’s full of fish.

33. (A) He doesn’t like it. 37. (A) Standing in a river.

(B) It doesn’t work very well. (B) Putting up a tent.
(C) It’s broken. (C) Sitting in front of the tent.
(D) He got a new one. (D) Swimming in the river.

34. (A) Go see his friend’s bicycle. 38. (A) Lots.

(B) See her new apartment. (B) A few.
(C) Walk to school. (C) One.
(D) Buy a new bicycle. (D) None.

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Part C

Directions: In Part C of this section, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will hear some
questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, you will read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Here is an example.

On the recording, you will hear:

(narrator) Listen to an instructor talk to his class about painting.

(man) Artist Grant Wood was a guiding force in the school of painting known as American
regionalist, a style reflecting the distinctive characteristics of art from rural areas of the
United States. Wood began drawing animals on the family farm at the age of three, and
when he was thirty-eight one of his paintings received a remarkable amount of public
notice and acclaim. This painting, called American Gothic, is a starkly simple depiction of
a serious couple staring directly out at the viewer.

Now listen to a sample question. Sample Answer

(narrator) What style of painting is known as American regionalist?

In your test book, you will read: (A) Art from America`s inner cities.
(B) Art from the central region of the
United States.
(C) Art from various urban areas in the
United States.
(D) Art from rural sections of America.

The best answer to the question, “What style of painting is known as American regionalist?” is (D),
“Art from rural sections of America.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D).

Now listen to another sample question. Sample Answer

(narrator) What is the name of Wood’s most successful painting?

In your test book, you will read: (A) American Regionalist.

(B) The Family Farm in Iowa.
(C) American Gothic.
(D) A Serious Couple.

The best answer to the question, “What is the name of Wood’s most successful painting?” is (C),
American Gothic. Therefore, the correct choice is (C).

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

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39. (A) Only three chapters. 45. (A) Five.
(B) Three chemistry books. (B) Ten.
(C) Lecture notes and part of the book. (C) Twenty-four.
(D) Only class notes from the lectures. (D) Thirty-nine.

40. (A) Only multiple choice. 46. (A) It is open to visitors.

(B) Short and long essays. (B) It is still in use as a prison.
(C) Three short essays. (C) It is closed to the public.
(D) Essays and multiple choice. (D) It contains few prisoners.

41. (A) Half an hour. 47. (A) Artificial plants.

(B) Fifty minutes. (B) Plants in plastic containers.
(C) An hour. (C) Plants that resemble plastic.
(D) Ninety minutes. (D) Plants that produce a usable
substance.
42. (A) Listen to a lecture.
(B) Study for the exam. 48. (A) It lasts longer.
(C) Read three chapters. (B) It is more artificial.
(D) Take an exam. (C) It is easy to make in a laboratory.
(D) It is good for the environment.
43. (A) in a zoo.
(B) On a boat. 49. (A) It biodegrades slowly.
(C) In a prison. (B) It kills plants.
(D) In a lecture hall. (C) People never throw it away.
(D) It is not very strong.
44. (A) A type of rock.
(B) A Spanish explorer. 50. (A) Engineering.
(C) A prison in San Francisco. (B) Art.
(D) A kind of bird. (C) Botany.
(D) Geology.

This is the end of the Listening Comprehension Test.

Turn off the recording.

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SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time - 25 minutes
(including the reading of the directions)
Now set your clock for 25 minutes.

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard
written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.

Structure

Directions: These questions are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words
or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the
sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Look at the following examples.

Example I Sample Answer

The president _________ the election by a landslide.

(A) won
(B) he won
(C) yesterday
(D) fortunately

The sentence should read, “The president won the election by a landslide.” Therefore, you should
choose answer (A).

Example II Sample Answer

When _______ the conference?

(A) the doctor attended
(B) did the doctor attend
(C) the doctor will attend
(D) the doctor’s attendance

The sentence should read, “When did the doctor attend the conference?” Therefore, you should choose
answer (B).

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1. In the early 1 900s, Eastman _____ 7. Researchers have begun studying what
inexpensive Brownie box cameras. _____ is on human circadian rhythms.
(A) it developed (A) it is the effect of light
(B) it was developed (B) the light affects
(C) developed (C) is affecting the light
(D) developing (D) the effect of light

2. _____ the discovery of the fossilized 8. If calcium oxide remains exposed to air,
remnants of tides in one-billion-year-old _____ to calcium carbonate.
rocks. (A) turning
(A) Geological reports (B) turns
(B) Geologists report (C) it turns
(C) The reports of geologists (D) the turn
(D) Geologists’ reports
9. Some early batteries used concentrated
3. The Brooklyn Bridge _____ took thirteen nitric acid, ____gave off poisonous
years to complete. fumes.
(A) in New York (A) they
(B) is in New York (B) then they
(C) it is in New York (C) but they
(D) which New York (D) but they had

4. Genes control all of the physical _____ 10. The sound produced by an object______
we inherit. in a periodic way involves more than the
(A) that traits simple sine wave.
(B) that are traits (A) it vibrates
(C) traits that (B) vibrating
(D) traits are that (C) is vibrating
(D) vibrates
5. Indigo can be extracted from a plant, and
then _____ to dye cloth blue. 11. Prior to the discovery of anesthetics in
(A) it 1846, surgery was done _____ was still
(B) using conscious.
(C) using it (A) while the patient
(D) it can be used (B) the patient felt
(C) during the patient’s
6. _____ in the United States spends 900 (D) while patiently
hours per year in class and 1,170 hours in
front of the television.
(A) The average third-grader
(B) The third grade is average
(C) There are three grades
(D) Three average grades

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12. The drastic decline of the beaver helps to 14. A yacht is steered with a rudder, _____
illustrate what _____ to the ecosystems of the flow of water that passes the hull.
the North American continent. (A) which deflecting
(A) happening (B) deflects
(B) the happening (C) it deflects
(C) has happened (D) which deflects
(D) about happening
15. For top speed and sudden acceleration, the
13. The use of shorthand died out in the accelerator pump feeds additional
Middle Ages because of _____ with gasoline from the float chamber into
witchcraft. _____ above the venturi tube.
(A) the association was imagined (A) the air flows
(B) associate the imagination (B) the air flow
(C) imagine the association (C) the air is flowing
(D) the imagined association (D) flows the air

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Written Expression

Directions: In these questions, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four
underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or
phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find
the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen.

Look at the following examples.

Example I Sample Answer

The four string on a violin are tuned

A B C D

in fifths.

The sentence should read, “The four strings on a violin are tuned in fifths.” Therefore, you should
choose answer (B).

Example II Sample Answer

The research for the book Roots taking

A B C

Alex Haley twelve years

D

The sentence should read, “The research for the book Roots took Alex Haley twelve years.” Therefore,
you should choose answer (C).

16. In 1732, coach travelers could got from New York to Philadelphia in about two days.
A B C D

17. Some of the District of Columbia are on low-lying, marshy ground.

A B C D

18. Georgia’s economy is based main on agriculture

A B C D

19. The Paul Revere House was built in 1676, and today its the oldest wooden building in Boston.
A B C D

20. Conifers such as cedars, firs, and pines bear its seeds in cones.
A B C D

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21. A dome is a semispherical structures on top of a building
A B C D

22. Succulents suck up water in just a few hour, but they can store it in their stems for months.
A B C D

23. Flying buttresses enabled builders to put up tall but thinnest stone walls.
A B C D

24. Weather forecasters monitor barometric pressures and record they on charts as isobars.
A B C D

25. In many languages the forms of a word varies to express such contrasts as number, gender, and tense.
A B C D

26. A Milky Way object that erupted in the constellation Scorpius has provides information to
A B
astronomers since July.
C D

27. Much fossils are found in coal-bearing rocks.

A B C D

28. When salt is added to ice, this mixture becomes coldly enough to freeze ice cream.
A B C D

29. During the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries Long Island was chiefly an agricultural region
A B C
with fishing, whaling, and build ships as the important industries.
D

30. No one who has studied the Battle of Little Bighorn know the exact route that Custer and his
A B C
detachment took.
D

31. The folktales which the brothers Grimm had collecting were translated into English in 1823.
A B C D

32. In our solar system, nine planets, fifty-seven moons, several dozen comets, several million
A B
asteroids, and billions of meteorites have so far been discover.
C D

33. From the 1 850s until after the turn of the century, many of America’s super-rich families made
A B C
Newport his favorite summer resort.
D

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34. Mars may looks red because it is covered with a layer of soft red iron oxide.
A B C D

35. The radioactive substances that pose the greatest harm to humanity have neither very short or
A B C
very long half lives.
D

36. A robin cocks its head to peer at a worm with one eyes and not to hear it, as was once thought.
A B C D

37. Film sound is often record by an analog system which like the compact disc, uses light.
A B C D

38. The scribes of the Middle Ages used quill pens to produce their high decorated manuscripts.
A B C D

39. The principles of physics described by Christian Doppler in 1842 for the movement of stars has
A B
been adapted to evaluate the movement of blood within the heart.
C D

40. The Pioneer 10 and 11 spacecraft were the first vehicles of humankind to venture beyond the
A B
limits of ours solar system.
C D

This is the end of the Structure and Written Expression Test.

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SECTION 3
READING COMPREHENSION
Time—5 5 minutes
(including the reading of the directions)
Now set your clock for 55 minutes.

This section is designed to measure your ability to read and understand short passages similar in topic
and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American universities and colleges.
This section contains reading passages and questions about the passages.

Directions: In this section you w read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of
questions about it. You are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to
the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or
implied in that passage.

Read the following passage:

John Quincy Adams, who served as the sixth president of the United States from 1825 to
1829, is today recognized for his masterful statesmanship and diplomacy. He dedicated his life to
public service, both in the presidency and in the various other political offices that he held.
Line Throughout his political career he demonstrated his unswerving belief in freedom of speech, the
(5) antislavery cause, and the right of Americans to be free from European and Asian domination.

Example I Sample Answer

To what did John Quincy Adams devote his life?

(A) Improving his personal life
(B) Serving the public D
(C) Increasing his fortune
(D) Working on his private business

According to the passage, John Quincy Adams “dedicated his life to public service.” Therefore, you
should choose answer (B).

Example II Sample Answer

In line 4, the word “unswerving” is closest in meaning to

(A) moveable
(B) insignificant D
(C) unchanging
(D) diplomatic

The passage states that John Quincy Adams demonstrated his unswerving belief “throughout his
career.” This implies that the belief did not change. Therefore, you should choose answer (C).

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Questions 1—9

The largest diamond ever found is the Cullinan Diamond. This diamond weighed 3,106 carats
in its uncut state when it was discovered in South Africa on January 25, 1905.
The Cullinan Diamond was cut into 9 major stones and 96 smaller ones. The largest of the cut
stones, and still the largest cut diamond in the world, is the pear-shaped Cullinan I at 530 carats.
This diamond, which is also known as the Greater Star of Africa, is more than 2 inches (5.4 cm)
long and 1.75 inches (4.4 cm) wide. It became part of the British crown jewels in 1907.

1. What is the best title for this passage? 4. It can be inferred from the passage that
(A) Diamond Cutting the Cullinan Diamond was cut into how
(B) The Worlds Biggest Diamond, Uncut many total stones?
and Cut (A) 9
(C) Measuring Diamonds in Carats (B) 96
(D) The British Crown Jewels (C) 105
(D) 3,106
2. The word “uncut” in line 2 is closest in
meaning to which of the following? 5. The word “major” in line 3 could best be
(A) Finished replaced by
(B) Unnatural (A) well-known
(C) Pear (B) military
(D) Whole (C) natural
(D) big
3. The word “discovered” in line 2 is closest
in meaning to
(A) created
(B) found
(C) buried
(D) weighed

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6. Which of the following is NOT true about 8. According to the passage, what happened
Cullinan I? to Cullinan I?
(A) It was cut from the Cullinan (A) It remained in Africa.
Diamond. (B) It was cut into smaller stones.
(B) It weighs 3,106 carats. (C) It was cut and changed into the
(C) It is the biggest cut diamond in the Greater Star of Africa.
world. (D) It became the property of the British
(D) It is sometimes called the Greater Star Royal family.
of Africa.
9. Where in the passage does the author
7. All of the following are true about the mention the Cullinan Diamond’s weight
shape of the Greater Star of Africa when it was mined?
EXCEPT that (A) Lines 1 - 2
(A) it is in the shape of a pear (B) Line 3
(B) it is 5.4 centimeters long (C) Lines 4 - 5
(C) it is longer than it is wide (D) Line 6
(D) it is 4.4 inches wide

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Questions 10-20

Coca-Cola was invented in 1886 by Atlanta pharmacist John S. Pemberton. The name for the
product was actually proposed by Pemberton’s assistant, Frank Robinson. The name was taken
from the two most unusual ingredients in the drink, the South American coca leaf and the African
cola nut.
The recipe for today’s Coca-Cola is very well guarded. Many of the ingredients are known; in
addition to coca leaves and cola nut, they include lemon, orange, lime, cinnamon, nutmeg, vanilla,
caramel, and sugar. The proportions of the ingredients and the identity of Coke secret ingredients
are known by only a few of the Coca-Cola Company’s senior corporate officers.

10. The passage mainly discusses 14. A “recipe” in line 5 is

(A) the success of the Coca-Cola (A) information about drugs for a
Company pharmacy
(B) the unusual ingredients in Coca-Cola (B) a description of how to prepare
(C) John S. Pemberton something
(D) Coca-cola`s recipe and who (C) an accounting statement
developed it (D) a corporate organizational plan

11. According to the passage, who created 15. The passage states that the recipe for
Coca-Cola? Coca-Cola is
(A) The Coca-Cola Company (A) well known
(B) John S. Pemberton (B) known by only a limited number of
(C) Pemberton’s assistant people
(D) Frank Robinson (C) unknown
(D) published information
12. The word “unusual” in line 3 is closest in
meaning to 16. Which of the following is NOT
(A) uncommon mentioned as an ingredient of Coca-Cola?
(B) important (A) Orange leaves
(C) unused (B) Nutmeg
(D) tasty (C) Citrus fruits
(D) Sugar
13. Which of the following is NOT true about
the name Coca-Cola? 17. The word “secret” in line 7 could best be
(A) The name “coca” comes from the replaced by
coca leaf. (A) unrevealed
(B) The name “cola” comes from the cola (B) delicious
nut. (C) business
(C) Frank Robinson suggested the name. (D) speechless
(D) The inventor came up with the name.

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18. It can be inferred from the passage that 19. The word “senior” in line 8 could best be
(A) the public knows all the ingredients in replaced by
Coca-Cola (A) trustworthy
(B) the public is not sure that coca leaves (B) high-level
are used in Coca-Cola (C) more mature
(C) the public does not know how many (D) really decisive
cola nuts are used in a batch of Coca-
Cola 20. Where in the passage does the author
(D) no one knows the exact proportions of mention who gave Coca-Cola its name?
ingredients used in Coca-Cola (A) Lines 1 - 2
(B) Lines 3 - 4
(C) Line 5
(D) Lines 7 - 8

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Questions 21 - 30

Most people would say that the world’s tallest mountain is Mount Everest. This mountain in the
Himalayas is just over 29,000 feet high.
However, if mountains are measured a little bit differently, then the tallest mountain on Earth
is Mauna Kea, in the Hawaiian Islands. Mauna Kea is only about 14,000 feet above sea level, so in
comparison to Mount Everest it just does not look anywhere near as high as Mount Everest to a
person standing at sea level.
Mauna Kea, however, does not begin at sea level. It rises from an ocean floor that is more than
16,000 feet below the surface of the water. This mountain therefore measures more than 30,000 feet
from it base to its top, making it a higher mountain than Mount Everest.

21. The main idea of the passage is that 25. According to the passage, Mauna Kea is
(A) Mount Everest is the world’s tallest how far above the level of the water?
mountain (A) 14,000 feet
(B) Mount Everest and Mauna Kea are (B) 16,000 feet
located in different parts of the world (C) 29,000 feet
(C) Mauna Kea’s base is below sea level (D) 30,000 feet
(D) Mauna Kea could be considered the
tallest mountain in the world 26. The expression “in comparison to” in
lines 4 and 5 could best be replaced by
22. Which of the following is NOT stated (A) close to
about Mount Everest? (B) in relation to
(A) Many people believe it is the world’s (C) as a result of
tallest mountain. (D) because of
(B) It is part of the Himalayas.
(C) It is over 29,000 feet high. 27. It is implied in the passage that Mauna
(D) It rises from the ocean floor. Kea does not seem as tall as Mount
Everest because
23. The word “just” in line 2 could best be re (A) people do not want to look at it
by (B) part of Mauna Kea is under water
(A) noticeably (C) Mount Everest has more
(B) soon (D) snow Mauna Kea is in a different part
(C) barely of the world than Mount Everest
(D) recently
28. The word “floor” in line 7 could best be
24. The expression “a little bit” in line 3 is replaced by
closest in meaning to (A) carpet
(A) a small size (B) bottom
(B) quite (C) roof
(C) somewhat (D) water
(D) extremely

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29. The passage indicates that Mauna Kea 30. Where in the passage does the author
(A) measures 16,000 feet from top to mention Mount Everest’s total height?
bottom (A) Lines 1—2
(B) is completely covered with water (B) Lines 4—6
(C) is more than half covered by water (C) Line 7
(D) is 1,000 feet shorter than Mount (D) Lines 8—9
Everest

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Questions 31 - 40

When Columbus arrived in the Americas in 1492, there were already an estimated thirty to
forty million people living in North and South America. It has therefore been quite easy for some to
refute the idi that Columbus “discovered” America. How and when these inhabitants came to America
has been the source of much scientific research and discussion.
Most archeologists agree that the first Americans,the true “discoverers” of America,came from
northeastern Asia. There is also a considerable amount of proof that inhabitants have been in the
Americas for at least 15,000 years.
To get to the Americas, these people had to cross over the 55-mile-wide Bering Strait that
separates Asia and North America. According to one theory, these people crossed over during
periods when a land bridge existed between the two continents. During Ice Ages, so much of the
Earth’s water was frozen that the sea levels dropped, and it was possible to walk from Asia to North
America.

31. What is the author’s main purpose? 34. It is implied in the passage that
(A) To explain how Columbus discovered (A) Columbus was really the first person
America in America
(B) To show how people came to America (B) scientists are sure about America’s
before Columbus first inhabitants
(C) To demonstrate the importance to (C) Columbus arrived at almost the same
archeologists of northeastern Asia time as America’s first inhabitants
(D) To explain how to cross the Bering (D) all is not known about America’s first
Strait inhabitants

32. In 1492, how many people were probably 35. There is general agreement that the first
in the Americas? people who came to North America came
(A) Fewer than thirty million from
(B) Exactly thirty million (A) Europe
(C) Forty million or fewer (B) South America
(D) At least forty million (C) northeastern Asia
(D) Africa
33. The word “refute” in line 3 is closest in
meaning to 36. The word “considerable” in line 6 could
(A) theorize best be replaced by which of the
(B) support following?
(C) contradict (A) Large
(D) defend (B) Weak
(C) Well-known
(D) Considerate

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37. The word “separates” in line 9 is closest 39. The word “frozen” in line 11 could best
in meaning to be replaced by
(A) differentiates (A) cool
(B) divides (B) dirty
(C) joins (C) solid
(D) crosses (D) wet

38. Which of the following is NOT stated 40. Where in the passage does the author
about the Bering Strait? mention how long people have probably
(A) It is 55 miles wide. been in the Americas?
(B) It separates North America and Asia. (A) Lines 1 - 2
(C) It was probably a land bridge during (B) Lines 3 - 4
the Ice Ages. (C) Lines 6 - 7
(D) It is a land bridge today. (D) Lines 8 - 9

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Questions 41 - 50

Alpha Centauri is a triple-star system. One of the three stars in Alpha Centauri is Proxima
Centauri, which is the nearest star to the Earth, except of course for the Sun. The name “Proxima”
comes from a Latin word which means “close.”
Even though Proxima Centauri is the closest star to the Earth outside of our solar system, it is
not really close. Interstellar distances are so large that they are almost impossible to imagine. A
person traveling in a modern spacecraft would not arrive at Proxima Centauri within this lifetime
or the next, or even ten lifetimes because the distance is so great. Light travels at a speed of 186,000
miles per second, and it still takes light more than four years to travel from Proxima Centauri to the
Earth.
Alpha Centauri can be easily seen in the night sky without a telescope from certain parts of the
Earth. It is the third brightest star in the sky, out of approximately 6,000 visible stars. It cannot be
seen from most parts of the United States because most of the United States is too far north;
however; it can be seen from the southern parts of the southernmost states.

41. The main subject of this passage is 44. “Interstellar distances” in line 5 are
(A) the closest stars to the Earth (A) distances between stars
(B) modern space travel (B) distances between the Earth and
(C) the speed of light various stars
(D) interstellar distances (C) distances measured by the speed of
light
42. The passage indicates that which of (D) distances from the Sun to each of the
the following is NOT true? planets, including the Earth
(A) Alpha Centauri is composed of three
stars. 45. It can be inferred from the passage that if
(B) Proxima Centauri is the closest star to a person left in one of today’s spacecrafts,
the Earth. he or she would arrive at Alpha Centauri
(C) Proxima Centauri is one of the stars in (A) within this lifetime
Alpha Centauri. (B) within the next lifetime within
(D) It is possible to see Alpha Centauri (C) ten lifetimes
from the Earth. (D) after more than ten lifetimes

43. The word “comes” in line 3 could best be 46. The word “great” in line 7 could best be
replaced by replaced by which of the following?
(A) travels (A) Famous
(B) is derived (B) Well-known
(C) is directed (C) Accomplished
(D) visits (D) Big

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47. Which of the following is true according 49. It can be inferred from the passage that
to the passage? from Alaska Alpha Centauri is
(A) Light travels at 186,000 miles per (A) always visible
hour. (B) frequently visible
(B) A person could travel from Earth to (C) occasionally visible
Proxima Centauri in four years. (D) never visible
(C) Light from Proxima Centauri reaches
the Earth in more than four years. 50. Where in the passage does the author
(D) It is 186,000 miles from the Earth to explain how fast light can travel?
Proxima Centauri. (A) Lines 1 - 2
(B) Line5
48. The word “brightest” in line 11 could best (C) Lines 7 - 9
be replaced by (D) Lines 10 – 11
(A) smartest
(B) palest
(C) shiniest
(D) largest

This is the end of the Reading Comprehension Test.

THIS IS THE END OF THE COMPLETED TEST

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