Interim Financial Reporting: Overview: Course Materials: Objective of Ias 34
Interim Financial Reporting: Overview: Course Materials: Objective of Ias 34
The entity discloses its compliances with IFRSs if it has complied with
IAS 34 and all the requirements of other IFRSs.
4. Which of the following is true with regards to the disclosure of Course Materials:
compliance with IFRSs provided in IAS 34?
a. If an entity’s interim financial report is not in compliance with IAS 34, OPERATING SEGMENTS DEFINED IN IFRS 8
that fact shall be disclosed IFRS 8 defines an operating segment as follows. An operating segment is a
b. An interim financial report shall not be described as complying with component of an entity: [IFRS 8.2]
IFRSs unless it complies with all the requirements of IAS 34 that engages in business activities from which it may earn revenues and incur
c. An interim financial report shall not be disclosed as complying with expenses (includes the revenues and expenses relating to transactions with
IFRSs unless it complies with all the requirements of IFRSs. other components of the same entity)
d. A and B whose operating results are reviewed regularly by the entity's chief operating
decision maker to make decisions about resources to be allocated to the
segment and assess
5. If an entity does not prepare interim financial reports, its performance, and the chief operating decision maker could be an individual,
a. Its annual financial statements would not conform to the IFRSs. such as the chief executive officer or the chief operating officer or it could be a
b. Its annual financial statements should not be described to have been group of executives such as the board of directors or a management committee.
prepared in accordance with IFRSs. for which discrete financial information is available
c. The conformance of its annual financial statements with the IFRSs is
not affected. REPORTABLE SEGMENTS
d. A and B IFRS 8 requires an entity to report financial and descriptive information about
its reportable segments. Reportable segments are operating segments or
Module 6 aggregations of operating segments
OPERATING SEGMENTS that meet specified criteria (IFRS 8.13):
Overview: its reported revenue, from both external customers and intersegment sales
IFRS 8 Operating Segments requires an entity whose debt or equity or transfers, is 10 per cent or more of the combined revenue, internal and
securities are publicly traded to disclose information to enable users of its external, of all operating segments, or
financial statements to evaluate the nature and financial effects of the he absolute measure of its reported profit or loss is 10 per cent or more of
different business activities in which it engages and the different economic the greater, in absolute amount, of (i) the combined reported profit of all
environments in which it operates. It specifies how an entity should report operating segments that did not report a loss and (ii) the combined reported
information about its operating segments in annual financial statements loss of all operating segments that reported a loss,
and in interim financial reports. It also sets out requirements for related or its assets are 10% or more of the combined assets of all operating
disclosures about products and services, geographical areas and major segments
customers.
Two or more operating segments may be aggregated into a single operating
Module Objectives: segment if aggregation is consistent with the core principles of the standard, the
At the end of the module, you will be able to: segments have similar economic characteristics and are similar in various
❖ define operating segments; prescribed respects (IFRS 8.12).
❖ identify and apply the criteria for reportable segments; and
If the total external revenue reported by operating segments • Types of products/services generating revenues
constitutes less than 75% of the entity's revenue, additional operating
segments must be identified as reportable segments (even if they do not Information about Profit or Loss, Assets and Liabilities
meet the quantitative thresholds set out above) until at least 75% of the Measurement of segment items equal to the measure reported to the Chief
entity's revenue is included in reportable segments (IFRS 8.15). Operating Decision Maker (CODM)
Disclose separately the following amounts if it is included in items of segment
Illustration: profit or loss reported to Chief Operating Decision Maker or regularly
ABS Company has the following segments for the year: reported to him:
Revenue Profit ▪ Revenue from external customers
Segment 1 P6,000,000 ▪ “Internal” revenue
P1,500,000 ▪ Interest revenue
Segment 2 4,500,000 850,000 ▪ Interest expense
Segment 3 1,000,000 ▪ Depreciation and amortization
(300,000) ▪ Material items of income and expense
Segment 4 800,000 200,000 ▪ Interest in P/L of associates and joint venture
▪ Income tax expense or income
What are the reportable segments? ▪ Material non-cash items
Solution: Provide an explanation of measurement basis of segment profit or loss,
Revenue: segment assets and segment liabilities for each reportable segment:
(P6,000,000 + P4,500,000 + P1,000,000 + P800,000) = P12,300,000 ▪ Basis of accounting for transaction between reportable segments
P12,300,000 x 10% = P1,230,000; Qualify: 1, 2 ▪ Nature of differences between measurements of reportable segments’
Profit: (P1,500,000 + P850,000 + P200,000) = P2,550,000 x 10% = P/L and entity’s P/L after income tax + discounted operations
P255,000 ▪ Nature of differences between measurements of reportable segments’
Loss: P300,000 assets and entity’s assets
Qualify: 1, 2 and 3 ▪ Nature of differences between measurements of reportable segments’
**Segment 3 is included since the threshold is P255,000 profit or loss liabilities and entity’s liabilities
▪ Nature of any changes from prior periods in the measurement methods
OPERATING SEGMENTS: DISCLOSURES to determine segment’s P/L and their effects
This can be classified into four categories: ▪ Nature and effect of asymmetrical allocations to reportable segments
General Information
• Information about profit or loss, assets and liabilities Reconciliations
• Reconciliations Total of reportable segments’ revenue to entity’s revenue
• Entity-wide Disclosures • Total of reportable segment’s profit or loss to entity’s profit or loss before
and after tax and discounted operations
General Information includes disclosures of: • Total of reportable segment’s assets to entity’s assets
Factors used to identify reportable segments – especially the basis of • Total of reportable segment’s liabilities to entity’s liabilities
organizations • Total of reportable segment’s amounts for every other material item of
• Judgements in applying aggregation criteria information disclosed to the corresponding amount of the entity
Entity-wide Disclosures 3. When is an operating segment is reportable?
These are not at a segment level but at the entity level of all the segments A. The segment external and internal revenue is 10% or more of the
Information about the products and services combined external and internal revenue of all operating segments.
• Information about geographical areas B. The segment profit or loss is 10% or more of the greater between the
✓ Revenue from external customers combined profit of all profitable operating segments and the combined
o Attributed to entity’s country of domicile loss of all unprofitable operating segments
o Attributed to all foreign countries C. The assets of the segment are 10% or more of the total assets of all
✓ Non-current assets operating segments.
o Located in entity’s country of domicile D. Under all of these circumstances
o Located in all foreign countries
• Information about major customers 4. Operating segments that do not meet any of the quantitative thresholds
- Report if revenue with single customer is 10% or more of the A. Cannot be considered reportable
total revenue B. May be considered reportable and separately disclosed if management
believes that information about the segment would be useful to the users
of the financial statements
C. May be considered reportable if the information is for internal use only
Assessment Activities D. May be considered reportable and separately disclosed if this is the
Choose the letter of the best answer. practice within the economic environment in which the entity operates
1. If financial report contains both the consolidated financial statements of
a parent and the parent’s separate financial statements, segment 5. Which is true concerning the 75% overall size test for operating segments?
information is required in A. The total external and internal revenue of all reportable segments is 75%
A. The separate financial statement only or more of the entity’s external revenue
B. The consolidated financial statement only B. The total external revenue of all reportable segments is 75% or more of the
C. Both the separate and consolidated financial statements entity’s consolidated revenues
D. Neither the separate nor the consolidated financial statement C. The total external revenue of all reportable segments is 75% or more of the
entity’s unconsolidated revenues.
2. Which statement is true with respect to a chief operating decision D. Total internal revenue of all reportable segments is 75% or more of the
maker? entity’s internal revenue
A. The term chief operating decision maker identifies a function and
not necessarily a manager with a specific title. 6. Which of the following statements about major customer disclosure is true?
B. In some cases, the chief operating decision maker could be the chief A. A major customer is defined as one providing revenue which amounts to
operating officer 10% or more of the combined external revenue of all operating segments.
C. The board of directors acting collectively could qualify as the chief B. The identities of major customers need not be disclosed
operating decision maker. C. The entity shall disclose the total amount of revenue from major customer
D. The chief internal auditor who reports to the board of directors and the identity of the segment reporting the revenue
usually plays a very important role and would generally qualify as chief D. All of these statements are true about major customer disclosure
operating decision maker
7. Under PFRS 8, which is not a required reconciliation of segment D. Segment profits and loss and related information
information?
A. The total of the reportable segments’ revenue to the entity’s 11. The sum of the reportable segment’s external sales must be at least equal to
revenue what percent of
B. The total of the reportable segments’ profit or loss to the entity’s total operating segment’s external sales?
profit or loss before tax expense and discounted operations. A. 60%
C. The total number of major customers of all segments to the total B. 75%
number of major customers of the entity. C. 50%
D. The total of the reportable segments’ assets to the entity’s assets D. 65%
8. Which quantitative threshold is not a requirement in qualifying a 12. Under PFRS 8, the management approach of identifying reportable operating
reportable segment? segments means that operating segments are identified on the basis of internal
A. The segment revenue, both external and internal, is 10% or more of reports about the components of an entity that are regularly reviewed by:
the combined external and internal revenue of all operating segments. A. The chief accountant.
B. The segment profit or loss is 10% or more of the greater between B. The chief audit executive
the combined profit or profitable segments and combined loss of C. The chief operating decision maker
unprofitable segments. D. The respective head of each operating segment
C. The segment assets are 10% or more of the combined assets of all
operating segments Problem Solving:
D. The segment assets are 20% or more of the combined assets of all 1. An entity and its division are engaged solely in manufacturing. The following
operating segments data pertain to the industries for the year ended December 31, 2019
Operating Profit (Loss)
9. Which of the following is not a required disclosure about operating Segment 1 P20,000,000
segments? Segment 2 (10,000,000)
A. The total of revenue from major external customers exceeding 50% Segment 3 ( 6,000,000)
of the entity’s revenue Segment 4 ( 9,000,000)
B. The identity of the major customer that accounts for 20% of the Segment 5 ( 3,000,000)
entity’s revenue To be reportable segment, the segment profit or loss should be at least what
C. Revenue from external customers attributable to the entity’s amount?
country of domicile and attributed to all foreign countries in total from
which the entity derives revenue. 2. An entity identified the following segments for the current year:
D. Revenue from external customers for each product and service. Segment Revenue Profit Assets
A P10,000,000 P1,750,000 P20,000,000
10. PFRS 8 (Operating Segments) requires that a company report all to the B 8,000,000 1,400,000 17,500,000
following, except. C 6,000,000 1,200,000 12,500,000
A. Major customers D 3,000,000 550,000 7,500,000
B. Segment assets and liabilities E 4,000,000 575,000 5,500,000
C. Liquidity ratios F 2,000,000 525,000 3,000,000
What are the reportable segments? RELATED PARTIES AND RELATED PARTY TRANSACTIONS
A related party is a person or entity that is related to the entity that is
3. An entity reported the following segment profit or loss for the current preparing its financial statements.
year ❖ A person or a close member of that person’s family is related to a reporting
Segment 1 7,000,000 Profit entity if that person:
Segment 2 3,000,000 Profit ➢ has control or joint control of the reporting entity;
Segment 3 4,000,000 (Loss) ➢ has significant influence over the reporting entity; or
Segment 4 1,000,000 Profit ➢ is a member of the key management personnel of the reporting entity
Segment 5 500,000 (Loss) or of a parent of the reporting entity.
What segments are qualified as reportable? ❖ An entity is related to a reporting entity if any of the following conditions
applies:
➢ The entity and the reporting entity are members of the same group
(which means that each parent, subsidiary and fellow subsidiary is
related to the others).
➢ One entity is an associate or joint venture of the other entity (or an
associate or joint venture of a member of a group of which the other entity is a
member).
➢ Both entities are joint ventures of the same third party.
➢ One entity is a joint venture of a third entity and the other entity is an
associate of the third entity
Module 7 ➢ The entity is a post-employment benefit plan for the benefit of employees
RELATED PARTY DISCLOSURES of either the reporting entity or an entity related to the reporting entity. If
Overview: the reporting entity is itself such a plan, the sponsoring employers are also
In 2001 the International Accounting Standards Board (Board) adopted related to the reporting entity.
IAS 24 Related Party Disclosures. The objective of this standard is to ensure ➢ The entity is controlled or jointly controlled by a person identified.
that an entity’s financial statements contain the disclosures necessary to ➢ The entity, or any member of a group of which it is a part, provides key
draw attention to the possibility that its financial position and profit or loss management personnel services to the reporting entity or to the parent of
may have been affected by the existence of related parties and by the reporting entity.
transactions and outstanding balances, including commitments, with such
parties. On the other hand, in considering each possible related party relationship,
attention is directed to the substance of the relationship and not merely the legal
Module Objectives: form. The following are not related parties:
After successful completion of this module, you should be able to: ❖ two entities simply because they have a director or other member of key
❖ understand the purpose of related party disclosures; and management personnel in common or because a member of key
❖ identify the required disclosures related to IAS 24. management personnel of one entity has significant influence over the other
entity.
Course Materials: ❖ two joint venturers simply because they share joint control of a joint
venture.
❖ providers of finance, trade unions, public utilities, and departments Moreover, an entity shall disclose key management personnel compensation
and agencies of a government that does not control, jointly control or in total and for each of the short-term employee benefits, post-employment
significant influence the reporting entity, simply by virtue of their benefits, other long-term benefits, termination benefits and share-based
normal dealings with an entity (even though they may affect the payment. Amounts incurred by the entity for the provision of key management
freedom of action of an entity or participate in its decision-making personnel services that are provided by a separate management entity shall also
process). be disclosed.
❖ a customer, supplier, franchisor, distributor or general agent with If an entity had related party transactions during the periods covered by the
whom an entity transacts a significant volume of business, simply by financial statements, it shall disclose the nature of the related party relationship
virtue of the resulting economic dependence. as well as information about those transactions and outstanding balances,
including commitments, necessary for users to understand the potential effect of
A related party transaction is a transfer of resources, services or obligations the relationship on the financial statements. At a minimum
between a reporting entity and a related party, regardless of whether a the disclosure includes:
price is charged. The following are the amount of the transactions.
examples of related party transactions that are to be disclosed: the amount of outstanding balances, including commitments, their terms and
purchases or sales of goods (finished or unfinished) conditions and details of any guarantees given or received.
purchases or sales of property and other assets provisions for doubtful debts related to the amount of outstanding balances.
rendering or receiving of services the expense recognized during the period in respect of bad or doubtful debts
leases due from related parties.
transfers of research and development
transfers under license agreements Assessment Activities
transfers under finance arrangements (including loans and equity Choose the letter of the best answer.
contributions in cash or in kind) 1. Which of the following is not a related party?
provision of guarantees or collateral a. Entities with joint control or significant influence over the entity
commitments to do something if an event occurs or does not occur in b. The parent company of the entity
the future, including executory contracts (recognized and c. An entity that has a common director with the entity
unrecognized) d. Joint ventures in which the entity is a venture
settlement of liabilities on behalf of the entity or by the entity on
behalf of that related party. 2. Which of the following are not necessarily related parties?
a. Affiliates
REQUIRED DISCLOSURES b. Two enterprises that have common director
Relationships between a parent and its subsidiaries shall be disclosed c. Two enterprise and its key management personnel, directors and officers
irrespective of whether there have been transactions between them. An d. The enterprise and its associates
entity shall disclose the name of its parent and, if different, the ultimate
controlling party. If neither the entity’s parent nor the ultimate controlling 3. Which of the following is conclusively a party (or parties) related to the
party produces consolidated financial statements available for public use, reporting entity?
the name of the next most senior parent that does so shall also be a. A venture sharing joint control with the reporting enterprise over a joint
disclosed. venture.
b. Providers of finance, trade unions, public utilities and government c. Dependents of the individual or the individual’s spouse
departments and agencies simply by virtue of their normal dealings d. Brothers and sisters.
with an entity.
c. A customer, supplier, franchisor of general agent with whom an 8. Which of the following does not fall within the definition of an entity’s related
entity transacts a significant volume of business merely by virtue of the party?
resulting economic dependence. a. Joint party in which the entity is a venture
d. Post-employment benefit plan for the benefit of employees of the b. A post-employment benefit plan for the benefit of the employees of
entity. the entity’s parent
c. An executive director of the entity
4. Which of the following falls within the definition of “related parties” as d. The partner of a key manager is a major supplier of the entity
defined in IAS 24?
a. Providers of finance in the course of their normal dealings with an 9. A related party transaction is a transfer of resources or obligations
enterprise by virtue only of those dealings a. Between related parties when a price is charged.
b. A supplier with whom the reporting entity has a one-year contract b. Between related parties, regardless of whether a price is charged.
for the supply of raw materials c. Between unrelated parties when price is charged.
c. Government department and agencies d. Between unrelated parties, regardless of whether a price is charged.
d. The wife of a key management personnel who has the authority to
plan, direct, and control the activities of the reporting enterprise. 10. If there had been transactions between related parties, the entity shall
disclose
5. Which of the following statements is true? a. The nature of the relationship only.
I. A party is related to another entity that is jointly controlled b. The information about the transaction and outstanding balances.
II. A party is related to another entity that is controls c. The nature of the relationship, information about the transaction and
a. I only outstanding balances.
b. II only d. Neither the nature of the relationship nor the information about the
c. Both I and II transaction and outstanding balances.
d. Neither I nor II
6. Which of the following is not a related party of an entity? 11. Which is not a related party transaction?
a. A shareholder of the entity owning 30% of the ordinary shares a. Between and among subsidiaries of a common parent
b. An entity providing banking facilities to the entity b. Between a parent and its subsidiaries
c. An associate of the entity c. Between the enterprise and its key management and close members of the
d. Key management personnel of the entity family
d. Between an enterprise and its branch
7. Under IAS 24, close family members of a person are those family
members who may be expected to influence or be influenced by that 12. Which of the following situations will require disclose as a related party?
person in their dealings with the entity. Who, among the following, is not a. In consolidated financial statements in respect to intra-group transactions.
included in this definition of close family members? b. In the financial statements of state-controlled enterprises of transactions
a. The individual’s spouse and children with other state-controlled enterprises
b. Children of the individual’s spouse
c. In the aren’t financial statements when they are made available or
published with the consolidated financial statements Module 8
d. In related party relationships where control exists, irrespective of CASH TO ACCRUAL ACCOUNTING AND SINGLE-ENTRY SYSTEM
whether there have been transactions between related parties Overview:
Although predicting future cash flows is the primary goal of many users of
13. Which of the following disclosures is not a mandated disclosure under financial reporting, the model best able to achieve that goal is accrual accounting.
IAS 24? A competing model is cash-basis accounting. Each model produces a periodic
a. Relationships between parents and subsidiaries irrespective of measure of performance that could be used by investors and creditors for
whether there have been transactions between those related parties. predicting future cash flows. In this module, we will be discussing about the cash
b. Names of all the “associates: that an entity has dealt with during the and accrual basis of accounting and the underlying concept about single-entry
year. system.
c. Name of the entity’s parent and, if different, the ultimate controlling
party. Module Objectives:
d. If neither the entity’s parent nor its ultimate controlling entity After successful completion of this module, you should be able to:
produces financial statements available for public use, then the name understand the features of a single-entry system of accounting and
of the next most senior parent that does so. differentiate from double entry system; and
compute revenue and expense items on an accrual basis taken from the
14. If there had been related party transactions during the year, which of records of entities using cash basis accounting and single-entry system.
the following is not a required minimum disclosure?
a. The amount of the related party transactions Course Materials:
b. The amount of the outstanding related party balances and their
terms and conditions along with details of guarantees given and CASH TO ACCRUAL BASIS
received. Under cash basis of accounting, income is recognized when received
c. The amount of similar transaction with unrelated parties to establish regardless of when earned, and expense is recognized when paid regardless of
the comparable related party transactions have been entered at arm’s when incurred. In other words, this approach does not recognize accounts
length. receivable, accounts payable, accrued income, deferred income, accrued expense
d. Provisions for doubtful debts related to the amount of outstanding and prepaid expenses. The measure is the difference between
related party balances and expense recognized during the year in respect cash receipts and cash payments from transactions related to providing goods and
of bad or doubtful debts due from related parties. services to customers during a reporting period. This basis is simple, less costly
and more reliable since estimates and judgement is not required. However, it is
not useful in evaluating performance because it does not reflect the results of all
15. Which of the following would not be considered “compensation” of key profit-directed activities which took place during the period and cash receipt and
management payments and the related accomplishments and effort occur in different periods.
personnel? Moreover, it doesn’t present the financial position or operating result of an
a. Short-term benefits enterprise in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles.
b. Termination benefits On the other hand, accrual basis of accounting recognizes income when
c. Share-based payments earned
d. Reimbursement of out-of-pocket expenses
regardless when cash is received and recognizes expense when incurred Decrease in Accounts/ Notes Receivable- trade (A,N/R, ending < A,N/R,
regardless of when paid. Thus, the essence of this approach is the beginning),
recognition accounts receivable, accounts payable, accrued income, means that there was more collection than sales on account (this, Add
deferred income, accrued expense and prepaid expenses. the decrease to the accrual basis to get the cash basis sales or deduct the
decrease from the cash basis to get the accrual basis sales)
Comparison of cash basis and accrual basis Accrual basis sales XX Cash basis sales XX
Cash Basis Accrual Basis Decrease in Accounts/ Decrease in Accounts/
Sales Cash sales plus collection of Cash sales plus sales on Notes Receivable XX or Notes Receivable (XX)
trade receivables. account. Cash basis sales XX Accrual basis sales XX
Purchases Cash purchases plus payment Cash purchases plus
to trade creditors. purchases on account. Increase in the Accounts/ Notes Payable- trade (A,N/P, ending > A,N/P,
Income other Amount received is considered Amount earned are beginning) ,
than sales as income regardless when considered as income means that there were more purchases on account than payments to
earned. regardless when it is suppliers (thus, add the increase to the cash basis purchases (payments
received. made) to get the accrual basis purchases or Deduct the increase from the
Expenses, in Amounts paid is treated as Amount incurred are accrual basis purchases to get the cash basis purchases)
general expense regardless of when considered as expense Accrual basis purchases XX Cash basis purchases XX
incurred. regardless when it is Increase in Accounts/ Increase in Accounts/
Depreciation Depreciation is provided Depreciation is provided Notes Payable (XX) or Notes Payable XX
normally. normally. Cash basis purchases XX Accrual basis purchases XX
Bad debts No bad debts are recognized Doubtful accounts are
because trade receivables are treated as bad debts. Decrease on Accounts/ Notes Payable- trade (A,N/P, ending < A,N/P,
not recognized. beginning),
means that there were more payments to supplies (cash basis purchases)
Conversion from Cash Basis to Accrual Basis than accrual basis purchases (thus, add the decrease to the accrual basis
Increase in Accounts/ Notes Receivable- trade (A,N/R, ending > purchases to get the cash basis purchases or the total payments made or
A,N/R, beginning) , Deduct the decrease from the cash basis purchases to get the accrual basis
means there were more sales on account than collection (thus, Add the purchases).
increase to cash basis to get accrual basis sales or deduct increase from Accrual basis purchases XX Cash basis purchases XX
the accrual basis to get the cash basis sale) Increase in Accounts/ Increase in Accounts/
Notes Payable XX or Notes Payable (XX)
Cash basis purchases XX Accrual basis purchases XX
The conversion of data from cash basis to accrual basis focuses on the
Accrual basis sales XX Cash basis sales XX
recognition of accruals and deferrals, since these are the items that are
Increase in Accounts/ Increase in Accounts/
usually taken under the accrual basis that are not considered under cash
Notes Receivable (XX) or Notes Receivable XX
basis.
Cash basis sales XX Accrual basis sales XX
Computation for converting cash basis data to accrual would include the Accrued Revenue
following: Beginning balance Collections (cash basis)
Recognized income (accrual basis)
Cash receipts representing revenue XX Ending balance
Accrual revenue, beginning of the period (XX)
Accrual revenue, end of the period XX Unearned Revenue
Unearned revenue, beginning of the period XX Recognized income (accrual basis) Beginning balance
Unearned revenue, end of the period (XX) Collections (cash basis)
Revenue under accrual basis XX Ending balance
5. Beam Company provided the following data for the current year:
Cash sales P2,500,000 Inventory - Jan 1 P 500,000
Sales on account 850,000 Inventory - Dec 31 600,000
Cash purchases 1,700,000 Accrued expenses - Dec 31
20,000
Credit purchases 400,000 Prepaid expense - Dec 31
30,000
Expenses paid 750,000 Equipment- Dec 31
1,000,000
Accounts receivable- Jan 1 250,000 Interest received 40,000
Accounts receivable- Dec 31 300,000 Interest receivable - Jan 1
10,000