(MCQs) focuses on “Transport Layer ”

UNIT IV
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Transport Layer”.

1. Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before passing
it to ____________
a) network layer
b) data link layer
c) application layer
d) physical layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The flow of data in the OSI model flows in following manner Application ->
Presentation -> Session -> Transport -> Network -> Data Link -> Physical. Each and every layer
has its own set of functions and protocols to ensure efficient network performance.
2. Which of the following are transport layer protocols used in networking?
a) TCP and FTP
b) UDP and HTTP
c) TCP and UDP
d) HTTP and FTP
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Both TCP and UDP are transport layer protocol in networking. TCP is an
abbreviation for Transmission Control Protocol and UDP is an abbreviation for User Datagram
Protocol. TCP is connection oriented whereas UDP is connectionless.
3. User datagram protocol is called connectionless because _____________
a) all UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer
b) it sends data as a stream of related packets
c) it is received in the same order as sent order
d) it sends data very quickly
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: UDP is an alternative for TCP and it is used for those purposes where speed matters
most whereas loss of data is not a problem. UDP is connectionless whereas TCP is connection
oriented.
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4. Transmission control protocol ___________
a) is a connection-oriented protocol
b) uses a three way handshake to establish a connection
c) receives data from application as a single stream
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: TCP provides reliable and ordered delivery of a stream of bytes between hosts
communicating via an IP network. Major internet applications like www, email, file transfer etc
rely on TCP. TCP is connection oriented and it is optimized for accurate delivery rather than
timely delivery.
5. An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called
__________
a) socket
b) pipe
c) port
d) machine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Socket is one end point in a two way communication link in the network. TCP layer
can identify the application that data is destined to be sent by using the port number that is bound
to socket.
6. Socket-style API for windows is called ____________
a) wsock
b) winsock
c) wins
d) sockwi
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Winsock is a programming interface which deals with input output requests for
internet applications in windows OS. It defines how windows network software should access
network services.
7. Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?
a) datagram congestion control protocol
b) stream control transmission protocol
c) structured stream transport
d) user congestion control protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The datagram congestion control is a transport layer protocol which deals with
reliable connection setup, teardown, congestion control, explicit congestion notification, and
feature negotiation. It is used in modern day systems where there are really high chances of
congestion. The protocol was last updated in the year 2008.
8. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.
a) port
b) pipe
c) node
d) protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Just as the IP address identifies the computer, the network port identifies the
application or service running on the computer. A port number is 16 bits. The combination of IP
address preceded with the port number is called the socket address.
9. Transport layer protocols deals with ____________
a) application to application communication
b) process to process communication
c) node to node communication
d) man to man communication
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transport layer is 4th layer in TCP/IP model and OSI reference model. It deals with
logical communication between process. It is responsible for delivering a message between
network host.
10. Which of the following is a transport layer protocol?
a) stream control transmission protocol
b) internet control message protocol
c) neighbor discovery protocol
d) dynamic host configuration protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a transport layer protocol
used in networking system where streams of data are to be continuously transmitted between two
connected network nodes. Some of the other transport layer protocols are RDP, RUDP, TCP,
DCCP, UDP etc.
11. Which of the following is false with respect to TCP?
a) Connection-oriented
b) Process-to-process
c) Transport layer protocol
d) Unreliable
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: TCP is a transport layer protocol that provides reliable and ordered delivery of a
stream of bytes between hosts communicating via an IP network.
12. In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as _______
a) Stream of bytes
b) Sequence of characters
c) Lines of data
d) Packets
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: TCP provides stream oriented delivery between hosts communicating via an IP
network and there are no message boundaries. TCP can concatenate data from a number of send
() commands into one stream of data and still transmit it reliably.
13. TCP process may not write and read data at the same speed. So we need __________ for
storage.
a) Packets
b) Buffers
c) Segments
d) Stacks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A TCP receiver has a receive buffer that is used to store the unprocessed incoming
packets in case the sender is sending packets faster than the processing rate of the received
packets.
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14. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called _______
a) Packet
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Stack
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A segment may be collection of data from many send () statements. TCP transmits
each segment as a stream of bytes.
15. Communication offered by TCP is ________
a) Full-duplex
b) Half-duplex
c) Semi-duplex
d) Byte by byte
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Data can flow both the directions at the same time during a TCP communication
hence, it is full-duplex. This is the reason why TCP is used in systems that require full-duplex
operation such as e-mail systems.
16. To achieve reliable transport in TCP, ___________ is used to check the safe and sound
arrival of data.
a) Packet
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Acknowledgment
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Acknowledgment mechanism is used to check the safe and sound arrival of data.
The sender actively checks for acknowledgement from the receiver and once a specific time
period has passed, it retransmits the data.
17. In segment header, sequence number and acknowledgement number fields refer to _______
a) Byte number
b) Buffer number
c) Segment number
d) Acknowledgment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As TCP has to ensure ordered delivery of packets, sequence number and
acknowledgement number are used to identify the byte number of the packet in the stream of
bytes being transmitted.
18. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is numbered
10001. What is the sequence number of the segment if all data is sent in only one segment?
a) 10000
b) 10001
c) 12001
d) 11001
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The sequence number given to first byte of a segment, with respect to its order
among the previous segments, is the sequence number of that segment.
19. Bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. These numbers
start with a _________
a) Fixed number
b) Random sequence of 0’s and 1’s
c) One
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: One might expect the sequence number of the first byte in the stream to be 0, or 1.
But that does not happen in TCP, Instead, the sender has to choose an Initial Sequence Number
(ISN), which is basically a random 32 bit sequence of 0’s and 1’s, during the connection
handshake.
20. The value of acknowledgement field in a segment defines _______
a) sequence number of the byte received previously
b) total number of bytes to receive
c) sequence number of the next byte to be received
d) sequence of zeros and ones
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The acknowledgement field in a segment defines the sequence number of the byte
which is to be received next i.e. sequence number of byte that the sender should transmit next.
21. The receiver of the data controls the amount of data that are to be sent by the sender is
referred to as ___________
a) Flow control
b) Error control
c) Congestion control
d) Error detection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flow control is done to prevent the receiver from being overflowed with data. It is
done using various open-loop (prevention) methods and closed-loop (recovery) methods.
22. Size of TCP segment header ranges between ___________
a) 16 and 32 bytes
b) 16 and 32 bits
c) 20 and 60 bytes
d) 20 and 60 bits
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The size of the header can be 20 bytes at a minimum if there are no options and can
go up to 60 bytes at maximum with 40 bytes in the options field. The header contains all the
control information required to ensure ordered, error-free and reliable delivery of the segment.
23. Connection establishment in TCP is done by which mechanism?
a) Flow control
b) Three-Way Handshaking
c) Forwarding
d) Synchronization
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A three-way handshake allows both, the server and the client to choose their Initial
Sequence Number and inform about it to the other party. This won’t be possible using the two-
way handshake mechanism.
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24. The server program tells its TCP that it is ready to accept a connection. This process is called
___________
a) Active open
b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This is the first step in the Three-Way Handshaking process and is started by the
server. Then the Client picks an ISN (Initial Sequence Number) and synchronizes (shares) it with
the Server requesting a connection. The Server acknowledges the clients ISN, and then picks an
ISN and synchronizes it with the Client. At last, the Client acknowledges the servers ISN.
25. A client that wishes to connect to an open server tells its TCP that it needs to be connected to
that particular server. The process is called ___________
a) Active open
b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This is the second step in the Three-Way Handshaking process and is done by the
client once it finds the open server and picks an ISN. The Server acknowledges the clients
request, and then picks an ISN and synchronizes it with the Client. At last, the Client
acknowledges the servers ISN.
26. In Three-Way Handshaking process, the situation where both the TCP’s issue an active open
is ___________
a) Mutual open
b) Mutual Close
c) Simultaneous open
d) Simultaneous close
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In simultaneous open situation, two nodes send an SYN signal to each other and
start a TCP connection. Here, both TCP nodes transmit a SYNC+ACK segment to each other
and a connection is established between them. This doesn’t happen usually, because both sides
have to know which port on the other side to send to.
27. A malicious attacker sends a large number of SYNC segments to a server, pretending that
each of them is coming from a different client by faking the source IP address in the datagram.
Which type of attack is being performed in this situation?
a) SYNC flooding attack
b) Active attack
c) Passive attack
d) Denial-of-service attack
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SYNC flooding attack is a form of Denial of Service attack. Due to the overflow of
SYNC segments sent to the server, the victims are not able to request for a connection to the
server, thus resulting in Denial of Service.
28. SYNC flooding attack belongs to a type of security attack known as ___________
a) SYNC flooding attack
b) Active attack
c) Passive attack
d) Denial-of-service attack
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: During SYNC flooding the system collapses and denies service to every request,
making it a DoS attack. Some other DoS attacks are bandwidth flooding, connection flooding
and UDP flooding.
29. The sizes of source and destination port address in TCP header are ___________
respectively.
a) 16-bits and 32-bits
b) 16-bits and 16-bits
c) 32-bits and 16-bits
d) 32-bits and 32-bits
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All port addresses are of 16 bits and they specify the type of service being used by
the network entity. For example, port 21 is used for FTP connections and port 25 is used for
ICMP connections.
30. What allows TCP to detect lost segments and in turn recover from that loss?
a) Sequence number
b) Acknowledgment number
c) Checksum
d) Both Sequence & Acknowledgment number
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TCP header contains separate fields for sequence number and acknowledgment
number. Comparing these values is what allows TCP to detect lost segments and in turn recover
from that loss. After detecting the lost segments, the recovery may require retransmission of the
lost segments of data.
31. Which of the following is false with respect to UDP?
a) Connection-oriented
b) Unreliable
c) Transport layer protocol
d) Low overhead
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, connectionless transport layer protocol that provides
message-based data transmission. TCP is an example of connection-oriented protocols.
32. Return value of the UDP port “Chargen” is _______
a) String of characters
b) String of integers
c) Array of characters with integers
d) Array of zero’s and one’s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Using Chargen with UDP on port 19, the server sends a UDP datagram containing a
random number of characters every time it receives a datagram from the connecting host. The
number of characters is between 0 and 512.
33. Beyond IP, UDP provides additional services such as _______
a) Routing and switching
b) Sending and receiving of packets
c) Multiplexing and demultiplexing
d) Demultiplexing and error checking
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: De-multiplexing is the delivering of received segments to the correct application
layer processes at the recipients end using UDP. Error checking is done through checksum in
UDP.
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34. What is the main advantage of UDP?
a) More overload
b) Reliable
c) Low overhead
d) Fast
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As UDP does not provide assurance of delivery of packet, reliability and other
services, the overhead taken to provide these services is reduced in UDP’s operation. Thus, UDP
provides low overhead, and higher speed.
35. Port number used by Network Time Protocol (NTP) with UDP is ________
a) 161
b) 123
c) 162
d) 124
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Network Time Protocol is a clock synchronization network protocol
implemented by using UDP port number 123 to send and receive time stamps.
36. What is the header size of a UDP packet?
a) 8 bytes
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bytes
d) 124 bytes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The fixed size of the UDP packet header is 8 bytes. It contains four two-byte fields:
Source port address, Destination port address, Length of packet, and checksum.
37. The port number is “ephemeral port number”, if the source host is _______
a) NTP
b) Echo
c) Server
d) Client
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Port numbers from 1025 to 5000 are used as ephemeral port numbers in Windows
Operating System. Ephemeral port numbers are short-lived port numbers which can be used for
clients in a UDP system where there are temporary clients all the time.
38. “Total length” field in UDP packet header is the length of _________
a) Only UDP header
b) Only data
c) Only checksum
d) UDP header plus data
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Total length is the 16 bit field which contains the length of UDP header and the
data. The maximum value of the Total length field and the maximum size of a UDP datagram is
65,535 bytes (8 byte header + 65,527 bytes of data).
39. Which is the correct expression for the length of UDP datagram?
a) UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length
b) UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s length
c) UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length
d) UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s length
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A user datagram is encapsulated in an IP datagram. There is a field in the IP header
that defines the total length of the IP packet. There is another field in the IP header that defines
the length of the header. So if we subtract the length of the IP header that is encapsulated in the
IP packet, we get the length of UDP datagram.
40. The ______ field is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram.
a) udp header
b) checksum
c) source port
d) destination port
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram. Though it is
not as efficient as CRC which is used in TCP, it gets the job done for the UDP datagram as UDP
doesn’t have to ensure the delivery of the packet.
(MCQs) focuses on “Application Layer ”
UNIT V
Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Application
Layer ”.

1. Which is not a application layer protocol?

a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) FTP
d) TCP

Answer: d
Explanation: TCP is transport layer protocol.

2. The packet of information at the application layer is called __________

a) Packet
b) Message
c) Segment
d) Frame

Answer: b
Explanation: For Application, Presentation and Session layers there is no data format for
message. Message is message as such in these three layers. But when it comes to Transport,
Network, Data and Physical layer they have data in format of segments, packets, frames and bits
respectively.

3. Which one of the following is an architecture paradigms?

a) Peer to peer
b) Client-server
c) HTTP
d) Both Peer-to-Peer & Client-Server

Answer: d
Explanation: HTTP is a protocol.
4. Application developer has permission to decide the following on transport layer side
a) Transport layer protocol
b) Maximum buffer size
c) Both Transport layer protocol and Maximum buffer size
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Application layer provides the interface between applications and the network. So
application developer can decide what transport layer to use and what should be its maximum
buffer size.

5. Application layer offers _______ service.

a) End to end
b) Process to process
c) Both End to end and Process to process
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: End to End service is provided in the application layer. Whereas process to process
service is provided at the transport layer.

6. E-mail is _________
a) Loss-tolerant application
b) Bandwidth-sensitive application
c) Elastic application
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Because it can work with available throughput.

7. Pick the odd one out.

a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Interactive games

Answer: d
Explanation: File transfer, File download and Email are services provided by the application
layer and there are message and data oriented.
8. Which of the following is an application layer service?
a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: The services provided by the application layer are network virtual terminal, file
transfer, access and management, mail services, directory services, various file and data
operations.

9. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the _______
address must be consulted.
a) IP
b) MAC
c) Port
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: IP address lets you know where the network is located. Whereas MAC address is a
unique address for every device. Port address identifies a process or service you want to carry on.

10. Which is a time-sensitive service?

a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Internet telephony

Answer: d
Explanation: Internet telephony is Loss-tolerant other applications are not.

11. Transport services available to applications in one or another form _________

a) Reliable data transfer
b) Timing
c) Security
d) All of the mentioned

12. Electronic mail uses which Application layer protocol?

a) SMTP
b) HTTP
c) FTP
d) SIP

Answer: a
Explanation: Email uses various protocols like SMTP, IMAP and POP. The most prominent one
used in application layer is SMTP.

13. The ____________ translates internet domain and host names to IP address.
a) domain name system
b) routing information protocol
c) network time protocol
d) internet relay chat

Answer: a
Explanation: Domain name system is the way the internet domain names are stored and
translated to IP addresses. The domain names systems matches the name of website to ip
addresses of the website.

14. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to another site
and then pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) Telnet
d) TCP

Answer: b

15. Application layer protocol defines ____________

a) types of messages exchanged
b) message format, syntax and semantics
c) rules for when and how processes send and respond to messages
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: Application layer deals with the user interface, what message is to be sent or the
message format, syntax and semantics. A user has access to application layer for sending and
receiving messages.
16. Which one of the following protocol delivers/stores mail to reciever server?
a) simple mail transfer protocol
b) post office protocol
c) internet mail access protocol
d) hypertext transfer protocol

Answer: a
Explanation: SMTP, abbreviation for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is an application layer
protocol. A client who wishes to send a mail creates a TCP connection to the SMTP server and
then sends the mail across the connection.

17. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called

a) base 64 encoding
b) base 32 encoding
c) base 16 encoding
d) base 8 encoding

Answer: a
Explanation: Base64 is used commonly in a number of applications including email via MIME,
and storing complex data in XML. Problem with sending normal binary data to a network is that
bits can be misinterpreted by underlying protocols, produce incorrect data at receiving node and
that is why we use this code.

18. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing devices on IP
network?
a) dynamic host configuration protocol
b) simple network management protocol
c) internet message access protocol
d) media gateway protocol

Answer: b
Explanation: SNMP is a set of protocols for network management and monitoring. This protocol
is included in the application layer. SNMP uses 7 protocol data units.

19. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol?

a) media gateway protocol
b) dynamic host configuration protocol
c) resource reservation protocol
d) session initiation protocol
Answer: c
Explanation: Resource reservation protocol is used in transport layer. It is designed to reserve
resources across a network for quality of service using the integrated services model.

20. Which protocol is a signaling communication protocol used for controlling multimedia
communication sessions?
a) session initiation protocol
b) session modelling protocol
c) session maintenance protocol
d) resource reservation protocol

Answer: a
Explanation: SIP is a signaling protocol in which its function includes initiating, maintaining and
terminating real time sessions. SIP is used for signaling and controlling multimedia sessions.

21. Which one of the following is not correct?

a) Application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices during a
communication session
b) HTTP is a session layer protocol
c) TCP is an application layer protocol
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: HTTP is an application layer protocol. Whereas TCP is a transport layer protocol.

22. When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the _____________
a) HTTP protocol
b) FTP protocol
c) SMTP protocol
d) TCP protocol

Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP is abbreviation for hypertext transfer protocol. It is the foundation of data
communication for world wide web. This protocol decides how the message is formatted and
transmitted etc.

23. The number of objects in a Web page which consists of 4 jpeg images and HTML text is
________
a) 4
b) 1
c) 5
d) 7

Answer: c
Explanation: 4 jpeg images + 1 base HTML file.

24. The default connection type used by HTTP is _________

a) Persistent
b) Non-persistent
c) Can be either persistent or non-persistent depending on connection request
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: By default the http connection is issued with persistent connection. In persistent
connection server leaves connection open after sending response. As little as one RTT (Time for
a small packet to travel from client to server and back) is required for all referenced objects.

25. The time taken by a packet to travel from client to server and then back to the client is called
__________
a) STT
b) RTT
c) PTT
d) JTT

Answer: b
Explanation: RTT stands for round-trip time.

26. The HTTP request message is sent in _________ part of three-way handshake.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth

Answer: c
Explanation: In first step client sends a segment to establish a connection with the server. In the
second the step the client waits for the acknowledgement to be received from the server. After
receiving the acknowledgement, the client sends actual data in the third step.

27. In the process of fetching a web page from a server the HTTP request/response takes
__________ RTTs.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3

Answer: b
Explanation: By default the http connection will be persistent connection. Hence it will take

28. The first line of HTTP request message is called _____________

a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity line

Answer: a
Explanation: The line followed by request line are called header lines and status line is the initial
part of response message.

29. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are specified in ____________ of HTTP message
a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity body

Answer: a
Explanation: It is specified in the method field of request line in the HTTP request message.

30. The __________ method when used in the method field, leaves entity body empty.
a) POST
b) SEND
c) GET
d) PUT

Answer: c
Explanation: There are two methods which help to request a response from a server. Those are
GET and POST. In GET method, the client requests data from server. In POST method the client
submits data to be processed to the server.

31. The HTTP response message leaves out the requested object when ____________ method is
used
a) GET
b) POST
c) HEAD
d) PUT

Answer: c
Explanation: HEAD method is much faster than GET method. In HEAD method much smaller
amount of data is transferred. The HEAD method asks only for information about a document
and not for the document itself.

32. Find the oddly matched HTTP status codes

a) 200 OK
b) 400 Bad Request
c) 301 Moved permanently
d) 304 Not Found

Answer: d
Explanation: 404 Not Found.

11. Which of the following is not correct?

a) Web cache doesnt has its own disk space
b) Web cache can act both like server and client
c) Web cache might reduce the response time
d) Web cache contains copies of recently requested objects

Answer: a
Explanation: Web cache or also known as HTTP cache is a temporary storage where HTML
pages and images are stored temporarily so that server lag could be reduced.

33. The conditional GET mechanism

a) Imposes conditions on the objects to be requested
b) Limits the number of response from a server
c) Helps to keep a cache upto date
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: The HTTP protocol requests the server of the website its trying to access so that it
can store its files, images etc. in cache memory. This request of asking the server for a document
considering a specific parameter is called conditional GET Request.
34. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line?
a) HTTP version number
b) URL
c) Method
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Status line is the the start line of an HTTP response. It contains the information
such as the protocol version, a status text, status code.

35. Multiple objects can be sent over a TCP connection between client and server in a persistent
HTTP connection.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Persistent connections are kept active after completing transaction so that multiple
objects can be sent over the same TCP connection.

36. HTTP is ________ protocol.

a) application layer
b) transport layer
c) network layer
d) data link layer

Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP is an Application layer protocol used to define how messages are formatted
and transmitted through the World Wide Web.

37. In the network HTTP resources are located by

a) uniform resource identifier
b) unique resource locator
c) unique resource identifier
d) union resource locator

Answer: a
Explanation: The Uniform Resource Identifier is a name and locator for the resource to be
located by the HTTP. The URLs and URNs are derived through the identifier.
38. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port on the
server.
a) user datagram protocol
b) transmission control protocol
c) border gateway protocol
d) domain host control protocol

Answer: b
Explanation: HTTP clients perform requests using a TCP connection, because the TCP
connection provides a more reliable service. UDP is not a reliable protocol, border gateway
protocol is used on top of TCP, while domain host control protocol is a network layer protocol.

39. In HTTP pipelining ________________

a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the
corresponding responses
b) multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a single TCP connection
c) multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection
d) multiple HTTP requests are sent at random on a single TCP connection

Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP pipelining helps the client make multiple requests without having to

40. FTP server listens for connection on port number ____________

a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23

Answer: b
Explanation: Port 20 is used for FTP data. Port 22 is used for SSH remote login. Port 23 is used
for TELNET.

41. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using ____ as the transport protocol.
a) transmission control protocol
b) user datagram protocol
c) datagram congestion control protocol
d) stream control transmission protocol

Answer: a
Explanation: The clients use the Transmission Control Protocol for FTP as it’s more reliable than
UDP, DCCP, and SCTP, and reliability of file transfer is required to be as high as possible for
FTP.

42. In Active mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: In Passive mode of FTP, the client initiates both data and control connections,
while in Active mode, the client initiates the control connection and then the server initiates the
data connection.

43. The File Transfer Protocol is built on ______________

a) data centric architecture
b) service oriented architecture
c) client server architecture
d) connection oriented architecture

Answer: c
Explanation: The FTP connection includes a Server and a Client which wish to share files. The
server can have multiple clients at the same time while the client communicates with only one
server at a time.

44. In File Transfer Protocol, data transfer cannot be done in ___________

a) stream mode
b) block mode
c) compressed mode
d) message mode

Answer: d
Explanation: In Stream mode, the data is transferred in a continuous stream. In Block mode, data
is transferred after being divided into smaller blocks. In Compressed mode, data is transferred
after being compressed using some compression algorithm.

45. Expansion of FTP is __________

a) Fine Transfer Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) First Transfer Protocol
d) Fast Transfer Protocol
Answer: b
Explanation: File Transfer Protocol is an application layer protocol used to share “files” between
a server and a client. The protocol uses two separate ports for data and control connections: port
20 for data and port 21 for control.

46. FTP is built on _____ architecture.

a) Client-server
b) P2P
c) Data centric
d) Service oriented

Answer: a
Explanation: An FTP connection includes a Server and a Client which wish to share a number of
data files. The server can transfer files with multiple clients at the same time while the client
communicates with only one server at a time.

47. FTP uses _________ parallel TCP connections to transfer a file.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Answer: b
Explanation: Control connection using FTP port: 21, and data connection using FTP port: 20.
The FTP session is started or ended using port 21 and the actual data i.e. files are sent through
port 20.

48. Identify the incorrect statement regarding FTP.

a) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol
b) FTP uses two parallel TCP connections
c) FTP sends its control information in-band
d) FTP sends exactly one file over the data connection

Answer: c
Explanation: FTP is out-of-band because the data connection is done separately through port 20
and control connection is done separately through port 21.

49. If 5 files are transferred from server A to client B in the same session. The number of TCP
connections between A and B is _______
a) 5
b) 10
c) 2
d) 6

Answer: d
Explanation: The client would first initiate the TCP control connection through port 21. Then for
every file transfer, a separate connection would be made through port 20. Now, since we have
five files to be transferred, 1 control connection + 5 data connections = 6 total TCP connections.

50. FTP server _____________

a) Maintains state information
b) Is stateless
c) Has single TCP connection for a file transfer
d) Has UDP connection for file transfer

Answer: a
Explanation: FTP server maintains state information of every control connection to keep track of
the active and inactive connections in the session. This helps the server decide which connection
to terminate, in case the connection is inactive for too long.

51. The commands, from client to server, and replies, from server to client, are sent across the
control connection in ________ bit ASCII format.
a) 8
b) 7
c) 3
d) 5

Answer: b
Explanation: FTP was designed to transmit commands only in English characters that are
possible with just 7 bits in ASCII. Even the media has to be converted to ASCII before
transmission.

52. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly matched.

a) 331 – Username OK, password required
b) 425 – Can’t open data connection
c) 452 – Error writing file
d) 452 – Can’t open data connection

Answer: d
Explanation: The correct response code for the message “Can’t open data connection” is 425.
Response code 452 is sent usually when the connection is suddenly closed.
53. The data transfer mode of FTP, in which all the fragmenting has to be done by TCP is
________
a) Stream mode
b) Block mode
c) Compressed mode
d) Message mode

Answer: a
Explanation: Stream mode is the default mode of FTP, in which the TCP transforms/fragments
the data into segments, and then after the transmission is completed, converts it back to stream of
bytes.

54. The password is sent to the server using ________ command.

a) PASSWD
b) PASS
c) PASSWORD
d) PWORD
Answer: b
Explanation: The PASS command, preceded by the username, completes the user’s identification
for access control in an FTP session. Without the valid password, the user won’t be able to
initiate the FTP connection.

55. When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________
a) SMTP server
b) SMTP client
c) Peer
d) Master
Answer: b
Explanation: SMTP clients are the entities that send mails to other mail servers. The SMTP
servers cannot send independent mails to other SMTP servers as an SMTP server. There are no
masters or peers in SMTP as it is based on the client-server architecture.

56. If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it has to be encoded into _______
a) Binary
b) Signal
c) ASCII
d) Hash
Answer: c
Explanation: Since only 7-bit ASCII codes are transmitted through SMTP, it is mandatory to
convert binary multimedia data to 7-bit ASCII before it is sent using SMTP.

57. Expansion of SMTP is ________

b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: SMTP or Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is an application layer protocol used to
transport e-mails over the Internet. Only 7-bit ASCII codes can be sent using SMTP.

58. In SMTP, the command to write receiver’s mail address is written with the command
_______
a) SEND TO
b) RCPT TO
c) MAIL TO
d) RCVR TO
Answer: b
Explanation: RCPT TO command is followed by the recipient’s mail address to specify where or
to whom the mail is going to through the internet. If there is more than one receiver, the
command is repeated for each address continually.

59. The underlying Transport layer protocol used by SMTP is ________

a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either TCP or UDP
d) IMAP
Answer: a
Explanation: TCP is a reliable protocol, and Reliability is a mandatory requirement in e-mail
transmission using SMTP.

60. Choose the statement which is wrong incase of SMTP?

a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format
b) It is a pull protocol
c) It transfers files from one mail server to another mail server
d) SMTP is responsible for the transmission of the mail through the internet
Answer: b
Explanation: In SMTP, the sending mail server pushes the mail to receiving mail server hence it
is push protocol. In a pull protocol such as HTTP, the receiver pulls the resource from the
sending server.

61. Internet mail places each object in _________

a) Separate messages for each object
b) One message
c) Varies with number of objects
d) Multiple messages for each object
Answer: b
Explanation: It places all objects into one message as it wouldn’t be efficient enough if there are
different messages for each object. The objects include the text and all the multimedia to be sent.
62. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is _________
a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 15
Answer: a
Explanation: The ports 15, 35 and 50 are all UDP ports and SMTP only uses TCP port 25 for
reliability.

63. A session may include ________

a) Zero or more SMTP transactions
b) Exactly one SMTP transactions
c) Always more than one SMTP transactions
d) Number of SMTP transactions cant be determined
Answer: a
Explanation: An SMTP session consists of SMTP transactions only even if no transactions have
been performed. But no transactions in the session might mean that the session is inactive or is
just initiated.

64. Which of the following is an example of user agents for e-mail?

a) Microsoft Outlook
b) Facebook
c) Google
d) Tumblr
Answer: a
Explanation: Among the options, only Microsoft Outlook is an e-mail agent. Google is a search
engine and Facebook, and Tumblr are social networking platforms. Gmail and Alpine are some
other examples of e-mail agent.

65. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different systems, we need only
_________
a) One MTA
b) Two UAs
c) Two UAs and one MTA
d) Two UAs and two MTAs
Answer: d
Explanation: The sender’s User Agent (UA) submits the message to a Message Transfer Agent
(MTA). Then the MTA sends the message to another MTA i.e. a mail relay. Then the receiver
receives the message from the mail relay whenever it is available.

66. User agent does not support this ___________

a) Composing messages
b) Reading messages
c) Replying messages
d) Routing messages

Answer: d
Explanation: The user agent is basically a software program that allows the user to send, and
receive e-mail messages. Routing of the message is done by the Message Transfer Agent.

UNIT III NETWORK LAYER

1. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header restricts the lifetime of a datagram.

A) version

B) next-header

C) hop limit

D) neighbor-advertisement

Answer: Option C

2. In IPv4 header, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______.

A) there are 10 bytes of options

B) there are 40 bytes of options

C) there are 10 bytes in the header

D) there are 40 bytes in the header

Answer: Option D
3. In IPv4, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______.

A) there are 10 bytes of options

B) there are 40 bytes of options

C) there are 40 bytes in the header

D) none of the above

Answer: Option C
4. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header and the sender IP address combine to indicate a
unique path identifier for a specific flow of data.

A) flow label

B) next header

C) hop limit

D) destination IP address

Answer: Option A
5. In IPv4, what is the value of the total length field in bytes if the header is 28 bytes and the data
field is 400 bytes?

A) 428

B) 407

C) 107

D) 427

Answer: Option A
6. The term ________ means that IP provides no error checking or tracking. IP assumes the
unreliability of the underlying layers and does its best to get a transmission through to its
destination, but with no guarantees.

A) reliable delivery

B) connection-oriented delivery

C) best-effort delivery

D) none of the above

Answer: Option C
7. The ________ protocol is the transmission mechanism used by the TCP/IP suite.

A) ARP

B) IP

C) RARP
D) none of the above

Answer: Option B
8. In IPv4, what is the length of the data field given an HLEN value of 12 and total length value
of 40,000?

A) 39,988

B) 40,012

C) 40,048

D) 39,952

Answer: Option D
9. In IPv4, what is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment?

A) Identification number

B) Offset number

C) Total length

D) (b) and (c)

Answer: Option D
10. The IPv4 header size _______.

A) is 20 to 60 bytes long

B) is 20 bytes long

C) is 60 bytes long

D) none of the above

Answer: Option A
11. In IPv6, when a datagram needs to be discarded in a congested network, the decision is based
on the _______ field in the base header.

A) hop limit

B) priority

C) next header
D) none of the above

Answer: Option B
12. In IPv4, which field or bit value unambiguously identifies the datagram as a fragment?

A) Do not fragment bit ? 0

B) More Fragment bit ? 0

C) Fragment offset = 1000

D) none of the above

Answer: Option C
13. Which of the following is a necessary part of the IPv6 datagram?

A) Base header

B) Extension header

C) Data packet from the upper layer

D) (a) and (c)

Answer: Option A
14. In IPv4, when a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, the total size of the datagram must be
less than the _______.

A) MUT

B) MAT

C) MTU

D) none of the above

Answer: Option C
15. In IPv6, options are inserted between the _________ and the ___________ data.

A) base header; extension header

B) base header; upper-layer data

C) base header; frame header

D) none of the above

Answer: Option B
16. An IPv4 datagram is fragmented into three smaller datagrams. Which of the following is
true?

A) The do not fragment bit is set to 1 for all three datagrams.

B) The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all three datagrams.

C) The identification field is the same for all three datagrams.

D) The offset field is the same for all three datagrams.

Answer: Option C
17. In IPv4, if the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that _______.

A) the datagram has not been fragmented

B) the datagram is 100 bytes in size

C) the first byte of the datagram is byte 100

D) the first byte of the datagram is byte 800

Answer: Option D
18. IP is _________ datagram protocol.

A) an unreliable

B) a connectionless

C) both a and b

D) none of the above

Answer: Option C
19. IPv6 allows _________ security provisions than IPv4.

A) more

B) less

C) the same level

D) none of the above

Answer: Option A
20. The IPv4 header field formerly known as the service type field is now called the _______
field.

A) IETF

B) checksum

C) differentiated services

D) none of the above

Answer: Option C
21. A best-effort delivery service such as IPv4 includes _______.

A) error checking

B) error correction

C) datagram acknowledgment

D) none of the above

Answer: Option D
22. The IPv4 header size _______.

A) is 20 to 60 bytes long

B) is 20 bytes long

C) is 60 bytes long

D) none of the above

Answer: Option A

23. Which functionality of the network layer deals with the necessity of a three-way handshake
usually before the transmission of data from sender to receiver?

a. Path determination
b. Forwarding
c. Call Set-up
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c. Call Set-up

24. A packet used for the transmission purpose is basically a combination of __________

a. group of bits
b. source & destination addressess
c. both a & b
d. none of the above

ANSWER: c. both a & b

25. Which unit plays a crucial role in carrying out the functions of network layer, simply by the
addition of a header to it ?

a. Network Service Data Unit (NSDU)

b. Medium Access Control Unit (MACU)
c. Network Address Translation Unit (NATU)
d. None of the above

ANSWER: a. Network Service Data Unit (NSDU)

4. Match the classes of IP addresses with their functional applications

A. Class A -------------------- 1) Multicast services

B. Class B -------------------- 2) Reserved for future use
C. Class D -------------------- 3) Large organizations
D. Class E -------------------- 4) Midsize Organizations

a. A- 4, B- 3, C- 2, D- 1
b. A- 2, B- 4, C- 1, D- 3
c. A- 3, B- 4, C- 1, D- 2
d. A- 1, B- 2, C- 3, D- 4

ANSWER: c. A- 3, B- 4, C- 1, D- 2

26. Which form of byte assigning strategy is adopted in class B type of network corresponding to
IP addresses?

a. Network.Node.Node.Node
b. Network.Network.Node.Node
c. Network.Network.Network.Node
d. Network.Node.Node.Node

ANSWER: b. Network.Network.Node.Node
27. On which factors do the size of block depends in classless addressing?

a. Nature & size of an entity

b. Number of addresses
c. Availability of the address space
d. All of the above

ANSWER: a. Nature & size of an entity

28. What are the problems involved in an IP Fragmentation Process?

A. Loss of any fragment results in rejection of all datagrams

B. Management of buffer space is essential to handle reassembly process

C. No necessity of initializing the timer after the reception of initial fragment

D. Multiple attempts can be made to recover ICMP error message due to connection-oriented IP
service

a. A & B
b. C & D
c. B& C
d. A & D

ANSWER: a. A & B
29. The ability of a single network to span multiple physical networks is known as ______

a. Subnetting
b. Masking
c. Fragmenting
d. Hopping

ANSWER: a. Subnetting
30.Which field/s of ICMPv6 packet header has/have a provision of minimal integrity level
concerning to verification for ICMP messages?

a. Type
b. Code
c. Checksum
d. All of the above

ANSWER: c. Checksum
31. Which among the below stated datagram discard code fields in ICMP is/are generated if a
router fails to forward a packet due to administrative filtering?
a. Source Route Failed
b. Communication Administratively Prohibited
c. Host Precedence Violation
d. Precedence Cut-off in Effect

ANSWER: b. Communication Administratively Prohibited