1

REVIEWER
for the Licensure Examination for

FISHERIES TECHNOLOGIST
THIRD EDITION

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Review Questions for
AQUACULTURE

1. Major characteristics of infectious disease

a. Capability for direct transmission and ability to multiply in the host tissue
b. Mode and ability for transmission
c. Resistance
d. Virulence and resistance

2. Defined as the sum of physiological responses the fish makes to maintain or regain its normal balance
a. Response c. Acclimatization
b. Stress d. Alarm stage

3. The following are phases of responses and adaptation of an organism to stress except for
a. Acclimatization stage c. Adaptive stage
b. Alarm stage d. Exhaustion stage

4. An organisms’ response to stress by which the fish attempts to escape from the problem
a. Adaptive stage c. Alarm stage
b. Exhaustion stage d. Acclimatization stage

5. An organisms’ response to stress by which the organism tries to adjust to change and reach a new equilibrium,
both physiologically and behaviorally, to survive the new environmental condition.
a. Adaptive stage c. Alarm stage
b. Exhaustion stage d. Acclimatization stage
6. Under the situation where the organism can no longer adapt the existing condition and the fish finally dies
having reached the final stage of its stress response.
a. Adaptive stage c. Alarm stage
b. Exhaustion stage d. Acclimatization stage

7. Involves recognizing the occurrence of an abnormality and identifying its cause

a. Disease diagnosis c. Biological Assay
b. Disease monitoring d. Presumptive test

8. The following are list of ‘on-site’ procedures to investigate disease outbreaks except for?
a. Examine fresh materials from healthy, moribund and dead fish then collect fish tissue sample
b. Measure environmental condition and investigate factors and rearing condition
c. Gather information on the time-course of mortalities and deliver suitable samples with accompanying
information to the diagnostic laboratory
d. Presumptive identification of pathogen

9. The following are list of laboratory procedures to investigate disease outbreaks except for?
a. Presumptive identification of pathogen
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b. Positive identification and confirmation and testing for dry sensitivity and effectiveness
c. Evaluation of recommendations and reports of additional analysis
d. Collect fish tissue samples

10. Widespread outbreaks of fish disease

a. Coenocytic c. Zoonotic
b. Epizootic d. Chronic

11. Viruses are ultramicroscopic organisms with size ranges of up to 10-300nm. In order for a virus to visualize,
_____________ is required
a. Electron microscope c. Compound microscope
b. Microfilters d. Computer

12. The compound viral component of a virus is called nucleocapsid which might be enveloped or naked. This
envelope is _________________ in nature
a. Protein c. DNA
b. Lipid d. RNA

13. Mode of disease transmission by which the infectious agent transfer from parent to offspring
a. Vertical transmission c. Direct transmission
b. Horizontal transmission d. Indirect transmission

14. Mode of transmission by which the pathogen comes in contact from the environment
a. Vertical transmission c. Direct transmission
b. Horizontal transmission d. Indirect transmission

15. The resulting destruction of a virus-infected cell

a. Cytophatic effect c. Occulation
b. Infection d. None of these

16. The focal site of cytophatic effect induced by each virion will cause a development of a clear zone called
_________. The number of which indicates the estimated viral particles in given sample.
a. Hemorrhage c. Opaque
b. Occlusion d. Plaque

17. Causative agent of a viral disease in fishes

a. Aeromonas, Hydrophila, Aphanomyces
b. Aquariovirus
c. Iridovirus
d. Harpesvirus

18. A major viral disease in penaid shrimp with Baculovirus as causative agent
a. Yellow Head Virus Disease c. White Spot Syndrome Virus Disease
b. Monodonbaculovirus d. All
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19. Bacterial disease particularly in fishes is hard to diagnose. Why is that so?
a. Most bacterial disease shows similar signs
b. Bacterial infection may appear on the skin or fins
c. Because of inflammation
d. Because preventive measures are costly

20. These are enzymes produce by bacteria which are highly toxic to the host because it contains proteases,
hemolysins, exohemogglutins and cytotoxins.
a. Plasmalemma c. Extracellular product
b. Peptodoglycan d. Nucleocapsid

21. Most common method used to detect the presence of bacteria

a. Gram stain c. PCR
b. Gram stain d. ELISA

22. Bacteria are ubiquitous. This means __________.

a. Bacteria are resistant
b. Bacteria has the ability to multiply under physical and chemical conditions of the host tissue
c. Bacteria can be found or present almost everywhere
d. All of the above

23. Bacteria can be secondary opportunistic invader. This means _______.

a. Causing death to a host
b. Attacking only when the host is weakened or injured
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

24. One of the following is important bacterial disease in fishes.

a. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome c. EUS
b. Channel Catfish Virus Disease d. Columnaris disease

25. Bacterial disease in crustaceans occur as

a. Bacteria fouling of surfaces c. Internal or systemic infections
b. Cuticular or subcuticular localized d. All
infections

26. Bacterial disease of penaeid shrimp with Vibrio harveyii and Vibrio splendidus as causative agent
a. Filamentous bacterial disease c. Saprolegnosis
b. Luminous Bacterial Disease d. EUS
27. Straminipilous organisms
a. Fungal-like organisms c. Virulence
b. Pathogenic organisms d. Filamentous organism

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28. Hyphae constitute the body of a fungus that is either septate or non-septate. Network of septate are called
________
a. Coenocytic c. Mycelia
b. Conidia d. Thallus

29. Considered as the most popular antimycotic agent

a. Malachite green c. Formaldehyde
b. Sodium chloride d. None

30. Mycobacteriosis is also called ________________

a. Streptococcal infection c. Septicemia
b. Red Spot Disease d. Piscine Tuberculosis

31. The following are causative agent of larval mycosis except

a. Ichthyophorus sp. c. Sirolpidium sp.
b. Lagenidium sp. d. Haliphthorous

32. Black Gill Disease or Fusarium Disease is commonly observed in juvenile shrimp grown in ponds. Why is that
so?
a. Its causative agent is Fusariumsolani
b. Fusarium, as Fusarium Disease causative agent, is ubiquitous soil fungi
c. Because perhaps juvenile stage is the critical stage in shrimp life cycle
d. All of these

33. Fungal Disease associated with Aspergillus sp. In a not properly stored or expired feed
a. Black gill disease c. Fusarium disease
b. Larval mycosis d. Aflatoxicosis

34. “Ich” or White Spot Disease has Cryptocaryon irritans as causative agent for marine and Brackishwater fishes
and ________________ for freshwater fishes.
a. Ichthyopthirius multifiliis c. Lernea
b. Protozoan d. Alitropustypus

35. Marinewater fish louse

a. Ergasilus c. Argulus
b. Caligus d. All

36. Freshwater fish louse

a. Ergasilus c. Argulus
b. Caligus d. All

37. Are intercellular parasites with unicellular spore containing sporoplasm and coiled polar filament
a. Sporozoans c. Microsporeans
b. Protozoans d. Monogeneans

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38. Whish of the following sequences is true
a. Theronts – Trophont – Tomont - Tomites
b. Trophont-tomont-tomites-theronts
c. Tomont-tomites-trophont-theronts
d. Tomites-throphont-tomont-therons

39. Life cycle of a parasite wherein only one host is needed to complete its life cycle
a. Direct life cycle c. Complete life cycle
b. Indirect life cycle d. Incomplete life cycle

40. An organism wherein larval stage of a parasite develops

a. Paratenic host c. Intermediate host
b. Carrier host d. Final host

41. An organism where the parasite stays but no development occurs

a. Paratenic host/carrier c. Final host
b. Intermediate host d. Periodic host

42. An organism where adult developmental stage of a parasite develops

a. Paratenic host/carrier c. Final host
b. Intermediate host d. Periodic host

43. Fish disease that is due to supersaturation of dissolved gas

a. Swimbladder stress syndrome c. Asphyxiation
b. Gas bubble disease d. All

44. Very low level of dissolved oxygen

a. Asphyxiation/Hypoxia c. Septicemia
b. Anorexia d. All

45. Occur when water becomes too basic

a. Acidosis c. Basicity
b. Alkalosis d. All

46. Devoid of dissolved oxygen

a. Anorexia c. Gas bubble disease
b. Hypoxia d. Anoxia

47. Two types of diets (supplemental and complete) maybe prepared in ____________
a. Larval feeds, starter feeds, maintenance feeds
b. Fish meal, fish silage
c. Moist, semi-moist, dry
d. All of the above

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48. Moisture content of a moist ration
a. 40% c. 60%
b. 50% d. 70%

49. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a. Calcium, phosphorous, sulfur c. Potassium, magnesium
b. Sodium,chlorine d. Iron, copper, zinc
50. Black-death disease of shrimp/prawn
a. Mineral deficiency c. Lipid and fat deficiency
b. Vitamin C deficiency d. Amino acid deficiency

51. Primary organ affected by Aflatoxicosis in shrimp

a. Liver c. Hepatopancreas
b. Swimmerets d. Carapace

52. Untreated cottonseed meal

a. Gossypol c. Phytic acid
b. Memosine d. Tannin

53. Anti-nutritional substance of soybean meal

a. Phytic acid c. Rotenone
b. Tannin d. Mimosine

54. Untreated/raw fish meal

a. Phytic acid c. Chitinase
b. Thiaminase d. Memosine

55. Which of the following statement is not correct?

a. Cleanliness improves the general standard of health
b. Stress plays a major role in the susceptibility of fish disease
c. Quarantine measures are critically important to prevent international spread of disease
d. Termination procedure can never be used to control fish disease

56. Are protective or defense measures designed to prevent a disease from occurring. They are used to combat
external parasite and stress-mediated bacterial diseases
a. Disinfection c. Quarantine method
b. Prophylactic method d. Chemotherapy

57. Cheapest disinfectant

a. Ozone c. Drugs
b. Trifularin d. Chlorine

58. Most powerful oxidizing agent

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a. Triatomic oxygen c. Drugs
b. Treflan d. Hypochlorite

59. It involves the use of drugs or chemicals for treating infectious diseases. It is considered as the method of ‘last
retort’ in any disease control program
a. Turbidostat c. Ozonation method
b. Microcosm d. Chemotherapy

60. Method of chemical treatment

a. External method c. Parenteral method
b. Systemic method d. All of the above

61. Method of chemical treatment used to control Ectoparasite. It can be topical or by Immersion
a. External method c. Parenteral treatment
b. Systemic method d. Flow through treatment
62. Method of chemical treatment employed for systemic infections where chemicals are added to a feed.
a. External method c. Parenteral treatment
b. Systemic method d. Flow through treatment

63. Direct and most effective route of drug administration, accurate dosage but is labor intensive
a. External method c. Parenteral treatment
b. Systemic method d. Flow through treatment

64. An external method of chemical treatment wherein the chemical is added at a constant rate by a constant flow
device, the chemicals moves through and out of the container to be replace by a new, clean water.
a. Topical c. Long bath
b. Dip d. Flow through

65. An external method of chemical treatment wherein the chemical solution is added in concentrated form at the inlet
and allowed to pass through the water flow system and out of the effluent pipe.
a. Short bath method c. Long bath
b. Flow through d. Flush method

66. An external method of chemical treatment where the fish are scooped out and suspended in the chemical
solution for a few second to 3min. Then rinsed well with clean water and return to the clean/disinfected
holding facility.
a. Dip method c. Flush method
b. Short bath method D. Flow through

67. Parenteral method of chemical treatment wherein the needle is inserted into space posterior to the dorsal fin
above the midline of the body
a. Intramuscular c. Intravenous
b. Intraperitoneal d. External

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68. Parenteral method of chemical treatment wherein the needle is inserted into the visceral cavity or the belly of
the fish
a. Intramuscular c. Intravenous
b. Intraperitoneal d. External

69. Parenteral method of chemical treatment wherein the needle is inserted either by direct cardiac puncture or
through the caudal artery
a. Intramuscular c. Intravenous
b. Intraperitoneal d. External

70. A procedure involving use of responses of an organism to detect or measure the presence or effect of one or
more substances, wastes or environmental factor.
a. Chemical treatment c. Biological Assay
b. Chemotherapy d. All of these

71. A bioassay procedure that is almost always a flow through test. It determines the maximum allowable toxicant
concentration.
a. Short term c. Intermediate
b. Long term d. Long lasting

72. Method of adding test solution where the test animal remains in the same test concentration for the duration of
the test.
a. Static c. Recirculation
b. Renewal d. Flow through

73. Method of adding test solution where the test animals are transferred to test solution of the same composition
at periodic intervals.
a. Static c. Recirculation
b. Renewal d. Flow through

74. Fish immune system

a. Innate (non-specific) c. All of the above
b. Adaptive (specific) d. None of the above

75. A fish immune system which refers to various physical and cellular attributes that collectively represents the
fish first line of defense.
a. Soluble barriers c. Innate immunity
b. Physical barriers d. Adaptive immunity

76. A fish immune system which is able to recognize and response selectively and has the ability to respond
preferentially to foreign substances and has the ability to respond better to repeated exposure.
a. Soluble barriers c. Innate immunity
b. Physical barriers d. Adaptive immunity

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77. A foreign substance, known as immunogen because it induces the immune response.
a. Abscess c. Antigen
b. Antibody d. Defense mechanism

78. A glycoprotein produce in response to the introduction of an antigen, it has the ability to combine with the
antigen that stimulated its production, it is sometimes referred to as immunogen.
a. Abscess c. Antigen
b. Antibody d. Defense mechanism

79. The process of facilitating phagocytosis of bacteria by coating them with protein.
a. Encapsulation c. Inhibition
b. Opsonization d. Agglutinization

80. The observable condition that accompanies damage to the body. It is a localized response to tissue injury and
to invading micros.
a. Barrier c. Encapsulation
b. Inhibition d. Inflammation

81. A specialized-white blood cell produced by higher vertebrates, which has the capacity to kill tumor cells and
cells infected by virus.
a. Lectins c. Encapsulation
b. Cytotoxin d. Phagocytosis

82. The study of antigen-antibody reaction ‘in vitro’

a. Cytotoxicity c. Serology
b. Ichthyotoxism d. Diagnosis

83. This technique is widely used method in fish immunology and combines electrophoresis with immune-
precipitation.
a. Immuno-electrophoresis c. Double diffusion
b. Single diffusion d. Diagnosis

84. Type of harmful and toxic algal bloom that basically produces harmless water discoloration, but contributes
greatly to oxygen depletion.
a. Type A species c. Type C species
b. Type B species d. Type D species

85. Type of harmful and toxic algal bloom that produces potent toxins
a. Type A species c. Type C species
b. Type B species d. Type D species

86. Type of harmful and toxic algal bloom that are non-toxic to human but are harmful to fish and invertebrates by
damaging or clogging their gills.
a. Type A species b. Type B species
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c. Type C species d. Type D species

87. Japanese amberjack or yellow tail is scientifically known as?

a. Chatonella antique c. Seriola quinqueradiata
b. Coregonus lavaretus d. Aphazomenonfros-aqua

88. Loss of appetite

a. Abscess c. Ascites
b. Anorexia d. Coenocytic

89. The theory which states that clones of effector B and T cells arise from single cell that are stimulated to
reproduce by antigen binding to their receptor
a. Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium Theory c. Selective Theory of Clones
b. Clonal Selection Theory d. None of these

90. A non-motile, resistant and dormant stage of certain organism

a. Cyst c. Senescence
b. Hibernate d. Steady-state

91. Blood cells of invertebrates

a. Granulocytes c. Anthaxanthin
b. Hemoglobin d. Hemocyanin

92. An abnormal or unusual increase in the number of cell in a tissue

a. Hyaline c. Hyperplasma
b. Hyperemia d. Hypha

93. Localized tissue anemia due to obstruction of the inflow of the blood
a. Mycosis c. Septicemia
b. Ischemia d. Scoliosis

94. A systemic disease caused by the invasion and multiplication of pathogenic microorganism in the bloodstream.
a. Septicemia c. Mycosis
b. Ischemia d. Scoliosis
95. Fish farm waste consists of
a. Solid matter c. All of the above
b. Dissolved matter d. None of the above

96. The following are sustainable approaches to aquaculture except

a. The search for alternatives to fish meal and fish biomass and the need to reduce feed cost
b. The greater use of supplementary feeds and supplementary feeding systems
c. The need to promote high value commercial feeds
d. Integration of feed development and feeding management practices with environmental awareness

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97. Three of the following choices are components of the general structure of amino acid. Which does not belong
to the group?
a. Covalent bond c. Amino group
b. Carboxyl group d. Alkyl group

98. Which does not belong to the group?

a. Methionine c. Cysteine
b. Histidine d. Lysine

99. The following are Non-Essential Amino Acids except for

a. Alanine c. Tyrosine
b. Serine d. Threonine

100. Protein that issoluble in aqueous system

a. Simple protein c. Conjugated protein
b. Globular protein d. Derived protein

101. Proteins that are highly insoluble and resistant to action of digestive enzyme
a. Simple protein c. Fibrous protein
b. Globular protein d. Derived protein

102. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Protein is absorbed from the intestine mainly as amino acid
b. Fish tissues contain about 50% protein in dry weight basis
c. The carbon chains are oxidized to produce energy or synthesized into tissues
d. Disruption of any level of molecular organization leads to proper functions of protein

103. The amino acid lacking in protein is known as

a. Degenerated amino acid c. Excreted amino acid
b. Digested amino acid d. Limiting amino acid

104. Which of the following is incorrect?

a. Lysine is limiting in corn while methionine is limiting in soy bean
b. Excess amino acid are used as energy source or converted to fat
c. Amino acid profile is of no use to aquaculture
d. The closer the profile to the requirement, the higher is the nutritional value

105. A method used to determine whether an amino acid is essential or non-essential wherein it uses a series
of amino acid test diet containing crystalline-L amino acid as source of nitrogen and a 10-week feeding trial
conducted
a. Amino acid profile method c. Radioisotope method
b. Growth response method d. Quantitative method

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106. A method used to determine the essentiality of amino acid wherein the fish is injected with
radioactively labeled 14C glucose and fed on a natural diet for one week
a. Amino acid profile method c. Radioisotope method
b. Growth response method d. Quantitative method

107. This indicates the growth response of a fish to graded levels of an essential nutrient in their diet. This
method assumes that weight gain is linearly related to increasing dietary levels of the EAA at/or below the
required level
a. Broken line analysis c. Amino acid profile method
b. FCR d. Dose response curve

108. It has been used to estimate the essential amino acid requirements. It assumes a linear relation between
growth and dietary level of the essential amino acid at/or below the required level
a. Broken line analysis c. Amino acid profile method
b. FCR d. Dose response curve

109. The following statements are true except

a. Amino acid imbalance has nothing to do with reduced growth in animals
b. In young growing animals, the greatest proportion of the body weight is in the form of muscle
c. Some of the amino acid may leach out during feeding before they can be taken up
d. The limiting amino acid in one source can be supplemented by another source

110. In broken line analysis, the linearly ascending line instantly breaks to horizontal and the point is
claimed as
a. Turning point c. Breakpoint
b. Basal point d. Linear point

111. Another way of meeting the EAA needs of an animal is by supplementing the practical diet with
a. Protein supplement c. Crystalline L-amino acid
b. Soybean meal d. Binders

112. Nutrient leaching can be minimized by using water stable diet through the use of ________
a. Efficient binder c. All of the above
b. Employing appropriate formulation d. None of the above

113. Dietary amino acid imbalance which occurs when some amino acids are fed in excess of the required
levels causing an increase in the requirement for another amino acid of similar structure
a. Amino acid deficiency c. Amino acid toxicity
b. Amino acid antagonism d. All of the above

114. A dietary amino acid imbalance which occurs when excess amount of certain amino acids are fed and
the negative effects cannot be improved by adding other sources in the diet
a. Amino acid deficiency c. Amino acid toxicity
b. Amino acid antagonism d. All of the above
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115. How will you determine the quantity of protein or amino acid in a feedstuff
a. Chemical method c. Response method
b. Biological method d. Response analysis method

116. In this method of protein evaluation, body weight gain and nitrogen retention are used as criteria for
protein quality which is considered as more accurate
a. Chemical method c. Response method
b. Biological method d. Response analysis method

117. Used to measure biological value of protein

a. Protein Efficiency Ratio c. Net Protein Utilization
b. Biological value d. All of the above

118. The minimum amount of dietary protein needed for optimum growth of most cultured aquatic species
a. 27% - 60% c. 40% -45%
b. 30% - 38% d. 30% - 40%

119. Which of the following has the highest protein biological value?
a. Gelatin c. Soybean meal
b. Egg protein d. Casein

120. The absorbed amino acid is used as _____________

a. Incorporated into the metabolic pool, mixed with free amino acids originating from various tissues and
synthesized into tissue proteins
b. Synthesized into nitrogen-containing tissue constituents
c. Deaminated, resulting in a carbon chain and amino group
d. All of the above

121. "Deamination" refers to ________________________

a. Incorporation of amino acid c. Removal of nitrogen
b. Production of amino acid d. Utilization of nitrogen

122. The following are causes of amino acid deficiency except_____________

a. EAA’s are naturally costly and incorporation of which to feedstuff is labor intensive
b. Presence of chemicals
c. Excessive heat treatment during manufacture
d. Leaching

123. Carboxyl (COOH), amino (NH) and alkyl (R) group, as constituents of general structure of amino acid
are attached to ____________
a. OH c. Alpha carbon
b. Acid d. Alpha base

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124. Are diverse group of organic compounds that are important components of all living matter. They are
insoluble in water but soluble in non-polar, organic solutes such as ether and alcohol
a. Vitamins c. Minerals
b. Lipids d. Carbohydrates

125. The following are functions of dietary lipid except

a. Source of metabolic energy c. Involve in alkaline digestion
b. Source of essential fatty acid d. None of the above

126. Are type of lipids that accumulate in the adipose or fat tissues; they are the primary means by which
animals store energy
a. Phospholipids c. Steroids
b. Waxes d. Triglycerides

127. Main component of biological membrane

a. Phospholipids c. Steroids
b. Waxes d. Triglycerides

128. Types of lipid that are biologically important in reproductive process

a. Phospholipids c. Steroids
b. Waxes d. Triglycerides

129. Fatty acids that lack double bond

a. Saturated c. Polyunsaturated
b. Unsaturated d. Highly unsaturated

130. Fatty acid containing two or more double bond

a. Saturated c. Polyunsaturated
b. Unsaturated d. Highly unsaturated

131. Fatty acid containing four double bonds or more

a. Saturated c. Polyunsaturated
b. Unsaturated d. Highly unsaturated

132. Which of the following statement is correct?

a. Fish that lives in warm waters contain more saturated fatty acid than those that lives in colder
waters
b. Fish and crustaceans are unable to adjust their level of polyunsaturated fatty acid to maintain membrane
integrity and function in cold waters
c. Diet of an organism has nothing to do with fatty acid composition
d. All of the above

133. Which does not belong to the group?

a. Corn oil b. Palm oil
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c. Sunflower oil d. Capelin oil

134. Cheap source of energy

a. Oatmeal c. Carbohydrates
b. Rice d. Glucose

135. Which does not belong to the group?

a. Ribose c. Glucose
b. Starch d. Fructose

136. The following are disaccharide except

a. Chitin c. Maltose
b. Sucrose d. Lactose

137. Refers to metabolic reactions resulting in breakdown of complex molecules to simple products
a. Anabolism c. Absorption
b. Digestion d. Catabolism

138. Refers to metabolic reactions resulting into synthesis of more complex compound from simple
precursors
a. Anabolism c. Absorption
b. Digestion d. Catabolism

139. Natural desire to satisfy hunger

a. Satiation c. Feeding
b. Appetite d. Forage

140. Why is it important to provide optimal proportion of non-protein energy source in fish diets?
a. Because deficiency in non-protein energy source in a diet may result in rapid growth
b. Because deficiency in non-protein energy source protein whose function is mainly for tissue repair,
will be used as energy source
c. Because non-protein energy source easily leach out in water, hence, limiting the organisms appetite
d. None of the above

141. Water soluble vitamins B complex and C are excreted in _____________

a. Feces c. Gills
b. Urine d. None of the above

142. Lipid soluble vitamins, A, D, E and K, are excreted in _______________

a. Feces c. Gills
b. Urine d. Respiration

143. Which does not belong to the group?

a. Thiaminase b. Cyanocobalamin
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c. Panthotenic acid d. Menadione

144. Which does not belong to the group?

a. Retinol c. Pyridoxine
b. Sunshine vitamin d. Alpha Tocopherol

145. Onchorynchus mykiss

a. Rainbow trout c. Sockeye salmon
b. Pacific salmon d. Sea bream

146. What is the stable storage form of vitamin C in fish tissue?

a. L-ascorbic acid c. Ascorbate-2-sulfate
b. Crystalline acid d. Ascorbate-2-monophopshate

147. What vitamin is essential for maintenance of normal blood clotting for bone formation?
a. Panthotenic acid c. Menadione
b. Sunshine vitamin d. Ascorbate -2- polyphosphate

148. Minerals required in a diet in relatively large quantities

a. Macrominerals c. Essential minerals
b. Microminerals d. Noon-essential minerals
149. Refers to the degree of damage caused by organism
a. Phatogenicity c. Disease
b. Virulence d. Stress

150. Refers to the ability of the pathogen to cause damage

a. Phatogenicity c. Disease
b. Virulence d. Stress

151. The following pairs are correct except

a. Ciliophora– ciliated c. Myxozoa - spore-forming
b. Sarcomastigophora– flagellated d. Flagella – flagellated

152. Generally, minerals in fishes serve as components of tissue and cofactors or activators of enzymes. The
following are functions of more soluble minerals except
a. Essential component of visual pigment
b. Membrane potentials
c. Maintenance of acid-base balance
d. Functions in osmoregulation

153. Most fishes are highly adaptable in their feeding habits and utilize the most readily available food,
hence, the key factor in determining what the fish will eat is _____________
a. Fish appetite c. Manner of feeding
b. Food availability d. Relative gut length
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154. The breakdown of complex organic substances into simpler substances so that they are available for
metabolism
a. Ecdysis c. Absorptioon
b. Digestion d. Ingestion

155. Mechanisms in nutrient absorption in fishes

a. Simple diffusion c. Pinocystosis
b. Active transport d. All of the above

156. Mechanism in nutrient absorption in fish where solutes pass through the membrane from an
environment of high to low solute concentration without using energy
a. Simple diffusion c. Pinocystosis
b. Active transport d. All of the above

157. Mechanism in nutrient absorption in fish requiring a continuous supply of energy and transports solute
only in one direction
a. Simple diffusion c. Pinocystosis
b. Active transport d. All of the above

158. Mechanism in nutrient absorption in fish involving the process by which materials are taken into the
cell through an invagination and subsequent dissolution of a part of a cell membrane
a. Simple diffusion c. Pinocystosis
b. Active transport d. All of the above

159. An enzyme that catalyzes the digestion of starch

a. Amylase c. Pepsin
b. Proteases d. Bromelin
160. Other complex carbohydrates that are potential sources of energy but are not readily digested are
cellulose which is a component of plant cell wall and ___________________________________
a. Chitin, component of trout
b. Chitin, component of crustacean exoskeleton
c. Chitin, component of hepatopancreas
d. All of the above

161. Provision of unlimited amount of feed until satiation

a. Supplemental feeding c. Ad libitum feeding
b. Feeding to satiation d. Dietary feeding

162. Fishes with no stomach has _____________

a. No acid phase of digestion c. No feeding pattern
b. A pH of 4 d. No classical conditioning

163. Stomach of sharks

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a. Y-shape c. J-shape
b. U-shape d. No shape

164. The choice of feed ingredient in aquafeed formulation depends on __________

a. Content of essential nutrient and cost
b. Digestibility, bioavailability and commercially available
c. Absence of anti-nutritional factors and toxic substances
d. All of the above

165. The following are feed binders except __________

a. Vitamin C c. Hemicelluloses
b. Alpha starch d. Lignosulfates

166. Anti-nutritional substance of soybean and other legumes that destroys red blood cell
a. Thiaminase c. Gossypol
b. Cyanogens d. Lectins

167. Anti-nutritional factor of poorly stored and unprotected oils which binds proteins and Vitamins in a
diet
a. Phytates c. Peroxides
b. Estrogens d. Lectins

168. What would be the remedy for the removal of toxin gossypol in cottonseed meal to avoid binding of
phosphorus and proteins in a diet?
a. Solvent extraction c. Proper storage
b. Addition of iron salts or phytase d. Autoclaving

169. Soybean is good source of protein in a diet. Untreated soybeans and other legumes, though, have
trypsin inhibitor which binds trypsin to form an inactive compound in a diet. What would be the remedy for the
inactivation of trypsin inhibitor in a soybean?
a. Autoclaving c. Soaking
b. Dry heating or cooking d. Solvent extraction

170. Method of evaluating feedstuff and aqua feeds using senses to detect the presence of adulterants in the
feed
a. Physical c. Microbiological
b. Chemical d. Biological

171. Method of feed evaluation which quantifies the amount of a given compound present in the feed
a. Microbiological c. Chemical
b. Physical d. Biological

172. Method of feed evaluation using microorganisms

a. Chemical b. Physical
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c. Microbiological d. Biological

173. Method of feed evaluation which involves feeding experiment, but is more tedious and expensive yet
more accurate
a. Chemical c. Microbiological
b. Physical d. Biological

174. These are important components in any feed formulation since they determine how fast and how much
of a feed will be taken in by the animals
a. Protein c. Attractants
b. Binder d. Food color

175. One of the following is the simplest method in determining water stability of pellets
a. Weight-loss determination
b. Crumbling the pellet by hand or checking for rough edges
c. Use of wire baskets
d. Determination of % water stability

176. An index to the nutritive value of feed and feedstuff

a. Chemical evaluation c. Moisture content
b. Crude protein d. Proximate analysis

177. High moisture content can lead to growth of molds during storage hence, feedstuff and aqua feeds
should be dried to contain less than ____% of moisture
a. 5% c. 15%
b. 10% d. 20%

178. Method used in determining crude protein content

a. Proximate analysis c. Liquid chromatograph
b. Kjeldahl method d. Titration method

179. The quality of lipid contained in feedstuff is determined by its fatty acid composition which is obtained
through ____________
a. Liquid chromatograph c. Kjeldahl method
b. Proximate analysis d. Gas chromatographic analysis

180. Oxidative deterioration of lipids has been shown to cause rancid flavor in stored feedstuff and the
degree of oxidation can be determined through
a. Peroxide value c. Thiobarbituric acid q number
b. Free fatty acid value d. All of the above

181. An instrument used to measure the caloric content of feed sample

a. Bomb calorimeter c. Peroxide value
b. Bomb calorimetry d. Fatty acid value
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182. Gossypol is an endogenous toxin present in the gland of cottonseed. This persists during production,
unless the _______________
a. Cottonseed is glandless c. Feedstuff is pelleted
b. Feedstuff is well mixed d. Feedstuff is not used in feeding

183. Method of feed application

a. Manual c. All of the above
b. Mechanical d. None of the above

184. In case of low DO in pond, what would be the scheme or method of management that an aquaculturist
should do?
a. Liming c. Drying
b. Fertilization d. Aeration

185. A mathematical method used in formulating feed but applicable only to few ingredients to be balanced
a. Winkler method c. Pearson’s square
b. Algebraic method d. Chi square

186. Refer to organisms that feed on relatively small items

a. Planktivores c. Grazers
b. Microphagous d. Strainers

187. Natural food in pond are composed of complex blue-green and green algae, diatoms, rotifers,
crustaceans, insects, roundworms, detritus and plankton
a. Lumot c. Natural food
b. Phytoplankton d. Lablab

188. A chemical reaction of water in which the reagent other than water is decomposed and hydrogen and
hydroxyl added
a. Glycolysis c. Hydrolysis
b. Autolysis d. Metabolism

189. Unit of energy in metric system

a. Calorie c. Joule
b. Kilocalorie d. Gram

190. Synthesis of biomolecules that occur within the animal's body

a. Digestion c. De novo synthesis
b. Ecdysis d. Biosynthesis

191. Enrichment of a certain body of water

a. Pollution c. Wastes
b. Eutrophication d. Desalinization
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192. Number of times feed is given in a day
a. Feeding frequency c. Feeding chart
b. Feeding rate d. Feed formulation
193. Feeds that are intended for aquaculture species
a. Feed c. Supplemental feed
b. Fish feed d. Aquafeed

194. Any of various seafishes that has low market value as human food
a. Catch c. Trash fish
b. Angler fish d. Wet fish

195. Any abnormality in structure or function displayed by living organisms through a specific or non-
specific sign.
a. Disease c. Sickness
b. Illness d. Syndrome

196. Causes of disease in farmed aquatic animals:

a. Infectious organism c. Environmental problems
b. Wrong management practices d. All of the above

197. ___________, and _______________ may indicate disease in fish.

a. Tissue or organ damage c. All of the above
b. Reduced growth rate or death d. None of the above

198. Three phases in aquaculture

a. All of these c. Nursery
b. Hatchery d. Grow-out

199. Production system in aquaculture

a. Extensive c. Intensive
b. Semi-intensive d. All of the above

200. Factors related to the development of disease in aquaculture system

a. Farmed fish (host) c. Surroundings (environment)
b. Disease causing organism (pathogen) d. All of the above

201. It can be either resistant or susceptible to a given disease

a. Host c. Parasite
b. Pathogen d. None of the above

202. Resistance or susceptibility of the host depends on

a. Age or size of the host organism/ species
b. Defense mechanisms employed/health of the fish
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c. All of the above
d. None of the above

203. Pathogen can be classified into:

a. Physical agents (extreme temperature changes and radiation)
b. Chemical agents (environmental contaminants, toxins, nutritional imbalances and drugs, chemical
overdose)
c. Biological agents(viruses, fungi, bacteria, parasites)
d. All of the above

204. The following are major characteristics of an infectious agent except

a. Ability to multiply in the host tissue c. All of the above
b. Capability for direct transmission d. None of the above

205. Mode of transmission of pathogen

a. Vertical transmission c. All of the above
b. Horizontal transmission d. None of the above

206. Pathogen transmission where infectious agents transfer from parent to offspring
a. Vertical transmission c. Parallel transmission
b. Horizontal transmission d. Linear transmission

207. Pathogen transmission where infectious agent comes in contact with the hosts through the water, feeds
or through carrier animals that is in the environment
a. Parallel transmission c. Horizontal transmission
b. Vertical transmission d. Linear transmission

208. Essential to the prevention and control of disease

a. Stability of the environment
b. Understanding the role of the environment in affecting nature and cause of disease
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

209. An important consideration in the farming of aquatic animals

a. Knowledge c. Human behavior
b. Human attitude d. Human element

210. Aquaculture technicians and other personnel should have _______________ and _____________of
the species they culture to assure the success of an aquaculture operation.
a. Adequate knowledge and trustworthy
b. Very good performance and honest
c. Adequate knowledge and understanding
d. Good in communication and understanding

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211. These may lead to costly mistakes and poor yield in farming of aquatic animals
a. Financial problem or lack of facilities
b. Lack of experience or insufficient personnel
c. Lack of knowledge of understanding
d. All of the above

212. The sum of the physiological responses the fish makes to maintain or regain its normal balance.
a. Exhaustion c. Malnutrition
b. Stress d. Disease

213. The act of identifying the cause of disease.

a. Dissecting c. Surgery
b. Diagnosis d. All of the above

214. Sign of diseases

a. Reduced feeding/ abnormal changes in fish color and behavior
b. Fish may stay away from the school or swim at the surface or along the tanks sides exhibit
flashing/scraping on the bottom of projecting objects
c. Darting/ whirling or twisting
d. All of the above

215. This is essential in selecting the best management approach to correct the problem and the best
possible treatment for the disease.
a. Correct treatment c. None of the above
b. Correct diagnosis d. All of the above

216. This is vital in monitoring the health status of any cultured population.
a. Consistent record keeping c. Daily examination
b. Regular monitoring d. All of the above

217. The keeping of records is necessary to enable the farm personnel to

a. Identify environmental problems c. To minimize production costs
b. Learn from past mistakes d. All of the above

218. One of the biggest deterrents to sustainable production in aquaculture.

a. Disease occurrence c. Sanitation
b. Health management d. None of the above

219. A minute infectious agent which can be resolved or viewed clearly only under a high power
microscope. It lacks independent metabolism, and is able to replicate only within a living cell.
a. Microbes c. Virus
b. Fungi d. Detritus

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220. A microscope used to visualize viruses.
a. Mechanical microscope c. Light Microscope
b. Electron microscope d. Dissecting microscope

221. Basic structure of a virion, which encloses a nucleic acid genome

a. Hypha c. Envelope
b. Capsid d. Nucleocapsid

222. The identical protein subunits of capsid

a. Capsomeres c. Amino acid
b. Nucleic acid d. Nucleocapsid

223. The full set of genes present in a cell or virus; all the genetic material in an organism.
a. Gene c. Envelope
b. Nucleic acid genome d. Genome

224. Virus that do not have an envelope.

a. Naked virus c. Viral infection
b. Virus d. None of the above

225. RT-PCR is acronym of

a. Reverse Transciptase-Polymerase Chain Reactions
b. Reserve Transciptase-Polymerase Chain Reactions
c. Reversing Transciptase- Polymerase Chain Reactions
d. Reserve Transciptase- Polymerase Chain Reacting

226. A complex disease attributed to Rhabdavirus, the bacterium Aeromonas hydriphila, and the fungus
Aphanomyces invadans.
a. Channel Catfish Virus Disease (CCVD)
b. Grass Carp Hemorrhagic Disease (GCHD)
c. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome (EUS)
d. Viral Nervous Necrosis Virus (VNN)

227. These diseases consist of a chronic, necrotic, and mycotic granulomatous inflammatory response.
a. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome
b. Viral Nervous Necrosis
c. Infectious Hemanotopoetic Hepatopancreatic Necrosis Virus
d. Lymphocystis disease

228. Causative agent of channel catfish virus disease (CCVD).

a. Herpesvirus ictaluri c. Flavobacterium columnares
b. Aeromonas hydrophila d. Aphanomyces sp.

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229. Clinical sign of channel catfish virus disease (CCVD).
a. Abdominal distension
b. Exophthalmia, pale or hemorrhagic gills,
c. Petechial hemorrhage at the base of the fins and throughout the skin
d. All of the above

230. Aquareovirus is a causative agent of what viral infections disease?

a. Grass carp hemorrhagic disease c. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome
b. Channel Catfish Virus Disease d. Sleepy Grouper Disease

231. Effect of grass carp hemorrhagic disease (GCHD) on host:

a. The disease consists of a chronic, necrotic, and mycotic granulomatous inflammatory response.
b. Hemorrhages occur in the musculature, oral cavity, intestinal tract, liver, spleen and kidney
c. Diseased of fish pale livers, empty digestive tracts, the intestine filled with greenish to brownish fluid
and the spleens are red spotted.
d. All of the above

232. Causative agent of Spinning Tilapia (ST) syndrome.

a. Nodavirus c. Bacoluvirus
b. Rhabdovirus d. Iridovirus

233. Gross signs of spinning tilapia syndrome (STS).

a. All of these
b. Affected tilapia fry and fingerlings swim in a spiral pattern
c. Sink to the bottom then rise and hang at a 45 degrees angle just under the water surface, gasping for air
d. They do not feed and darker in color

234. The causative agent of viral nervous necrosis (VNN)

a. Nodavirus c. Aquareovirus
b. Iridovirus d. Rhabdovirus

235. The gross signs of this viral infection are: affected larvae and juveniles show lethargy, pale color, loss
of appetite, thinness, loss of equilibrium and corkscrew swimming and some fish sink to the bottom then float
to the surface again.
a. Lymphocystis Disease c. Viral Nervous Necrosis
b. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome d. Sleepy Grouper Disease

236. This viral infection is also known as paralytic syndrome, viral encephalopathy and retinopathy,
spinning grouper disease, piscine neuropathy, or fish encephalitis.
a. Viral Nervous Necrosis c. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome
b. HPV d. Sleepy Grouper Disease

237. Infected fish have clusters of pear-like nodules up to 5mm in diameter that develop on the skin, gills or
fins resulting from an enlargement of tissue cells and its causative agent is Iridovirus.
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a. Lymphocytis Disease c. Grouper Iridovirus Of Taiwan Disease
b. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome d. Sleepy Grouper Disease

238. Diseased fish swim in circles and are anemic; fish losses appetite then become underweight and
lethargic.
a. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome c. Sleepy Grouper Disease
b. Whirling Disease d. Grouper Iridovirus of Taiwan disease
(GITV)
239. Species of fish affected by Sleepy Grouper Disease.
a. Epinephelus coiodes c. Epinephelus malabaricus
b. Epinephelus tauvina d. Epinephelus fuscogutatus

240. Fish exhibits extreme lethargy and low appetite, swims alone or hung at the water surface or remains at
the bottom.
a. Sleepy Grouper Disease c. Channel Catfish Virus Disease
b. Taiwan Grouper Iridovirus Disease d. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome

241. The presence of distinct white cuticular spots most apparent at the exoskeleton and epidermis of
diseased shrimp about 2 days after onset.
a. White Spot Syndrome Virus c. Monodon-baculovirus Disease
b. Yellow Head Virus Disease d. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome

242. The causative agent of White Spot Syndrome Virus Disease.

a. Nodavirus c. Baculovirus
b. Iridovirus d. Rhabdovirus

243. Infected shrimps show light yellowish, swollen cephalothorax; gills appear whitish, yellowish or
brown.
a. Monodon-baculovirus diasease c. White Spot Syndrome Virus
b. Yellow Head Virus Disease (YHV) d. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome

244. Affected shrimps exhibit pale-bluish-gray to dark blue -black coloration, sluggish and inactive
swimming movements, loss of appetite and retarded growth.
a. White Spot Syndrome Virus c. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome Virus
b. Monodon Baculovirus (MBV) Disease d. Yellow Head Virus Disease

245. Monodon Baculovirus causative agent:

a. Baculovirus c. Peneaus monodon-type Baculovirus
b. Aeromonas hydropilla d. Iridovirus

246. What stages of shrimp wherein Monodon Baculovirus was first (viral infections) diagnosed?
a. Egg, larvae; juveniles, and adult
b. Mysis, postlarvae, juveniles and adult
c. Nuplius, mysis, postlarvae and sudadult
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d. Mysis, postlarvae, juveniles and spawner

247. The causative agent of this disease is parvovirus:

a. Monodonbaculovirus
b. Infectious Hypodermal and Hematopoietic Necrosis Virus (IHHNV) Disease
c. Hepatopancreatic parvo-like Virus
d. White Spot Syndrome Virus

248. This disease shows erratic swimming behavior of shrimp, rising slowly to the water surface, hanging
and rolling over until the ventral side is up, and eventually sinks to the bottom.
a. Monodon Baculo Virus
b. Hepatopancreatic parvo-like virus
c. Infectious Hypodermal and Hematopoietic Necrosis Virus (IHHNV) Disease
d. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome

249. This disease develops loss of appetite and retards growth.

a. Infectious Hypodermal and Hemtopoietic Virus Disease
b. Hepatopancreatic Parvo-like virus (HPV) disease
c. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome
d. None of these

250. Causative agent of Hepatopancreatic Parvo-like virus (HPV) disease is

a. Parvovirus c. Nodavirus
b. Baculovirus d. Iridovirus

251. One-celled microorganisms which lack well-defined nucleus.

a. Pathogens c. Virus
b. Fungi d. Bacteria

252. These bacterial pathogens are capable of living for a long time in the tissues of their host without
causing injury.
a. Obligatory pathogens c. Secondary Pathogen
b. Opportunistic Pathogens d. Primary Pathogen

253. In all animal production systems, one of the major problem facing production, development and
expansion of the aquaculture industry is
a. Virus Disease c. Bacterial disease
b. Sickness d. Illness

254. These microorganisms are of very small dimensions, usually between 0.5 and 10 microns.
a. Microbes c. Virus
b. Bacteria d. Host

255. A living organism harboring another organism.

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a. Host c. Fungus
b. Parasites d. Prey

256. Weakness or sluggishness

a. Stress c. Drying
b. Lethargy d. Weak

257. Localized death of a tissue

a. Cancer c. Inflammation
b. Skin burn d. Necrosis

258. A disease-producing agent

a. Virus c. Microbes
b. Pathogen d. Fungus

259. Any morbid change in function or structure of an organ or tissue

a. Infection c. Inflammation
b. Lesions d. Ulceration

260. A host in which the larval stages of a parasite develop

a. Intermediate host c. Secondary host
b. Primary host d. Tertiary host

261. Bacteria that promote growth of an organism or inhibit pathogenic microorganisms.

a. Antibiotics c. Antibacteria
b. Probiotics d. All of the above

262. Disposition of disease

a. Not susceptible c. Susceptible
b. Sussettetible d. Susseptible

263. The most common method used to detect the presence of bacteria.
a. Gram negative c. Gram positive
b. Gram stain d. Gram strain

264. Gram stain classified into:

a. Gram positive bacteria c. All of the above
b. Gram negative bacteria d. Neutral gram bacteria

265. Bacteria that possess a thick peptidoglycan cell wall which retain initial crystal violet stain during
washing with 95% alcohol.
a. Gram-positive bacteria c. Gram stain
b. Gram-negative bacteria d. All of the above

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266. Bacteria those posses a unimolecular peptiglycan cell wall bounded on one side by the cytoplasmic
membrane and on the other side by the outer membrane, such cells are decolorized of different kinds of
bacteria.
a. Gram-positive bacteria c. Gram stain
b. Gram-negative bacteria d. Pathogenic

267. Three distinct forms of bacteria:

a. Spiral c. Cocci
b. Bacilli d. All of the above

268. Isolated bacterium suspected of causing the disease.

a. Causative agent c. Causative bacteria
b. Causative organism d. Causative microbes

269. The appearance of a white spot on some parts of the head, gills, fins or body; distinct reddish tinge;
lesions are circular, more necrotic on gills, develop hemorrhagic ulcers in skins, with an overlying serum of
bacterial cells and necrotic tissue, are the first indications of infection of:
a. Aflatoxicos c. Red disease
b. Mycobacteriasis d. Columnaris disease

270. An opportunistic pathogen widely distributed in the water, and it is the causative agent of columnaris
disease characterized by yellow-green, flat, and rough spreading colonies that adhere to the media when it
grows in solid media.
a. Flexibacter sp. c. Aeromonas sp.
b. Flavobacterium columnare d. Vibrio splendidus

271. Edwardsiella tarda is the causative agent of:

a. Edwarsiella septicaemia or Edwarsiellosis c. Edwadsiella sp.
b. Edwarsiella tarda d. All of the above

272. Infections of this organism manifest itself by the presence of small, 3-5 mm cutaneous or skin lesions
located dorso-laterally on the body.
a. Edwarsiella tarda c. Vibrio sp.
b. Edwarsiella sp. d. Vibrio vulfinis

273. Causative agent of vibriosis:

a. Vibrio alginolyticus c. V. vulnificus
b. V. anguillarum d. All of the above

274. The presence of red spots in tanks is a sign of

a. Skin infection c. Vibrio infection
b. Microbial infection d. Fungal infection

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275. This disease causes the darkening in color, enlargement of the abdominal area to an extensive
superficial reddening of a large area of the body, often with necrosis of fins or tail and extensive ulceration
over a considerable portion of the flanks or dorsum.
a. Pseudomonad Septicemia c. Protozoan Infestation
b. Lymphocystis disease d. Motile aeromonad septicemia

276. Causative agent of Motile Aeromonad Septicaemia:

a. Aeromonas hydrophila c. A. sobria
b. A. caviae d. All of the above

277. This organism enters the host either through the oral route or through broken or abraded skin and
damaged gills, then carried throughout the fish body by the blood stream; their toxin destroy body tissues,
organs and functions, and it dysfunction may lead to mortality of up to 70%.
a. Aeromonas sp. c. Flexibacter sp.
b. Vibrio sp. d. Pseudomonas spp.

278. This disease causes small hemorrhages in the skin around the mouth and opercula and along the
ventral or abdominal surfaces and body surfaces may ooze blood and slime in severe cases but there is no
reddening of the fins and anus.
a. Pseudomonad Septicaemia or Red c. Lerneasis
Spot Disease d. Red Disease
b. Motile Septicaemia Disease

279. This disease caused erratic swimming, darkening of body color, unilateral or bilateral exophthalmia,
corneal opacity, hemorrhages on the opercula and the bases of the fins and ulceration of the body surface.
a. Vibriosis c. Mycobacteriosis
b. Piscine Tubercolosis d. Streptococcal Infection

280. Causative agent of streptococcal infection:

a. Pseudomonas fluorescens c. Vibrio vunificus
b. Aeromonas hydrophila d. Streptococcus sp.

281. The effect of Streptococcus sp. on host/fish:

a. Swim in spiraling motion c. All of the above
b. Spleen and kidney are enlarged d. None of the above

282. To prevent and control the infection of streptococcus sp. It is necessary to:
a. Avoid overcrowding, overfeeding and unnecessary handling or transport
b. Remove and slaughter promptly all moribund fish in ponds or net cages
c. Apply erythromycin at 25-50mg/kg body weight of fish for 4-7 days
d. All of the above

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283. A systematic, chronic, progressive disease presenting various clinical features depending species and
ecological conditions. It show gray white lesions of various sizes on most organs and tissues but the kidney and
liver are most often involved.
a. Mycobacteriosis c. Piscine Mycobacteriosis
b. Streptococcal Infection d. Columnaris Disease

284. A chronic progressive disease which may take several years to progress from the asymptomatic state to
clinical illness.
a. Columnaris Disease c. Piscine Mycobacteriosis
b. Mycobacteriosis d. Vibriosis

285. The primary method of controlling Mycobacteriosis.

a. Sanitation c. Destruction of carrier of fishes
b. Disinfection d. All of the above

286. Species of shrimps affected by Filamentous Bacterial Disease are:

a. All of these c. P. merguiensis
b. Penaeus monodon d. P. Indicus

287. Presence of fine, colorless, thread-like growth on the body surface and gills as seen under the
microscope; infected eggs show a thick mat of filaments on the surface, which may interfere with respiration or
hatching.
a. Filamentous Bacterial Disease c. Luminous Bacterial Disease
b. Shell Disease d. Non-luminous Vibrios

288. Causative agent of Filamentous Bacterial Disease

a. Leucothrix sp./Thiothrix sp. c. Flavobacterium sp.
b. Flexibacter sp./Cytophaga sp. d. All of the above

289. Filamentous Bacterial Disease can be prevented and controlled by:

a. Maintain good water quality
b. Apply cutrine plus at 0.15 ppm copper in 24 h flow through treatments
c. Apply 0.5 ppm copper in 4 to 6-h static treatments for PL 2 and older
d. All of the above

290. The disease manifests itself as brownish to black, single or multiple eroded areas on the general body
cuticle, appendages and gills; a cigarette butt-like appearance and blister containing cyanotic gelatinous fluid.
a. Shell Disease, Brown/Black Spot, Black Rot/Erosion, Blisters, Necrosis of Appendages
b. Red Spot Disease
c. Blue Disease
d. Luminous Bacterial Disease

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291. This disease shows erratic or disoriented swimming; loss of appetite; opaqueness of abdominal muscle,
anorexia and expansion of chromatophores; hepatopancreas show degrees of inflammation, hemocytic
infiltration and fibriosis.
a. Luminous Bacterial Disease c. Filamentous Bacterial Disease
b. Red Spot Disease d. Non-Luminous Vibrios

292. The best precaution against the occurrence of bacterial infections

a. All of these
b. Provide fish with optimum environmental conditions
c. Adequate amounts of the right kinds of food
d. Avoidance stress, including overcrowding

293. The use of ____________ should always be an option of last resort.

a. Vitamins c. Antibiotics
b. Probiotics d. All of the above

294. The unit structure of fungi and a tubular filament.

a. Hyphae c. Fungus
b. Hypha d. Cilia

295. The process of introducing a suspension of disease-producing microorganisms modified by killing or

attenuation so that it will not cause disease and can stimulate the formation of antibodies upon inoculation.
a. Injection c. Vaccination
b. Dissection d. Medication

296. Organism that obtains their food from dead or decaying organic matter.
a. Detritus c. Salps
b. Benthos d. Saprotrophs

297. Organism that is capable of living on dead organic materials as shown by their ability to grow on
synthetic media.
a. Obligate Parasites or biotrophs c. All of the above
b. Facultative Parasites or Saprobes d. None of the above

298. Organism which cannot be cultured in synthetic media.

a. Obligate Parasites or biotrophs c. All of the above
b. Facultative Parasites or Saprobes d. None of the above

299. Formations of white cottony growth on fish eggs and on affected tissues of fish.
a. Branchiomycosis c. Ichthyophoniasis
b. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome d. Saprolegniosis

300. The chemical used for the prevention and treatment of saprolegnian infections of fishes and fish eggs
a. Chemotherapeutants b. A chelated copper compound
34
c. Benzalkonium chloride d. Copper sulfate

301. This disease causes darker discoloration and loss of appetite; fish float just below the water surface;
fish may be hyperactive with a very jerky movement; and ulcerative lesions throughout the body.
a. Branchiomycosis c. Ichthyophoniasis
b. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome d. Saprolegniasis

302. The causative agent of Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome

a. Saprolegnia sp. c. Aeromonas sp.
b. Brachiomysis sp. d. Aphanomyces invadans

303. Useful treatment for (Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome (EUS)

a. 5 ppm Coptrol (a chelate copper compound) and 0.1 mg/l malachite green
b. Zinc-free malachite green
c. Copper sulfate
d. Sodium chloride

304. Gills become pale with brownish areas due to hemorrhage and thrombosis, or grayish as a result of
ischemia.
a. Saprolegniasis c. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome
b. Ichthyophoniasis d. Branchiomycosis (Gill Rot)

305. The causative agent of Gill Rot

a. Aphanomyces invadans c. Aeromonas hydrophila
b. Saprolenia sp. d. Branchiomyces spp.

306. The chemicals that have been used to treat branchiomyces are
a. Malachite green; benzalkonium chloride c. All of the above
b. Copper sulfate; sodium chloride d. None of the above

307. Erratic swimming behavior and swelling of abdomen; internal organs become swollen with numerous
whitish nodules up to 2mm diameter.
a. Branchiomycosis c. Saprolegniasis
b. Ichtyophoniasis d. Lerneasis
308. This disease cause sudden onset of mortalities in larval stages of shrimps and crabs.
a. Red disease c. Black Gill Disease
b. Larval Mycosis d. Red spot Disease

309. This disease causes black spot appearance that preceded mortalities in juvenile shrimps grown in
ponds.
a. Black Gill Disease c. Blue disease
b. Larval Mycosis d. Red Disease

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310. This disease cause yellowish, and eventually reddish discoloration of the shrimp body and appendages;
become lethargic with weak swimming activity and soft shelling.
a. Shell Disease c. Red Spot Disease
b. Aflatoxicosis (red disease) d. Larval Mycosis

311. A relationship that benefits one or both parties or living together.

a. Mutualism c. Parasitism
b. Commensalism d. Symbiosis

312. No party is harmed and both could live without the other.
a. Mutualism c. Parasitism
b. Commensalism d. Ectoparasites

313. A relationship where both parties benefits from each other and neither could live without the other.
a. Mutualism c. Parasitism
b. Commensalism d. Symbiosis

314. A one-way relationship in which one party depends upon, and benefits from, the other partner,
biochemically and physiologically.
a. Mutualism c. Parasitism
b. Commensalism d. Parasites

315. Parasites that live on the external surfaces of the host.

a. Endoparasites c. Parasites
b. Ectoparasites d. Host

316. Parasites that found in the internal organs.

a. Endoparasites c. Parasites
b. Ectoparasites d. Host

317. These are unicellular, microscopic organisms with specialized structures for locomotion, food
gathering, attachment and protection.
a. Ciliates c. Flagellates
b. Protozoans d. Cilia

318. Have short, fine cytoplasmic outgrowths called cilia as a locomotory organelle and are either attached
or motile and mainly ectoparasites.
a. Protozoan c. Host
b. Flagellates d. Ciliates

319. This disease is also known as ichthyophthiriasis("Ich") or White Spot Disease because of the presence
of a few to numerous whitish or grayish spots on the skin and gills; loss their appetite, lethargic, with dull,
opaque or hemorrhagic eyes.
a. Protozoan infestation b. Monogenean Infestation
36
c. Dinegean Infestation d. Cestode Infestation

320. The causative agents of the protozoan infestation

a. Ichthyophthirius multifilis in freshwater
b. Cryptocaryon irritans in marine and brackishwater
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

321. They have one or longer, hair-like structures called flagella used as a locomotory organelle; they occur
on the skin, gills, intestinal organs and blood of fish.
a. Ciliates c. Cilia
b. Flagellates d. Spores

322. These parasites can cause sluggishness, pale gills, and emanciated body when it attached to the fish.
a. Trypanosoma, Cryptobia, Ichthyobodo
b. Ichthyophthirius multifiliis, Cryptocaryon irritans
c. Myxidium, Myxobolus, Myxosoma
d. Gyrodactylus, Dactylogyrus, Pseudorhabdosynochus

323. This disease can cause white cysts formed on the skin, gills, muscle, rain, heart, ovaries or other
internal organs of fish and cysts produce thick milky exudates when ruptured.
a. Flagellates c. Nematode Infestation
b. Protozoans Infestation d. Myxosporeans

324. This infestation can cause pale skin and gills with increased mucus production, frayed fins, and the
cornea may become opaque.
a. Dinegean Infestation c. Cestode Infestation
b. Monogenean infestation d. Nematode Infestation

325. The presence of small, white to yellow or brown to black cysts on the skin, fins, gills, muscle, stomach
or intestine.
a. Cestode Infestation c. Dinegean Infestation
b. Monogenean Infestation d. Nematode Infestation

326. This infestation show sluggish, with emaciated body because of non-feeding and commonly found in
intestine of fish.
a. Acanthocephalan Infestation c. Cestode Infestation
b. Caligus Infestation d. Argulus Infestation

327. This parasite causes necrotic hemorrhagic ulcers in the intestine of the host and it is caused by
Acanthocephalus and Pallisentis.
a. Caligus Infestation c. Protozoan Infestation
b. Larnaeid Infestation d. Acanthocephalan Infestations

37
328. These parasites have segmented bodies covered by shell with jointed appendages.
a. Isopod Infestation c. Crustacean parasite
b. Mollusc parasites d. Marine Leech Infestation

329. This infestation show the parasite attached to the skin, fins, buccal or opercular mucosa with two
conspicuous black spots and attachment area hemorrhagic or ulcerated.
a. Argulus infestation (fish louse) c. Ergasilid Infestation
b. Caligus Infestation d. Crustacean Infestation

330. This is transparent parasite that appears like white patches, but is not permanently attached to the skin,
fins, and gills and may cause skin ulcer, hemorrhagic, and infested areas have no scales.
a. Lernaeid Infestation c. Caligus Infestations
b. Argulus Infestation d. Ergasilid Infestation

331. The infestation where parasites attaches to gills and body surface of the host; white to dark copepods
and the affected fish have emaciated body.
a. Lernaeid Infestation c. Crustacean Infestation
b. Argulus Infestation d. Ergasilid Infestation

332. These parasites can be seen protruding from nostrils, skin, bases of fins, gill, buccal cavity.
a. Caligus c. Ergasilus
b. Lernaea d. Argulus

333. The effect of this parasite to the host/fish, skin and muscle are swollen, ulcers may develop and result
to muscle necrosis.
a. Lernaeid infestation c. Crustacean Infestation
b. Mollusc Infestation d. Protozoan Infestation

334. Isopod infestation resulting to reduced opercular movements, loss of appetite, anemia, and slow
growth rate.
a. Zeylanicobdella arugamensis c. Glochidia
b. Alitropus and Nerocila d. Lernaea

335. The Zeylanicobdella arugamensis attaches to the skin, fins, eyes, nostrils, operculum and inside the
mouth of the fish and it may cause hemorrhagic.
a. Mollusc Infestation c. Protozoan Infestation
b. Marine infestation d. Crustacean Infestation

336. Signs of this protozoan infestation are fuzzy mat on gills and body surface
a. Glochidia
b. Gregarines
c. Nosema, Agmasoma, Pliestophora, Glugea and Ichthyosporidium
d. Vorticella, Zoothamnium, Epistylis, Acineta and Ephelota

38
337. Parasites needing only one host to complete its life cycle.
a. Indirect Cycle c. Intermediate host
b. Parasites Life Cycles d. Direct Life Cycle

338. Parasites may also have more than one host to complete its life cycle.
a. Indirect Life Cycle c. Direct Life Cycles
b. Intermediate Host d. Paratenic host

339. Non-infectious diseases are caused by:

a. Adverse environmental conditions c. Genetic defects
b. Nutritional disorders d. All of the above

340. These diseases may be caused by low dissolved oxygen, high ammonia, high nitrite, or natural or man-
made toxins in the aquatic environment.
a. Non-infectious Disease c. Skin Disease
b. Environmental disease d. None of the above

341. This is due to supersaturation of dissolved gases; supersaturation may be due to leaks in pump or valve
systems in hatcheries; dense algal bloom that presumably caused oxygen depletion at night and supersaturation
during the day.
a. Sunburn Disease c. Hypoxia
b. Gas Bubble Disease d. Asphyxiation

342. This is associated with malfunction of the swimbladder and also associated with a combination of
handling, high ambient temperature, high ambient illumination, dense algal bloom that presumably cause
oxygen depletion at night and supersaturation during the day.
a. Gas bubble Disease c. Hypoxia
b. Swimbladder Stress Syndrome d. Anorexia

343. Very low levels of dissolved oxygen.

a. Asphyxiation/hypoxia c. Anoxia
b. Anorexia d. Hyperoxia

344. This is caused by a drop in the ph to a level too low for the species.
a. Acid sulfate c. Salinity
b. Acidosis d. Alkalinity

345. This is due to excessive levels of ultraviolet irradiation from sunlight when fish are stocked in shallow
uncovered raceways under intense sunlight.
a. Inflammation c. Gill disease
b. Skin disease d. Sunburn disease

346. This is a shrimp disease caused by temperature and salinity shock, low oxygen levels, overcrowding,
rough handling and severe gill fouling.
39
a. Black Gill Disease c. Body Cramp
b. Muscle Necrosis d. Hypoxia

347. Associated with handling of shrimp in warm, humid air much warmer than culture water and mineral
imbalance.
a. Bent/cramped tails or Body Cramp c. Red Disease
b. Soft Shelling d. Muscle Necrosis

348. Closely associated with low temperature of culture water, that may cause the presence of old
exoskeleton attached to the newly molted larvae, especially in appendages
a. Acid Sulfate Disease Syndrome c. Black Gill Disease
b. Chronic Soft Shelling Disease d. Incomplete Molting

349. This is caused by low water and soil ph, which show poor growth, low molting frequency and yellow
to orange to brown discoloration of the gill and appendage surfaces.
a. Red Disease c. Chronic Soft-Shell Syndrome
b. Acidosis/Acid Sulfate Disease d. Incomplete Molting
syndrome

350. . This is due to chemical contaminants, heavy siltation and ammonia or nitrite in rearing water; high
organic load due to residual feed, debris, and fecal matter on the pond bottom which show the blackening of
the gill discoloration and gill filaments become totally black.
a. Black Gill Disease c. Muscle Necrosis
b. Block Gill Disease d. Acidosis

351. This is associated with high application of lime in the pond that gives it a high initial ph; prolonged
exposure to low salinity, which affected shrimp have red short streaks on gills or abdominal segments,
yellowish to reddish discoloration of the body and increased fluid in the cephalothorax, emitting foul odor.
a. Red Spot Disease c. Black Gill Disease
b. Acid Sulfate Disease Syndrome d. Red Disease

352. Associated with exposure of normal hard-shelled shrimps to pesticides and piscicides, which shows
shell that is often dark rough and wrinkled and affected shrimps are weak.
a. Incomplete Molting
b. Chronic Soft-Shell Syndrome/Soft-Shelling
c. Red Disease
d. Molting

353. Diets designed to add nutrients to food obtained from the pond or aquarium environment.
a. Complete feeds c. Incomplete feeds
b. Supplemental feeds d. Artificial feeds

354. Feeds for intensively reared fishes that do not get nutrients supplied from the environment.
a. Complete feeds b. Incomplete feeds
40
c. Artificial feeds d. Natural feeds

355. Various stages of fish require various sizes of feeds classified as:
a. Larval feeds; starter feeds c. Broodstock feeds; maintenance diets
b. Grower feeds; finisher feeds d. All of the above

356. The most expensive ingredient in fish feed, it may be tempting to economize on this ingredient.
a. Vitamin c. Carbohydrates
b. Minerals d. Protein

357. This is used as energy food supply.

a. Carbohydrates c. Vitamins
b. Proteins d. Fats

358. It is necessary for absorption of some vitamins and constitutes a relatively cheap energy source.
a. Proteins c. Lipids
b. Carbohydrates d. Amino acids

359. These are complex organic substances that are essential to a wide variety of metabolic processes and
are divided into two classes: fat-soluble and water-soluble.
a. Vitamins c. Protein
b. Fats d. Minerals

360. This is required to fish for maintenance of osmotic balance between body fluids and their environment.
a. Water c. Vitamins
b. Fats d. Minerals

361. Useful in diagnosing feeds problems

a. Nutritional deficiency signs c. Internal disease signs
b. Gross signs d. None of the above

362. Components of feeds which are important binders in commercial fish feed production.
a. Fats c. Vitamins
b. Antioxidant d. Carbohydrates

363. Reduction or cessation of growth is the common sign of what nutritional deficiency of fish?
a. Fats and lipids deficiency c. Vitamin imbalances
b. Amino acid deficiency method d. Minerals deficiency

364. This deficiency usually seen in fish fed on trash fish or pelleted diets in which part of lipid component
has gone rancid.
a. Fats and lipids deficiency c. Minerals deficiency
b. Amino acid deficiency method d. Vitamin imbalances

41
365. Depletion of the body storage of any single vitamin can be responsible for specific or general disease
signs.
a. Amino acid deficiency method c. Fats and lipids deficiency
b. Minerals deficiency d. Vitamin imbalances

366. This disease is characterized by necrosis and degeneration of the natural musculature of fish and
associated with vitamin deficiency and with lipid peroxides in the diet.
a. Nutritional myopathy syndrome c. Fats and lipids deficiency
b. Vitamin imbalances d. Mineral deficiency

367. This nutritional deficiency occur in juvenile to sub adult penaeid shrimp cultured intensively in tanks
and is caused by low level of vitamin C in the diet, lack or absence of algal growth or other vitamin C sources
in the culture system.
a. Vitamin Imbalances c. Minerals imbalances
b. Vitamin C deficiency d. Fats and lipids deficiency

368. This syndrome causes shrimps to become weak, prone to epibiotic fouling and cannibalism and have
reduced market value.
a. Molting c. Chronic soft-shell syndrome
b. Blue shell syndrome d. Underfeeding

369. This disease syndrome is light blue rather than grayish brown in color.
a. Black gill disease c. Vitamin imbalances
b. Blue disease or blue shell syndrome d. Body cramp

370. This refers to a syndrome of uncertain etiology; occur together with striated muscles as the organ.
a. Body cramp or cramped tail syndrome c. Underfeeding
b. Muscle necrosis d. Shell disease

371. This syndrome is indicated by the loss and oversized shells due to the reduction of the muscular mass
in the abdominal region.
a. Underfeeding c. Overfeeding
b. Vitamin imbalances d. Under size feeding

372. These organisms grow on the feeds, cause spoilage and produced toxins such as aflatoxin.
a. Aspergillus c. Bacillus
b. Micrococcus d. Salmonella

373. This organ is responsible in the digestion, absorption and storage of food, damage in its tissues lead to
slow growth.
a. Hepatopancreas c. Intestine
b. Stomach d. Kidney

374. These occur as contaminants in fish meal and can cause mortality when present in fry feeds.
42
a. Copper c. Manganese
b. Chlorine d. Chlorinated hydrocarbons

375. Leaves from ipil-ipil contain a poisonous amino acid, which cause pathological changes in the storage
cells of the shrimp's digestive organ.
a. Saponin c. Nicotine
b. Memosine d. Gossypol

376. These are present in the water and some of them cause disease only when the host have been weakened
through exposure to stressful environmental conditions.
a. Diatoms c. Fungi
b. Plankton d. Microorganism

377. These can be removed by ultraviolet radiation and through the process of microfiltration.
a. Potential pathogens c. Biofiltration
b. Chemical pollutants d. Carbon filtration

378. Chemical pollutants can be eliminated by:

a. Carbon filtration c. Water dilution
b. Biofiltration d. All of the above

379. This refers to fish free of all species- specific pathogens.

a. Specific pathogenic organisms (SPF) c. Coded pathogenic organism
b. Specified disease d. Uncontrolled fish

380. This includes fish free of all diseases appearing in a list drawn up by an international agreement.
a. Specific pathogenic organism c. Coded pathogenic organisms (CPF)
b. Specified disease d. Uncontrolled fish

381. This relate to fish reared in water supplies in which pathogenic organisms could exist, multiply and be
disseminated by wild life fish.
a. Specific pathogenic organism c. Specific disease (SDF)
b. Coded pathogenic organism d. Uncontrolled fish

382. This consists of fish not checked for the presence of disease or pathogens.
a. Specific pathogenic organism c. Specific disease (SDF)
b. Coded pathogenic organism d. Uncontrolled fish

383. Have recommended policy measures dealing with the introduction of the aquatic species and
guidelines for implementation, including methods to minimize the possibility of disease transfers, this is ICES
which stand for:
a. International Council for the Exploration of the Seas
b. Integrated Council for the Exploration of the Seas
c. International Council for Exploring the Seas
43
d. International Council for the Exploration of the Species

384. The primary objective of this method is to protect the host by intercepting the pathogen or cutting its
pathway to the host.
a. Environmental methods c. Physical methods
b. Chemical methods d. None of the above

385. This should be accessible by road to avoid excessively long transport time of the larvae or fish.
a. Farmhouse c. Hatchery/farm
b. Facilities d. None of the above

386. It is crucial in the hatchery or pond; it can spell the difference between success and failure of the
aquaculture enterprise.
a. Management c. Temperature
b. Good water quality d. Good management practice

387. This provides aeration in ponds and in a large settling reservoir it reduces the organic and particulate
load before it is directed into ponds.
a. Puddle wheel c. Paddle wheel
b. Surface aerator d. Aerator

388. The target organ of infection by Luminous Bacterial Disease.

a. Liver c. Hepatopancreas
b. Lungs d. Stomach

389. This mode vaccination delivery is commonly practiced with very small fish where it is convenient and
highly cost-effective method of vaccine administration.
a. Spray administration c. Injection
b. Per-oral administration d. Direct immersion

390. This variation of the immersion method suitable for larger fish than those given immersion treatment.
a. Spray administration c. Injection
b. Pre-oral administration d. Direct immersion

391. A chemical compound that activates the immune system of animals and increases their resistance to
infectious diseases.
a. Antibiotics c. Stimulant
b. Immuno-stimulants d. Synthetic

392. This oral route of administration of vaccine as feed additive should have many clear advantages like
the absence of handling stress, no scars on the fish to lower its value, freedom to choose vaccination dates, no
safety risk to the operator, and no risk of spreading infection through needles.
a. Per-oral administration c. Spray administration
b. Direct immersion d. Injection
44
393. This is the route of administration commonly used throughout the salmon industry; a single of this can
provide a high degree of protection throughout the whole length of the culture period or production cycle and
this process allows fish to be graded, counted and monitored for abnormalities and signs of disease.
a. Vaccination c. Examination
b. Diagnosis d. Injection

394. This is extracted from the exoskeleton of shrimps and other crustaceans.
a. Peptides c. Enzymes
b. Chitosan d. Substance

395. It is a ubiquitous by-product in an aquatic environment; also the main excretory product of water-
breathing animals and the end product of the decay of organic matter.
a. Ammonia c. Oxygen
b. Ammonium d. Waste product

396. Group of food and feed products for both human and animal consumption and are also known as direct
feed microbial or bacteria that promote the growth of an organism or inhibit pathogenic microorganisms.
a. Probiotics c. Yogurt
b. Antibiotics d. None of the above

397. The practice of keeping different species in the same pond.

a. Monoculture c. Polyculture
b. Aquafarming d. Aquafarming

398. It is the use of bacteriophage to treat bacterial disease.

a. Chemotherapy c. Phage therapy
b. Therapy d. None of the above

399. The study of antigen-antibody reactions in vitro and is important in clinical diagnostic microbiology.
a. Serology c. Homology
b. Immunology d. Microbiology

400. This test is used to detect and identify a specific antigen or antibody associated with a disease-causing
organism.
a. Immunodiagnostic test c. Agglutination test
b. Diagnostic test d. None of the above

401. Two basic methods for identification of unknown organisms by using sera containing various
antibodies:
a. Positive and Negative reactions
b. Agglutination for particulate antigen and Precipitation for soluble antigen
c. Antigen and Antibody
d. None of the above
45
402. These are among the most easily performed of immunological tests.
a. Precipitation reactions c. Agglutination reactions
b. Immunoassay method d. Antigen-antibody reactions

403. This is used to describe the concentration of antibody in serum, which is the reciprocal of the highest
dilution producing a definite reaction.
a. Serum c. Titer
b. Autoagglutinate d. Antigens

404. The reaction between antibody and soluble antigen resulting in a visible mass of antibody antigen
complexes.
a. Single diffusion c. Agglutination reactions
b. Antigen-antibody reactions d. Precipitation reactions

405. Precipitation reactions that can be done in semisolid medium (agar):

a. All of these c. Double diffusion
b. Single diffusion d. Immunoelectrophoresis

406. This method is used to quantitate the concentration of antibody and antigen in a solution.
a. Double diffusion c. Immunoelectrophoresis
b. Single diffusion d. Immunoassay

407. This method can be used either to detect the number of major components in an antigenic mixture or
identify the presence of homologous and heterologous molecules in an antigenic extract based on the specific
recognition capacity of a prepared antiserum.
a. Single diffusion c. Immunoelectrophoresis
b. Double diffusion d. Immunoflourescence

408. This technique is widely used method in fish immunology and combines electrophoresis with
immunoprecipitation and the components of antigen in this system will first be separated by electrophoresis.
a. Immunoflourescence c. Immunochemical techniques
b. Immunoassay test d. Immunoelectrophoresis

409. This technique generally detects surface-associated antigens.

a. Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)
b. Antibody-capture Assay
c. Fluorescent Antibody Technique (FAT)
d. Western Blotting

410. This is widely used for the detection of antigen or antibody in fish, typing and identification of a range
of microorganisms.
a. Immunoflourescence c. Immunoassay test
b. Immunoelectrophoresis d. Immunochemical techniques
46
411. One of the most powerful of all immunochemical techniques, it employ a wide range of methods to
detect and quantitate antigens or antibodies and to study the structure of antigens.
a. Direct fluorescent antibody techniques (DFAT)
b. Indirect fluorescent antibody techniques (IFAT)
c. Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)
d. Fluorescent Antibody Techniques (FAT)
412. The three classes of ELISA test are:
a. All of these c. Antigen capture assays
b. Antibody capture assays d. Two-antibody sandwich assays

413. These can be used to detect and quantitate antigens or antibodies and compare the epitopes recognized
by different antibodies.
a. Antibody capture assay c. Two-antibody sandwich assay
b. Antigen capture assay d. Immunoassay test

414. These are used primarily to detect and quantitate antigens.

a. Antibody capture assay c. Two-antibody sandwich assay
b. Antigen capture assay d. Bioassay

415. These are used primarily to determine the antigen concentration in unknown samples and require two
antibodies that bind to non-overlapping epitopes on the antigen.
a. Antibody capture assay c. Antigen capture assay
b. Two-antibody sandwich assays d. Bioassay

416. This is a rapid and sensitive assay for the detection and characterization of proteins
a. Bioassay c. Western Blotting
b. Antibody capture assay d. Immunoassay test

417. This is used to describe the degree of base pair matching that determines if the strands stay together.
a. Homology c. Etiology
b. Serology d. Cytology

418. Temperature under the specific reaction conditions where one half of the hybridized strands are still
hybridized and the other half are denatured.
a. Maximum temperature c. Melting temperature
b. Minimum temperature d. None of the above

419. The two molecular-based techniques are

a. Gene probe and Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
b. Ribonucleic acid and Deoxyribonucleic acid
c. Nucleic acid and Deoxyribonucleic acid
d. Nucleic acid and Polymerase chain Reactions

47
420. The DNA is extracted from a sample and binds it to a filter where it can be hybridized with the labeled
probe.
a. Filter hybridization c. Dot blot hybridization
b. Nucleic acid hybridization d. Prehybridization

421. The sample DNA is directly placed on the filter with the aid of a vacuum manifold, which has slot-like
spaces for each sample.
a. Dot blot hybridization c. Prehybridization
b. Filter hybridization d. Slot blot or dot blot hybridization

422. It is rapid, simple technique for the quantification of RNA or DNA target sequences without prior
electrophoretic separation.
a. Dot blotting c. Southern blot hybridization
b. Western blotting d. Prehybridization

423. The sample DNA may be first separated according to size and configuration by electrophoresis on a
gel and then transferred to filter.
a. Western blotting c. Dot blotting
b. Northern blot hybridization d. Southern blot hybridization

424. In this process, RNA molecules can be separated on the basis of size by gel electrophoresis and can be
immobilized on membranes.
a. Southern blot hybridization c. Northern blot hybridization
b. Western blotting d. Dot blotting

425. The DNA is not extracted but rather kept in the intact cell where in may bind to the probe.
a. Post hybridization c. Prehybridization
b. In situ hybridization d. Hybridization

426. These are extensively used as diagnostic tools to detect White Spot Syndrome Virus (WSSV); Infectious
Hypodermal and Hematopoietic Necrosis Virus (IHHNV); and Hepatopancreatic Parvovirus (HPV) of penaeid shrimp
and Viral Hemorrhagic Septicemia Virus (VHSV) and Infectious Hematopoietic Necrosis Virus in fish.
a. Polymerase chain reactions c. Gene probe assay
b. Gene probes d. Bioassay

427. An enzymatic method for amplifying exponentially specific preselected fragment of DNA; an in vitro
technique use to synthesize large quantities of specific nucleotide sequences from small amounts of DNA.
a. Gene probe c. Molecular biology techniques
b. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) d. Gene probe assay

428. In aquaculture, this is a valuable tool for the prevention, control and management of various diseases;
the test can be carried out non-destructively by using body fragments, blood or feces from fish and shrimp
tested.
a. FAT b. ELISA
48
c. PCR d. DFAT

429. PCR amplification is subdivided into steps which are repeated in cycles
a. Melting or Denaturation c. Extension
b. Annealing d. All of the above

430. Bacteria that lives in hot spring.

a. Thermophilic bacteria c. Thermus aquaticus
b. Thermuphilus sp. d. Thermus maritimus

431. These are important food for filter feeding bivalves and for the larvae of commercially important
crustacean and fishes.
a. Macroscopic algae c. Microscopic algae
b. Filamentous algae d. Zooplankton

432. It can cause severe economic losses to aquaculture, fisheries and tourism and have major impact on
health and environment.
a. Pollution c. Illegal logging
b. Algal blooms d. Climate change
433. These conditions developed due to high respiration by the algae at night or in dim light during the day
but most probably bacterial respiration during decay of the bloom caused it.
a. Oxygen depletion c. High pressure
b. Red tide d. Algal bloom

434. One of first recorded fatal cases of human poisoning after eating shellfish contaminated with
dinoflagellate toxins was in 1793 in ________________.
a. Manila Bay c. Orion Bataan
b. Poison Cove in British Columbia d. Egypt

435. In the Philippines, red tide was reported in 1908 in Manila Bay due to ___________ blooms.
a. Peridinium c. Alexandrium
b. Pyrodinium bahamense var. compressa d. Gymnodinium

436. In 1987, the presence of dinoflagellate blooms caused by _________________ was detected in the
coastal waters of Masinloc, Zambales, extending from Subic to Sta. Cruz.
a. Peridinium c. Alexandrium
b. Gonyaulax d. Pyrodinium bahamense var. compressa

437. This condition is affected by upwelling whereby transport of deep water to the euphotic zone is driven
by a force mainly originated from an eddy, enriching the coastal water column and initiating plankton bloom.
a. Eutrophication in the open sea c. Nutrient circulation in surf zones
b. Stratification of water d. Terrestrial nutrition supplies

49
438. This condition is caused by an imbalance in atmospheric pressure and sea temperature between
western and eastern parts of the Pacific Ocean,
a. Trade wind c. El Niño
b. Low pressure d. La Niña

439. Types of harmful and toxic algal blooms

a. Type A species c. Type C species
b. Type B species d. All of the above

440. These are species that produce basically harmless water discoloration; under exceptional conditions in
sheltered bays, blooms can grow and cause indiscriminate kills of fish and invertebrates from oxygen
depletion; these blooms represented by dinoflagellate species and Cynobacterium.
a. Types B species c. Type A species
b. Types C species d. All of the above

441. These produce potent toxins that find their way through the food chain to human, causing a variety of
gastrointestinal and neurological illness such as PSP, DSP, NSP, ASP, CFP and CTP.
a. Type A species c. Type C species
b. Type B species d. All of the above

442. Species of this type are non-toxic to human but harmful to fish and invertebrates by damaging or
clogging their gills, e.g., diatom, dinoflagellate, prymnesiophytes, and raphidophytes.
a. Type B species c. Type A species
b. Type C species d. All of the above

443. Strategies in coping with the problem of harmful and toxic algal blooms
a. Red tide monitoring/ information dissemination
b. Regulation/ medical management of PSP cases
c. Government assistance program /recommendations
d. All of the above

444. Deficiency of oxygen

a. Asphyxiation c. Hypoxia
b. Anorexia d. Hyperoxia

445. To clean by reversing water flow

a. Aeration c. Flushing
b. Flow through d. Backwash

446. A group of genetically identical cells or organisms derived by asexual reproduction from a single
parent.
a. Gonochorists c. Gene
b. Clone d. Genome

50
447. Unicellular eukaryotic organisms which swims by means of a pair of whip-like flagella.
a. Dinoflagellate c. Plankton
b. Flagellates d. Zooplankton

448. A soluble toxin that passes in to the medium during growth of certain bacilli of other microorganism.
a. Exotoxin c. Ciguatoxin
b. Aflatoxin d. Saxitoxin

449. The attachment organ of some parasites.

a. Holdfast c. Anchor
b. Cilia d. Anchoring disc

450. A selective breeding of organisms that are resistant to disease or those that grow larger or faster.
a. Genetic manipulation c. Selective breeding
b. Selection d. Manipulation

451. A condition whereby animals maintain a relatively stable internal environment.

a. Homeostasis c. Stability
b. Homeostatic d. Stable environment

452. An abnormal accumulation of blood in any part of the body.

a. Hyperplasia c. Hypertrophy
b. Hypoxia d. Hyperemia

453. An abnormal or unusual increase in the number of cells of a tissue.

a. Hyperplasia c. Hyperaemia
b. Hypoxia d. Hypertrophy

454. An increase in size of a tissue or an organ due to an increase in size of individual cells.
a. Hypertrophy c. Hypoxia
b. Hybridoma d. Hyperplasia

455. The toxin that affects the nervous system.

a. Neurotoxin c. Exotoxin
b. Endotoxin d. Brevetoxins

456. Preventive action

a. Antibiotic c. Anticancer
b. Probiotics d. Prophylaxis

457. Deposition to disease

a. Stress c. Depress
b. Susceptible d. None of the above

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458. A physical or physiological change which is caused by a particular disease.
a. Marked c. Symptom
b. Sign d. Effect

459. The bearing of live young.

a. Oviviparous c. Ovoviviparous
b. Oviparous d. Viviparous

460. Basic component of protein

a. Carbohydrates c. Vitamins
b. Amino acid d. Fat

461. Recurring in a locality

a. Pandemic c. Axenic
b. Endemic d. None of the above

462. Abnormal development or degeneration

a. Dystrophy c. Myophathy
b. Degenerate d. Atrophy

463. Transmission of disease or disease agent from one tank to another.

a. Cross-contamination c. Direct contamination
b. Contamination d. None of the above

464. Organic waste from dead cells or unused food.

a. Waste c. Detritus
b. Decay organic matter d. Debris

465. A kind of toxin produced by benthic dinoflagellate found in corals.

a. Brevetoxins c. Cadaverine
b. Ciguatoxins d. Exotoxin

466. A highly toxic substance produced by fungi growing on feed or feed ingredients.
a. Saxitoxin c. Aflatoxin
b. Endotoxin d. Brevetoxin

467. A protein catalyst with specificity for both the reaction catalyzed and its substances.
a. Enzyme c. Slime
b. Substance d. Mucus

468. A toxin of internal origin present in bacteria but separable from the cell body only on its disintegration.
a. Endotoxin c. Neurotoxin
b. Exotoxin d. Saxitoxin

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469. A 37% solution of formaldehyde.
a. Isopropyl alcohol c. Formalin
b. Ethyl alcohol d. All of the above

470. A colorless copper-containing respiratory pigment found in solution in the blood plasma of various
arthropods and molluscs.
a. Melanin c. Haemoglobin
b. Haemocyanin d. Cyanogens

471. The organisms which use organic compounds as primary source of energy.
a. Autotrophs c. Primary consumer
b. Heterotrophs d. Secondary consumer

472. A shellfish poisoning caused by polyether brevetoxins produced by the unarmoured dinoflagellate
Gymnodinium breve.
a. Paralytic shellfish poisoning c. Histamine poisoning
b. Amnesic shellfish poisoning d. Neurotic shellfish poisoning

473. The process which deals with antigen-antibody reaction.

a. Immunological method c. Chemical method
b. Biological method d. Serological method

474. A toxin
a. Poison c. Poisonous
b. Toxic d. Danger

475. A localized death of a tissue.

a. Skin cancer c. Inflammation
b. Enteritis d. Necrosis

476. A transport host in which the larval stage of a parasite undergoes no development and its only function
is to transfer the parasite to the next host.
a. Paratenic host c. Secondary host
b. Intermediate host d. Definitive host

477. ppm
a. Parts per million c. Grams per ton
b. Milligrams per liter d. All of the above

478. Attachment organelle of some parasite.

a. Scolex c. Sucker
b. Holdfast d. Anchor

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479. A condition taking place when the lipids are broken to their constituents through poor storage
condition.
a. Rancidity c. Spoilage
b. Rancid d. Acidity

480. An organism that lay eggs.

a. Oviparous c. Ovoviviparous
b. Viviparous d. Oviparity

481. An organism that lives at the expense of another, usually invading it and causing disease.
a. Bacteria c. Fungi
b. Parasite d. Intermediate host

482. A pathological condition due to the presence of parasites.

a. Infection c. Lesion
b. Infestation d. Disease

483. An abnormal development of dark coloring matter in the skin.

a. Melanised c. Blue disease
b. Black skin d. Blue disease

484. The free swimming stage of monogeneans.

a. Nauplius c. Cercariae
b. Larva d. Oncomiracidium

485. The holding or rearing of animals under conditions that prevent their escape or the escape of a disease
agent.
a. Aquaculture c. Propagation
b. Sea ranching d. Quarantine

486. This have only recently exploited the immune system to protect fish against parasitic disease.
a. Vaccination c. Parasite vaccines
b. Viral vaccines d. Bacterial vaccines

487. The science that deals with heredity and variation.

a. Genetics c. Heredity
b. Traits d. Generation microbiology

488. A unit of heredity.

a. Heredity c. Gene
b. Traits d. Attitude

489. An Austrian monk, who discovered that hereditary characteristics are determine by units or factors that
are transmitted through generations.
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a. Gregor Mendel c. Hippocrates
b. Charles Darwin d. Aristotle

490. This study the cell structures involved in heredity.

a. Cytogenetic c. Cytology
b. Biotechnology d. Biology

491. Study the structure and function of DNA.

a. Epigenetic c. Cytogenetics
b. Population genetics d. Molecular genetics

492. This shows how breeding methods, mutation, and other factors affect the frequency of various genes in
human, animal, and plant populations.
a. Molecular genetics c. Genetics population
b. Population genetics d. None

493. This involves altering and rearranging the genes of an organism.

a. Biotechnology c. Genetic engineering
b. Engineering d. Mechanical engineering

494. The identification of the genetic material and the manner and ways by which gene manifestations are
inherited, was gained through _______________ and ______________.
a. Experimentation c. All of the above
b. Microscopic studies d. None of the above

495. Methods of genetics study:

a. Planned breeding experiment/ statistical analysis
b. Probability/pedigree analysis
c. All of the above
d. B only

496. These have no nuclear membrane that separates the contents of the cytoplasm from the nucleus.
a. Chromomeres c. Eukaryotes
b. Centromere d. Prokaryotes

497. These have nuclear membrane that separates the genetic material from the cytoplasm.
a. Prokaryotes c. Chromomeres
b. Eukaryotes d. Centromeres

498. A knob-like region, which show distinct sizes and occupy specific position giving non-homologous
chromosomes.
a. Chromomeres c. Organelle
b. Nucleotides d. Cytoplasm

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499. A small chromosomal section, which constrictions can be found in some chromosomes with results
from pinching off.
a. Nucleus c. Matrix
b. Satellite d. Centromere

500. This contains diploid numbers of chromosomes.

a. Mature germ cell c. Somatic cell or body cell
b. Haploid d. Diploid

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