Sec : SR AIIMS S60 & MPL NEET CUMULATIVE TEST -2 Date :01-04-20

SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI, CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR AIIMS SUPER60 & NEET MPL DATE: 01-04-20
SUB: BIOLOGY NEET CUMULATIVE TEST - 2 Max. Marks :720

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :

Pattern of the Entrance Examination:-

Paper containing 180 objective type questions ,from Biology, Physics and Chemistry
Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only to darken the appropriate circle. Answers marked
with pencil would not be evaluated.
Each item carries 4marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For
each incorrect response 1mark will be deducted from the total score

1. Edible ascomycetes are 5. In monera

(1) Morels, Truffles (1) Cell wall is absent
(2) Agaricus, Morels (2) Nucleor membrane is present
(3) Rhizopus, Mucor
(3) Photosynthetic organisms are absent
(4) Penicillium, Agaricus
(4) Chemosynthesis may be a mode of
2. In which of the following cell wall forms two
nutrition
thin overlapping shells which fit together like
soap box ? 6. Neries is provided with
(1) Dinoflagellates (1) Suckers
(2) Pearl of oceans (2) Setae
(3) Euglenoides (3) Parapodia
(4) Slime moulds (4) 2 and 3
3. Who discovered viroids ? 7. Intracellular digestion is seen in all the
(1) Beigerinek
following except
(2) L.Pasteur
(1) Sea lilies
(3) Stanley
(4) T. O. Diener (2) Sea fan
4. If two dihybrid plants (AaBb) are crossed, (3) Sea walnuts
than find out the correct combinations of (4) Sea fur
probabilities of following offsprings:- 8. Which of the following is well-marked in
A B C D ctenophores ?
AaBb AABb AaBB aabb (1) Segmentation
(1) 8/16 2/16 2/16 1/16
(2) Cnidoblasts
(2) 4/16 2/16 2/16 2/16
(3) Water transport system
(3) ¼ 1/8 1/8 1/8
(4) Bioluminescence
(4) ¼ 1/8 1/8 1/16
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9. In Balanoglossus, circulatory system is 14. Which of the following have ds DNA as
A
of → type, respiration takes place genetic material ?
B (1) TMV
through  → and excretory organ is
C
 → (2) φ × 174
In the above A, B and C are respectively (3) Most plant viruses
(1) Open, gills and proboscis gland (4) Bacteriophage
(2) Closed, ctenidia and nephridia 15. Heterosporous pteridophyte among the
(3) Open, mantle and metanephridia following is
(4) Closed, gills and proboscis gland (1) Cycas
10. Body of lamprey is devoid of (2) Adiantum
(1) Jaws and unpaired fins (3) Selaginella
(2) Teeth and unpaired fins (4) Marchantia
(3) Jaws and endoskeleton 16. Identify the wrong statement
(4) Scales and paired fins
(1) In human, the ‘largest’ known gene is
11. Deuteromycetes contain
present on ‘X’ chromosome
(1) Zygospore producing fungi
(2) In fowl, sex of progeny depends upon
(2) Oospore forming fungi
type of ovum that fertilizes the sperm
(3) Imperfect fungi
(3) In male grasshopper, 50% of sperms
(4) Fungi with perfect stage
have no sex chromosome
12. Consider the following four statements I,II,
(4) Worker bees are haploid and they lay
III and IV and select the correct statements:
unfertilized eggs only.
I. Mendelian experiments has a large
sampling size, which gave greater credibility 17. Read the following statements and find out
to the data that he collected the incorrect statement
II. Recessive allele influences the appearance (1) Alpha thalassemia is controlled by two
of the phenotype even in the presence of a linked genes present on chromosome
dominant allele 11.
III. All the traits of a character can be found (2) Thalassemia is a quantitative problem
only when population studies are made of Hb
IV. In F2-generation of a Mendelian (3) Thalassemia is a Mendelian disorder
monohybrid cross, the tall and dwarf traits (4) Beta thalassemia is controlled by a
were identical to their parental types and single gene called HBB.
shows blending inheritance 18. Statement-I : Evolution is not a directed
The correct statements are process in the sense of determinism.
(1) I and III Statement-II : Evolution is a stochastic
(2) III and IV process based on chance events in nature and
(3) II and IV chance mutation in the organism.
(4) II and III (1) Statement I and II are true
13. Archaebacteria differ from cyanobacteria in (2) Statement I and II are false
(1) Cell wall composition (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
(2) Cell membrane structure false
(3) Cellular organisation (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is
(4) Both 1 and 2 true
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19. Which is correct? 23. Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a
(1) Grasshoppers show XX-XY method of gene or the product, when:-
sex determination (1) More than one gene influence the same
(2) Female Drosophila is heterogametic phenotype
(3) Henking discovered X-body (2) More than one phenotype is influenced
(4) Autosomes have no role in sex by the same gene
determination in fruit fly (3) More than one genotype in influenced
20. Statement-I : Turner’s syndrome is a by the same gene
Mendelian disorder which is caused due to (4) More than one allele are there for a
monosomy of 23. character
Statement-II : Turner female is sterile besides 24. Blood group of David is O and that of his
other features including lack of other
newly married wife is AB. Their children
secondary sexual characters.
could have only blood group
(1) Statement I and II are true
(1) O, AB
(2) Statement I and II are false
(2) A, B
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
(3) O, A, AB
false
(4) A, B, AB
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is
25. Highly developed gametophyte occur in
true
(1) Eucalyptus
21. In which of the following sporophyte is
(2) Funaria
dependent on gametophyte ?
(3) Sequoia
(1) Pinus
(4) Ferns
(2) Funaria
26. Pick out the wrong match.
(3) Selaginella
(4) Pteris (1) Memory cells – Secondary immune

22. In a breeding experiment between two response

parents showing the dominant and recessive (2) Plasma cells – Effector B cells
phenotype of the character, the offspirings (3) Interferons – Cytokine barriers
showed equal proportions of the dominant & (4) NK cells – Physiological barriers
recessive phenotypes. Which one of 27. Repetitive DNA are separated from bulk
following statement must be true ? genomic DNA as different peaks during
(1) Both the parents produces same types density gradient centrifugation. The bulk
of gametes DNA forms a major peak and the other small
(2) Both the parents carried recessive peaks are referred to as
alleles (1) ESTs
(3) Both the parents were true breeding (2) Non-repetitive DNA
(4) More than one options are correct (3) Satellite DNA
(4) Coding DNA
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28. Blood born antigens are trapped and make (1) They are heterosporous
them available to T-cells by (2) Megaspore produce endosperm and
(1) Thymus embroyo is surreounded by seed coat
(2) Spleen (3) Female gametophyte is saprophytic
(3) Red bone marrow (4) Archegonia is absent.
(4) Lymph nodes 34. Two genes A & B present on same
29. Satellite DNA forms the basis of DNA finger chromosome show 20% recombination, then
printing because it what will be the percentage of gamete (Ab)
(1) Shows high degree of polymorphism for the plant having genotype AaBb in cis
(2) Codes for proteins configuration
(3) Is not inheritable (1) 40 %
(4) Has no repetitive sequences (2) 80 %
30. Match the columns. (3) 20 %
Column-I Column-II (4) 10 %
35. Casparian strips occur in
A) Invertebrates 1) 500 mya
(1) Pericycle of root
B) Jawless fish 2) 320 mya (2) Endodermes of dicot stem
(3) Endodermes of monocot stem
C) Seaweeds 3) 350 mya
(4) Endodermis of root
D) Ichthyosaurs 4) 200 mya 36. Number of locations with “SNPs” identified
A B C D by scientists in human genome is
(1) 1 3 2 4 (1) 3 million
(2) 4 3 1 2 (2) 1.4 million
(3) 1 4 2 3 (3) 30,000 million
(4) 2 1 4 3 (4) 2.4 million
31. Prothallus is 37. Ascaris shows
(1) gametophyte of moss (1) Direct development
(2) gametophyte of ferns (2) Closed type of blood circulation
(3) Sporophyte in pteridophytes (3) Internal fertilization
(4) Sporophyte in bryophytes (4) Hermaphroditism
32. If a tall & pink flowered (TtRr) Mirabilis 38. The following features are seen in which of
plant is self crossed, then the offspring would the below options ?
a) Chitinous exoskeleton
be
b) Malpighian tubules as excretory
(1) 50% plants will be tall
organs
(2) 50% plants will have Red flower
c) Tracheal system for respiration
(3) 25% plants will have white flower
d) Three pair of legs in thoracic region
(4) 25% plants will have pink flower
(1) Limulus
33. Selaginella and salvinia are considered to
(2) Anopheles
represent a significant step towards evolution
(3) Spider
of seed habit because
(4) Balanus
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39. Select the correct matching 46. Which of the following is correct about
(1) Asterias - Hermaphrodite cyclostomes ?
(2) Pila - Metamersim (1) Head is without cranium
(3) Ophiura - Mantle (2) Excretion is by metanephric kidneys
(4) Lumbricus - Closed type of circulation (3) They show catadromous migration
40. Which animal has the following features ? (4) They are ectoparasites
a) Digestive tract is complete 47. Which of the following is incorrect about
b) Segmented body cartilaginous fish ?
c) Respiration is done by gills (1) Teeth are modified placoid scales
d) Circulatory system is open type (2) Notochord is persistent throughout life
(1) Scorpion (3) Air bladder is absent
(2) Butterfly (4) In males, the pectoral fins bear claspers
(3) Prawn 48. Compound epithelium forms
(4) Snail (1) Lining of intestinal lumen
41. Intercalary merestems are responsible for (2) Lining of alveoli of lungs
(1) Increase in diameter of grass (3) Wall of proximal convoluted tubule of
(2) Increase in diameter of dicots nephron
(3) Secondary growth (4) Lining of buccal cavity
(4) Variation in length of Internode of 49. The sheath enclosing a muscle fibre is
Sugarcane (1) Endomysium
42. Number of linkage groups : (2) Epimysium
(3) Perimysium
(1) Is always equal to the number of
(4) Perineurium
diploid set of chromosomes
50. In oyster, which of the following organ helps
(2) Is seven for Drosophila
in excretion ?
(3) Do not include sex chromosomes
(1) Metanephridia
(4) Is one more than the haploid set of
(2) Green glands
chromosome in human male
(3) Urecose glands
43. In barley stem, vascular bundles are
(4) 2 and 3
(1) Radial, polyarch
51. Lateral meristem among the following are
(2) Conjoint, scattered
all except
(3) Collateral open
(1) Vascular cambium in dicot root
(4) Conjoint, exarch
(2) Phellogen in dicot stem
44. Palisade parenchyma occur in all except
(3) Cork cambium in dicot root
(1) Sorghum
(4) Intercalary merestem
(2) Soyabean
52. If two genes A & B are 35 map unit apart in
(3) Gram
a dihybrid linked plant. How many
(4) Musturd recombinant plants will be produced by the
45. Dead and non-conducting tracheary elements test cross of a plant with AaBb genotype, if
occur in total 2000 plants are obtained after cross ?
(1) Sapwood (1) 1300
(2) Phloem (2) 350
(3) Heartwood (3) 700
(4) Alburnum (4) Data insufficient
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53. All of the following produce clones except 59. Genital papillae in earthworm are found in
(1) Vegetative propagation (1) Segments 19th and 20th
(2) Diploid parthenogeneses (2) Segments 17th and 19th
(3) Sexual reproduction (3) Segments 18th and 19th
(4) Nucellar polyembryony (4) Segments 17th and 18th
60. Select the false statements
54. The actual account of habital and distribution
A. Dryopithecus was more man-like
of plant of a given area are described in
B. Ramapithecus was more ape-like
(1) Flora
C. Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus both
(2) Monographs
were hairy and walked like gorillas and
(3) Key chimpanzees
(4) Catalogues D. Australopithecines lived in the East
55. Which of the following is correctly matched African grasslands and walked up right
wrt mode of reproduction (1) Only B
(1) Penicillium – offset (2) A, B, C and D
(2) Wter hyacinth – sucker (3) Only D
(3) Banana – Rhizome (4) Only A and B
(4) Chrysanthemum - runner 61. Rhizome is vegetative propagule in
56. Which of the following is not correct about (1) Potato
(2) Pistia
cockroach ?
(3) Ginger
(1) Gonapophyses: Found in both male and
(4) Echhornia
female
62. In chara
(2) Anal cerci: Jointed filamentous
(1) Male reproductive organ is nucule
structures (2) Female reproductive organ is globule
(3) Compound eye: Has ommatidia as (3) Upper antheridium and lower
units oogonium
(4) Ootheca: Secreted by mushroom gland (4) Globule is male reproductive organ
57. Statement-I : Intercalated discs are composed 63. The eyes of potato
of ‘adhering junctions’ to conduct impulses (1) are apical buds
in cardiac muscles. (2) are axillary buds
Statement-II : Cardiac muscle fibres are (3) help in vegetative reproduction
branched. (4) 2 and 3 correct
(1) Both S I and S II are correct 64. Which of the following statement is not
correct ?
(2) Both S I and S II are wrong
(1) Homo and musca belongs to same
(3) S I is correct but S II is wrong
taxonomic categories ie genus
(4) S I is wrong but S II is correct
(2) Herbaria serve as Quick referral system
58. Erythrocytes in frog are in taxonomical studies
(1) Enucleated and oval (3) Museums have collection of Living
(2) Nucleated, circular and biconcave plant and animal specimens
(3) Enucleated and circular (4) Monographs contain Information on
(4) Nucleated, oval and biconvex any one taxon
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65. Which of the following have been (3) Diploid organisms
commercialised as blood cholesterol (4) All of these
lowering agent ? 72. In grass rudimentary structure opposite to
(1) Steptokinase cotyledon is
(2) Statins (1) Scutellum
(3) Cyclosporin A (2) Epiblast
(4) All of these (3) Coleoptile
66. The first non-cellular forms of life appeared (4) Coleorrhiza
(1) 3 mya 73. Masses of bacteria associated with fungal
(2) 2 mya filaments to form mesh like structures is

(3) 4 mya called

(1) Activated sludge
(4) 3 bya
(2) Flocs
67. In which disease, lips and finger nails turn
(3) Primary sludge
grey to bluish in colour?
(4) Grit
(1) Pneumonia
74. Apomitic embryo in citrus are
(2) Jaundice
(1) Haploid
(3) Polio
(2) Diploid
(4) Typhoid
(3) Sexual embryo
68. The stage of Plasmodium that cannot enter
(4) polyploid
the human RBC is
75. How many nuclei are involved in triple
(1) Merozoite
fusion ?
(2) Metacryptozoite (1) 5
(3) Sporozoite (2) 7
(4) Cryptozoite (3) 3
69. Cancer in epithelial tissue is called (4) 2
(1) Carcinoma 76. Life appeared ________ years after the
(2) Lymphoma formation of earth
(3) Leukemia (1) 2 billion
(4) Sarcoma (2) 500 million
70. Heroin is a (3) 10 million
(1) Stimulant (4) 3 billion
(2) Depressant drug 77. Which of the following shows convergent
(3) Hallucinogenic evolution ?
(4) Euphoria drug (1) Mouse and Marsupial mouse
71. Gametes are formed by mitosis in (2) Bobcat and Spotted cuscus
(1) Haploid organisms (3) Anteater and Marsupial mole
(2) Animlas (4) Lemur and Tasmanian wolf

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78. Study the following pedigree and assign the 83. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is
type of inheritance of the trait brought about by the agency of
(1) Insects or wind
(2) Air
(3) Bats
(4) Birds
84. If a tetraploid female plant is crossed with a
hexaplaoid male plant then find out the
ploidy of endosperm
(1) 4n
(2) 7n
(3) 3n
(4) 6n
85. Perisperm
(1) is persistant endosperm
(1) Myotonic dystrophy (2) is polyploidy structure
(2) PKU (3) is diploid tissue
(3) IP (4) have no reserve food
(4) DMD 86. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt
79. The factors affecting genetic equilibrium are and get selected by nature according to
the following except (1) Oparin
(1) Gene flow (2) Darwin
(2) Natural selection (3) Wallace
(3) Random mating (4) Lamark
(4) Genetic recombination 87. The drug that has potent stimulating action
on central nervous system, producing a sense
80. Life came from outer space, this theory is
of euphoria and increased energy is obtained
called
from
(1) Spontaneous generation
(1) Erythroxylum coca
(2) Theory of catastrophism
(2) Cannabis sativa
(3) Special creation theory
(3) Papaver somniferum
(4) Cosmozoic (spore) theory
(4) Datura
81. Obligatory autogamous flowers are found in
88. Study the following.
?
a) Interleukins b) Antibodies
(1) Cammelina
c) Complement proteins d) T-cells
(2) Vallishneria
e) Antimicrobial proteins f) IFNs
(3) Papaya
g) B-cells h) NK-cells
(4) Castor
Which of the above cause specific immunity?
82. Wind pollination occur in all except
(1) c, e, f, g, h
(1) Maize
(2) b, e, f, g, h
(2) Wheat
(3) b, d, g
(3) Bamboo
(4) c, d, g, h
(4) Yucca
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89. Hepatitis B vaccine produced from yeast is (1) Power
(1) Toxoid vaccine (2) Wavelength
(2) Recombinant vaccine (3) Intensity
(3) Attenuated vaccine (4) Frequency
(4) Inactivated vaccine 94. The de Bloglie wavelength of a neutron in
90. Sequencing the whole set of genome that thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a
contained all the coding and non-coding temperature T (Kelvin) and mass m is
sequence and later assigning different regions h
(1)
in the sequence with functions are referred to 3mKT
as 2h
(2)
(1) Genetic marker 3mKT
(2) Sequence annotation 2h
(3)
(3) ESTs mKT
(4) VNTRs h
(4)
91. A cubical block of side a is moving with mKT
velocity V on a horizontal smooth plane as 95. A thin uniform circular ring is rolling down
shown in the figure. It hits a ridge at point O. an inclined plane of inclination 300 without
The angular speed of the block after it hits O slipping. Its linear acceleration along the
is inclination plane will be
a g
(1)
2
M V
O g
(2)
3
3V g
(1) (3)
4a 4
(2) 3V 2g
2 (4)
mv 0 3
(3)
2g 96. The acceleration of an electron in first orbit
of H – atom is
mv03
(4) m3 r 3
2 2g (1) 2
92. Two monochromatic beams of equal  h 
 
intensities hit a screen. If number of photons  2π 
2
hitting the screen per second by beam A is  h 
 
twice than by B. Then f A : f B is (2)  2π 
(1) 1 : 1 m2r 3
2
(2) 2 : 1  h 
 
(3) 1 : 2 (3)  2π 
(4) 3 : 2 mr 3
93. Photoelectric emission occurs only when the mr 3
(4) 2
incident light has more than a certain  h 
 
minimum  2π 
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97. A uniform metre stick is held vertically with (3) r .T = 0 and F .T ≠ 0
one end on the floor and is allowed to fall.
The speed of the other end when it hits the (4) r.T ≠ 0 and F .T = 0
floor assuming that the end at the floor does 101. Three rods of length L and mass M are
not slip : placed along X, Y and Z axes in such a way
that one end of each rod is at the origin. The
(1) 4g
M.I. of system about Z-axis is
(2) 3g ML2
(1)
(3) 5g 3
2 ML2
(4) g (2)
3
98. The figure illustrate how B, the flux density
3ML2
inside a sample of unmagnetised (3)
3
ferromagnetic material varies with B0 , the
2 ML2
magnetic flux density in which the sample is (4)
12
kept. For the sample to be suitable for 102. Two nuclei P, Q havge equal no.of atoms at t
making a permanent magnet = 0. Their half – life are 3 hours, 9 hours.
Compare their rates of disintegration after 18
hrs from the start.
(1) 3 : 16
(2) 16 : 3
(3) 1 : 3
(1) OQ should be large, OR should be
(4) 3 : 1
small
238
(2) OQ and OR should both be large 103. In a radioactive series, 92 U changes to
(3) OQ should be small and OR should be 206
82 Pb through n1α − decay processes and
large
n2 β − decay processes.
(4) OQ and OR should both be small
99. Which of the following is responsible for the (1) n1 = 8, n2 = 8
earth’s magnetic field ? (2) n1 = 6, n2 = 6
(1) Electrical currents produced by (3) n1 = 8, n2 = 6
convective motion of metallic fluids in the
(4) n1 = 6, n2 = 8
outer core of the earth
104. If 50% of energy released during fission
(2) Diversive current in earth’s core
would be converted into electrical energy,
(3) Rotational motion of earth
then number of fissions in a second in a
(4) Translational motion of earth
nuclear reactor of 6.4 MW output is (Energy
100. Let F be the force acting on a particle per fission is 200 MeV)

having position vector r , and T be the (1) 4 × 1015
torque of this force about the origin. Then –
(2) 4 × 1016
(1) r . T ≠ 0 and F .T ≠ 0
(3) 4 × 1017
(2) r .T = 0 and F .T = 0 (4) 4 × 1018
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105. In a common emitter (CE) amplifier having a (3) The fractional change in reverse bias
voltage gain G, the transistior used has trans current is greater than the fractional
conductance 0.03 mho and current gain 25. If change in forward bias current
the above transistor is replaced with another (4) All
one with transconductance 0.02 mho and 109. Transfer characteristics [output voltage (V0 )
current gain 20, the voltage will be
2 vs input voltage (Vi ) for a base biased
(1) G transistor in CE configuration is as shown in
3
(2) 1.5 G the figure. For using transistor as a swich, it
is used
1
(3) G
3
5
(4) G
4
106. The peak voltage in the output of a half –
wave diode rectifier fed with a sinusoidal
signal without filter is 10V. The d.c.
component of the output voltage is (1) in region II
(1) 10 / 2V (2) in region I
(3) in region III
(2) 10 / π V
(4) both in region I and III
(3) 10 V 110. The moment of inertia of a circular disc of
(4) 20 / π V mass M and radius R about an axis, which is
107. The base emitter voltage, VBE = 0.5V and tangential to the circumference of the disc
base correct amplification factor β d ,C = 100 . and parallel to its diameter is
3
Calculate the value RB (1) MR 2
2
2
(2) MR 2
3
5
(3) MR 2
4
4
(4) MR 2
5
111. Two carnot engines A and B are operated in
series. The engine A receives heat from the
source at temperature T1 and rejects the heat
(1) 190 k Ω to the sink at temperature T. The second
(2) 220kΩ engine B receives the heat at temperature T
(3) 110kΩ and rejects to its sink at temperature T2 . For
(4) 170kΩ what value of T the efficiencies of the two
108. The reason for the photodiodes are operated engines are equal
in reverse bias condition, when light falls on T1 − T2
it (1)
2
(1) Current in forward bias is greater than
(2) T1T2
in reverse bias
(2) Current in reverse biase is greater than (3) T1T2
in forward bias
T1 + T2
(4)
2
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112. The door of a working refrigerator is left (1) zero
open in a well insulated room. The (2) – 2000 J
temperature of air in the room will (3) 2000 J
(1) Decrease (4) 1000 J
(2) Increase in winters and decrease in 116. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a
summer volume V expands isothermally to a volume
(3) Remains the same 2 V and then adiabatically to a volume 16V
(4) Increase  5
113. Two blocks A and B of equal mass are the final pressure of the gas  γ = 
 3
released on two sides of fixed wedge C as (1) 64 P
shown in fig. What is the acceleration of (2) 32P
centre of mass of the two block system. (3) P/64
(4) 16P
117. If the linear density of a rod of length L
A B varies as λ = A + Bx . Find the position of
CM.
450 450 L ( 3 A + 2 BL )
(1)
g 3 ( 2 A + BL )
(1)
2 L  A + BL 
(2)
g 2  2 A + BL 
(2)
4 L  2 A + BL 
(3)
(3)
g 4  3 A + BL 
2 L  A+ B 
(4)
(4) 2
g 3  A + BL 
4 118. The specific heat of a substance varies as
114. A certain mass of gas at 273 K is expanded
to 81 times its volume under adiabatic
( 3t 2
+ t ) × 10−3 Cal / gm 0c. What is the

conditions. If γ = 1.25 for the gas then its amount of heat required to raise the
final temperature is temperature of 1 kg of substance from 50 C
(1) −1820 C to 100 C
(2) 00 C (1) 912.5 Cal
(2) 7150 Cal
(3) −2350 C
(3) 1050 Cal
(4) −910 C (4) 8200 Cal
115. A gas istaken through the cycle
119. A horizontal platform with an object placed
A → B → C → A , as shown. What is the
on it is executing SHM in the vertical
net work done by the gas ?
direction. The amplitude of oscillation is
3.92 × 10−3 m . What must be the least period
of these oscillations, so that the object is not
detached from the platform?
(1) 0.1556 sec
(2) 0.1456 sec
(3) 0.1356 sec
(4) 0.1256 sec
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120. What is the ratio between the height H of a 4R
(2)
mountain and the depth h of a mine, if a 3π
pendulum swings with the same period at the
R
top of the mountain and at the bottom of the (3)
3π
mine ? (Assume H < < R)
(1) ½ 2R
(4)
(2) 2 π
(3) 1 124. N divisions on main scale of vernier calipers
(4) 4 coincide with N + 1 division on vernier scale.
121. A particle is executive a simple harmonic If each division on main scale is of a units.
motion. Its maximum acceleration is α and Find least connt of instrument
maximum velocity is β . Then its time period a
(1)
of vibration will be N +1
α Na
(1) (2)
β N +1
β2
a
(2) (3)
α N
2πβ  N +1
(3) (4)  a
α  N 
β2 125. A particle moves on the x-axis according to
(4) the equation x = A + B sinwt. The motion is
α2
122. A metal rod of lengh 2m has cross – sectional harmonic with amplitude
areas 2A and A as shown in the following (1) A
figure. The two ends are mainained at (2) B
(3) A+ B
temperatures 1000 C and 700 C . The
temperature of middle point C is : (4) A2 + B 2
126. A ring is suspended from a point S on its rim
as shown in the figure. When displaced from
equilibrium, it oscillates with time period of
2 seconds. The radius of the ring is (take
g =π2)
S
0
(1) 80 C
(2) 850 C
X
(3) 900 C
(4) 950 C
123. Position of CM, for a semi circular disc of
(1) 0.25 m
radius R, from centre of circle
(2) 0.5 m
4R (3) 0.15 m
(1)
π (4) 1.0 m
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127. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1mm and these
p( kpa)
are 100 divisons an circular scale. In
measuring the diameter of sphere there are 5
A
six divisions an linear scale and forty
division on circular scale coincides with
2 B
reference line. Find diameter of sphere :
(1) 6.2 mm
V( m3)
4 6
(2) 6.4 mm
(3) 5.6 mm (1) 20 KJ
(2) – 20 KJ
(4) 4.86 mm
(3) 20 J
128. If the potential energy of a H-atom in the (4) – 12 KJ
ground state be zero, then it’s potential 132. A leed bullet at 27 0 C , speed V kmph
energy in the 1st excited state will be penetrate’s in to solid object and melts. If
(1) 10.2 Ev 50% of K.E is used to heat it, the value of υ
in kmph. (melting point of lead 600k, latent
(2) 20.4 eV
heat of fusion = 25 × 103 J / kg , sp. ht =
(3) 23.8 eV
(4) 27.2 eV 125 Jkg −1k −1
129. In a hypothetica Bohr’s hydrozen atom, the (1) 1000
(2) 1200
mass of the electron is doubled. The energy
(3) 1800
E0 and radius r0 of the first orbit will be ( a0 (4) 3600
is the Bohr radius) 133. 300 gm of water of 250 C is added to 100
(1) E0 = −27.2eV , r0 = a0 gm of ice at 00 C . The final temperature of
the mixture is
a0
(2) E0 = −13.6eV , r0 = −5 0
2 (1) C
3
a0
(3) E0 = −27.2eV , r0 = −5 0
2 (2) C
2
(4) E0 = −13.6eV , r0 = a0
(3) −50 C
130. Which of the following is not correct about (4) 00 C
nuclear forces 134. 50 gm of water and an equal volume of
(1) They are short range attractive forces alcohol (sp. gravity = 0.8) are placed one
(2) They are independent of charge after another in a calorimeter of water
equivalent 2gm. They are found to cool from
(3) They change to repulsion at very close
distance
600 C to 550 C in 2min, and 1min
respertively. The sp. ht of Alcolol in ___
(4) They obey inverse square law
cal gm −1e −1
131. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes
(1) 0.1
a transition from A to B along a path AB as (2) 0.3
shown in fig. The change in internal energy (3) 0.4
of during transition is (4) 0.6
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135. Two spheres of the same material have radii 139. The compound that will react most readily
1 m and 4 m and temperature 4000K and with NBS/Sunlight has the formula
2000K respectively. The ratio of the energy
radiated per second by the first sphere to that (1) C3 H 6
by the second is (2) C2 H 2
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 16 : 1 (3) C4 H10
(3) 4 : 1 (4) C2 H 4
(4) 1 : 9
136. With respect to the conformers of ethane, 140. In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in
which of the following statements is true ? accordance with the Markovnikov’s rule to
(1) Bond angle changes but bond length give a product 1 – chloro – 1 –
remains same
methylcyclohexane. The possible alkene is
(2) Both bond angle and bond length
change CH2
(3) Both bond angle and bond length
remain same
(4) Bond angle remains same but bond
length changes
(1) (A) only
137. Which one is the correct order of acidity?
(1) CH ≡ CH > CH 3 − C ≡ CH > CH 2 = CH 2 > CH 3 − CH 3 CH3
(2) CH ≡ CH > CH 2 = CH 2 > CH 3 − C ≡ CH > CH 3 − CH 3

(3)
CH 3 − CH 3 > CH 2 = CH 2 > CH 3 − C ≡ CH > CH ≡ CH

(4) CH 2 = CH 2 > CH 3 − CH = CH 2 > CH 3 − C ≡ CH > CH ≡ CH (B)

(2) only
138. Predict the correct intermediate and product
(3) Both 1 and 2
in the following reaction:
H 3C − C ≡ CH →
H 2O , H 2 SO4
HgSO4
Intermediate → Pr oduct C H3
( A) (B)

(1)
A : H 3C − C = CH 2 B : H 3C − C = CH 2
| |
OH SO4 (4)

141. CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 2 Br 

→ Z . Z isC HONa
A : H 3C − C − CH 3 B : H 3C − C ≡ CH 2

||
(2) O (1) CH 3 ( CH 2 )3 OCH 2CH 3
A : H 3C − C = CH 2 B : H 3C − C − CH 3
(3)
| || (2) ( CH 3 )2 CHOCH 2CH 3
OH O
A; CH 3 − C = CH 2 ; B; CH 3 − C − CH 3 (3) ( CH 3 )2 CHCH 2CH = CH 2
SO4
(4) O
( CH 3 )2 CH − CH − CH = CH 2
|
(4) CH 3
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142. The correct stability order for the following 148. Which of the following order(s) is correct
is NH2 NH2
>
(1) (Basic nature)
(2) HCOOH > CH 3COOH (Acidic nature)

(I) (III) > Pyrole

(II) (IV)
(1) III > II > I > IV (3) N (Basic nature)
(2) II > I > III > IV (4) All the above
(3) III > IV > II > I 149. Which of the following fluoro – compounds
(4) II > III > IV > I is most likely to behave as a Lewis base ?
143. In nitration mixture, HNO3 acts like
(1) BF3
(1) Strong Brondsted Lowry Base
(2) Strong Brondsted Lowry acid (2) PF3
(3) Weak Brosted Lowry acid (3) CF4
(4) Weak Brondsted Lowry Base (4) SiF4
144. Some meta – directing substituents in
COCH 3
aromatic substitution are given. Which one is
most deactivating ?

HCN
→A
(1) −COOH H O+
3
150. In a set of reactions
(2) − NO2
(3) −C ≡ N A is.
(4) − SO3 H OH
CH 3CN 
a ) H 2 / Ni
b ) HNO2
→ A 
Cu /573 K
→B
145. C COOH
B cannot react with
(1) 2, 4 DNP CH3
(1)
(2) Schiff’s reagent
COOH
(3) Na2CO3 / I 2
(4) Lucas reagent CH2 C CH3
−10
146. If K sp of MOH is 1×10 , then pH of its
OH
aqueous solution will be (2)
(1) 3 OH
(2) 6
(3) 9 CH2 C CH3
(4) 12
CN
147. What weight of NaOH is to be dissolved in a (3)
litre solution so that pH becomes equal to 12 CN
(1) 20 grams
(2) 10 grams C CH3
(3) 0.12 grams
OH
(4) 0.4 grams (4)
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151. Which of the following compouns is most Me
⊕
acidic ? CH
(1) p – nitrophenol Me
(2) is more stable than
(2) p – Chlorophenol ⊕

(3) p – cresol CH 3 − CH 2 − C H 2
(4) p – methoxy phenol ⊕
(3) CH 2 = CH − C H 2 is more stable than
Br ⊕
CH 3 − CH 2 − C H 2

C2 H 5ONa
C2 H5OH
→
(4) tert – butyl carbanion is less stable than
152. Major product is
ethyl carbanion
obtained by
156. Which of the following isomeric pentanes
(1) elimination reaction
can yield four different monochlorinated
(2) electrophilic addition reaction
products (only structural) upon free radical
(3) nucleophilic addition reaction
chlorination?
(4) nucleophilic substitution reaction
(1) 2-methyl butane
153. Reagent for the given reaction will be
(2) 2 – methylpentane
CHO (3) 2,2 – dimethyl propane
OH
Reagent
 → (4) n –pentane
157. Which one fo the following is most reactive
towards SN1 reactions
(1) hot acidic KMnO4
Cl
(2) CrO3 , H +
(3) CrO3 , pyridine, CH 2Cl2
(4) dil. Alkaline KMnO4 (1)
154. The reagents used to estimate oxygen of (2) CH 2 = CH − Cl
organic compound are (3) CH 2 = CH − CH 2 − Cl
(1) Na2O2 , BaCl2
(4) CH 3CH 2Cl
(2) Na2O2 , I 2 158. In Cannizero’s reaction between HCHO and
(3) HNO3 , I 2O5 C6H5CHO, the reactant undergoing oxidation
(4) Coke, I2O5 is
155. Identify the incorrect statement (1) C6H5CHO
⊕ (2) Both HCHO and C6H5CHO
(1) CH 3+ is more stable than CH 3 − C H 2
(3) HCHO
(4) Neither HCHO nor C6H5CHO
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159. All the following belong to same (4) Plantation of some plants like pinus
homologous series except helps in controlling photochemical
CH3 smog
162. Which of the following is a secondary
pollutant ?

(1) OH (1) CO2

CH2OH (2) NO2

(3) SO2
(4) PAN
(2)
163. The process of ‘eutrophication’ is due to
CH3
(1) Increase in concentration of insecticide
OH
in water
(2) Increase in concentration of fluoride ion
(3)
in water
CH3
(3) The reduction in concentration of the
dissolved oxygen in water due to phosphate
pollution in water
(4) Attack of younger leaves of a plant by

(4) OH peroxy acetyl nitrate

160. Which of the following gases is not a green 164. Excess sulphate in drinking water can cause
house gas ? (1) Methemanobinemia
(1) CO (2) Kidney damage
(2) O3
(3) Liver damge
(3) CH 4 (4) Laxative effect
(4) H 2O vapour 165. 1 litre of a sample of water requires ‘x’mg of
161. Which of the following statements about K2Cr2O7 (mol.weight = 294) in the presence
photochemical smog is wrong ?
of H2SO4 for the oxidation of dissolved
(1) It has high concentration of oxidizing
organic matter in it. If the C.O.D. of the
agents
water sample is 3.2ppm, the value of ‘x’ is:
(2) It has low concentration of oxidizing
agent (1) 4.9
(3) It can be controlled by controlling the (2) 19.6
release of NO2 , hydrocarbons, ozone, (3) 147
etc (4) 294
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166. Green chemistry deals with (1) Fries rearrangement
(1) chemical reactions in plants (2) Hoffmann’s rearrangement
(2) improvement of non biodegradable (3) Meerwin rearrangement
substnaces (4) Keto-enol rearrangement
(3) reduce use of harmful hazardous 170. For the reaction :
substances H 2( g ) + CO2( g ) ⇌ CO( g ) + H 2O( g ) , if the
(4) improvement in industrial products
167. Consider the reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g)
initial concentration of [ H 2 ] = [CO2 ] . X

moles of hydrogen is consumed at

2NH3(g) The equilibrium constant
equilibrium, the correct expression of K C is
of the above reaction is KP. If pure ammonia is
left to dissociate, the partial pressure of x2
(1)
(1 − x )
2
ammonia at equilibrium is given by (Assume
that PNH3 Ptotal at equilibrium)
(1 + x )
2

(2)
(1 − x )
3 1 2
2 2 2
3 K P P
(1)
4 x2
(3)
(2 + x)
3 1 2
3 2 K P2 P 2
(2)
16 x2
(4)
1 − x2
1
K P2 P 2
(3) 171. For the reaction
16
1 PCl3( g ) + Cl2( g ) ⇌ PCl5( g ) at 2500 C , the
K P2 P 2
(4)
4 value of K C is 26 lit mole−1 , then the value
168. The reaction, 2 SO2( g ) + O2( g ) ⇌ 2 SO3( g ) of K P on the same temperature will be
∆H = − x kj / mol . Then formation of SO3 (1) 0.61 atm −1
can be increased by (2) 0.37 atm −1
(1) by increasing temperature
(3) 0.83 atm −1
(2) by decreasing pressure
(4) 0.46 atm −1
(3) by adding inert gas at constant volume
172. Hyper conjugation is not observed in
(4) by absorbing SO3 with H 2 SO4
+

169. (1) CH 3 C H 2
−
OH OH (2) CH 3 C H 2
COCH 3
Phenol →
Acetic anhydride
+
•
An. AlCl3
(3) CH 3 C H 2
+
COCH 3
(4) ( CH 3 )2 C H
Reaction is called
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173. Glycine exists as the zwitter ion 177. Which among the following acts as buffer
+
solution?
N H 3 − CH 2 − COO − . Its conjugate base is
(1) HCN + NaCN
(1)
NH 2 − CH 2 − COOH
(2) HCN + NH4Cl
−
(2)
NH 2 − CH 2 − COO (3) NaCl + HCl
+ (4) NaOH + Na2SO4
(3) N H 3 − CH 2 − COOH
178. Equal volumes of two solutions pH values 9
(4) NH 3 − CH 2 − COOH
and 12 are mixed together, then the pH of
174. HCN is a weak acid (K a = 6.2 × 10−10 ) , resulting solutions is:

NH 4OH is a weak base (1) 7

(2) 10.5
(K b = 1.8 × 10−5 ) . A 1M solution of
(3) 11.6990
NH 4CN would be (4) 4
(1) strongly acidic 179. Which among the following is incorrect
(2) weakly acidic statement ?
(3) neutral
(1) Dissociation constant of water at 250 C
(4) weakly basic
18 × 10−14
175. For the reaction; is
1000
A ↔ B , Kc = 2
(2) FeSO4(aq) undergoes cationic
B ↔ C , Kc = 6
hydrolysis
C ↔ D , Kc = 4,
(3) 200mL 0.5M HCN + 150mL 0.5M
then Kc for the reaction A ↔ D is:
(1) 12 NaOH will acts as acidic buffer

(2) 48 solution

(3) 96 (4) pH of 10-8M HCl(aq) is 8

(4) 0.66 180. Ozone is assumed to be formed between
176. Which of the following salt solution will give ' O2 ' and ' O ' . Here ‘O’ acts as
highest pH
(1) Lewis acid
(1) KCl (2) Lewis base
(2) NaCl
(3) Lowry’s acid
(3) Na2CO3
(4) Lowry’s base
(4) CuSO4

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20
SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI, CHANDIGARH
SR AIIMS S60 & NEET MPL NEET CUMULATIVE TEST – 5 KEY Date : 01-04-19

BIOLOGY
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 4 5) 4 6) 4 7) 1 8) 4 9) 1 10) 4
11) 3 12) 1 13) 4 14) 4 15) 3 16) 4 17) 1 18) 1 19) 3 20) 4
21) 2 22) 2 23) 2 24) 2 25) 2 26) 4 27) 3 28) 2 29) 1 30) 1
31) 2 32) 3 33) 1 34) 4 35) 4 36) 2 37) 3 38) 2 39) 4 40) 3
41) 4 42) 4 43) 2 44) 1 45) 3 46) 4 47) 4 48) 4 49) 1 50) 1
51) 4 52) 3 53) 3 54) 1 55) 3 56) 4 57) 4 58) 4 59) 2 60) 4
61) 3 62) 4 63) 4 64) 3 65) 2 66) 4 67) 1 68) 3 69) 1 70) 2
71) 1 72) 2 73) 2 74) 2 75) 3 76) 2 77) 1 78) 2 79) 3 80) 4
81) 1 82) 4 83) 1 84) 2 85) 3 86) 2 87) 1 88) 3 89) 3 90) 2

PHYSICS
91) 1 92) 3 93) 4 94) 1 95) 3 96) 2 97) 2 98) 2 99) 1 100) 2
101) 2 102) 1 103) 3 104) 3 105) 1 106) 2 107) 1 108) 3 109) 4 110) 3
111) 3 112) 4 113) 1 114) 1 115) 4 116) 3 117) 1 118) 1 119) 4 120) 1
121) 3 122) 3 123) 2 124) 1 125) 2 126) 2 127) 2 128) 2 129) 3 130) 4
131) 2 132) 3 133) 4 134) 4 135) 1

CHEMISTRY
136) 3 137) 1 138) 3 139) 1 140) 3 141) 1 142) 2 143) 4 144) 2 145) 4

146) 3 147) 4 148) 4 149) 2 150) 1 151) 1 152) 1 153) 3 154) 4 155) 1

156) 1 157) 3 158) 3 159) 2 160) 1 161) 2 162) 4 163) 3 164) 4 165) 2

166) 3 167) 2 168) 4 169) 1 170) 1 171) 1 172) 2 173) 2 174) 4 175) 2

176) 3 177) 1 178) 3 179) 4 180) 1

SOLUTIONS cos t f N 1
PHYSICS = f ; A = B =
N fB N A 2
a  a 
2
a
91. MV = IW ; MV =  I am + M    ω P2 3
2 2   m   94. = KT ⇒ P = 3mKT
2m 2
a  Ma 2 Ma 2  4a 3V h h
MV =  +  ω ;v = ω ; =ω λ= ⇒λ=
2  6 2  3 4a P 3mKT
92. I = N hf; Cost = Nf g sin θ
95. a= β = 1, θ = 300
1+β
T /2
g sin 300 g I  − cos wt 
a= = = 0
1+1 4 T  w  0
2
nh h v2  h  1 I
96. mυ r = = ; ace = =  = 0 [ cos π − cos 0]
2π 2π r  2π mr  r WT
ML2 2 −I I 10
97.
L 1
mg = Iw2 ; mgL = w = 0 [ −2 ] = 0 =
2 2 3 2π π π
107. VB + I B RB − 10 = VE
3g
= w ; v = Lw = 3gL = 3g VBE − 10 = − I B RB
L
[∵L = 1m] −
 0.5 − 10 
 = RB ; β=
IC
101.  IB  IB
I
L
m I B = C = 5 × 10−5 ; RB = 190kΩ
β
110. I = Ig + MR 2
m
1 5
ML2 ML2 2 I= MR 2 + MR 2 = MR 2
L I= + = ML2 4 4
3 3 3 T T
111. n A = nB ; 1 − = 1− 2
102. R = Nλ T1 T
RA N AλA N 0 / 2b TB 1 9 3 T T2
= = . = . = = T = T1T2
RB N B λB N 0 / 22 TA 16 3 16 T1 T
113. a m A a A + mB a B m A a A + mB a B a A + a B
= = =
103. 92 U
238
→ n1α + n2 β +82 pb 206 CM
m A + mB 2m 2

→ n1 2 He 4 + n2 ( ρ −01 ) + 82
Pb 206 90
a A + aB 2a sin
( aCM ) = = 2 = a = g sin 45 = g
92 = 2n1 − n2 + 82 4n1 = 238 − 206 2 2 2 2 2
10 = 2n1 − n2 − − (1) 4n1 = 32 V 
1−1
1
1/4
273
114. T2 = T1  1  = 273   = K
10 = 2 ( 8 ) − n2 n1 = 8  34 
V2  3
v2 = 6
0
50
ρ = 6.4 × 106  273 
104. t2 =  − 273  C = −1820 C
100  3 
12.8 × 106
115. w = Area = ( 5 × 10 )( 4 × 10 ) = +1000 J
N= = 4 × 10
17 1 −3 5
200 × 106 × 16 × 10 −20 2

V0 V0 I n I N I C RL P Adrabatic
105. voltage gain = = = = I N RL 116. 1 
PV isothermal
→ 2V1  →16V1P1
Vi IC IC 2
P
  ( 2v ) = P (16v )
Y 1 Y
 IC  2
∵ I n = 
 Vi  P 1 
5/3
P
 3 =P ; P =
1 1
a1 I n a1 0.02 2 1 2 22  64
= ; = = ;a = G
a In a 0.03 3 3
∫ xdm = ∫ xλ dx = ∫ ( Ax + Bx )dx
2
T /2 T 117. xCM =
∫ I 0 sin htdt + ∫ 0 ∫ dm λ dx ∫ ( A + Bx ) dx
106. I A0 = 0 T /2 10

∫
118. Q = msdt = 1 ∫ ( 3t + t )dt = 912.5 cal
2
T
5
g 2π =
5
× 103 [ −8] = −20 KJ
119. mg = mAw ; =w=
2

A T 2
1 1 2 
T = 2π
A
= 0.1256sec 132. mν  = ( ms∆T + mL )
9 2  2 
120. gH = gd ν = 4 ( S ∆T + L ) = 20 × 25 m / s
 2H   h 18
g 1 −  = g 1 −  ν = 20 × 25 × kmph
 R   R 5
2H h H 1 133. Heat required to melt complete Ice
1− = 1− ; = = 100 × 80 = 8000 cal
R R h 2
Heat available from water = 300 × 1 × 25
121. α = Aω 2 ……. (1) = 7500 cal
β = Aω ……. (2) H required > Havalible
α 2 πβ
=ω; T= Total Ice does not melt into water
β α ∴ TR = 00 C
Q ∆Q mw sw ∆T + ms∆T 2
122. = 134. =
t R ms s A∆T + ms∆T 1
∆Q
∵ Q / t = costant; = constant 50 (1) + 2
R = 2; 26 = v ( 0.8 ) s + 2
100 − TC TC − 70 v ( 0.8 ) s + 2
= ; TC = 90 C
0

l / k2A l / kA 24 = 50 ( 0.8 ) s ; 0.6 = s

123. V = ( 2π ×C ) S 135. E ∝ r 2 T 4
4 3  π R2  2
E1  r1   T1 
4
1  4000  4 16
π R = 2π xC   =    =   = =1
3  2  E2  r2   T2  16  2000  16
124. L.C = 1M.S.D – 1V.S.D CHEMISTRY
125. In this harmonic is B sin at. 136. all conformers have same bond angle and bong
∴ Amplitude = B length
I 2mR 2 137. Conceptional
126. T = 2π ; 2 = 2π 138.
mgh mqR
CH3 −C ≡CH H
 →CH3 −C =CH2
2O/H2SO4

1 |
∴ R = = 0.5 OH
2
1
127. L.C = = 0.01mm ,
100 CH3 −C−CH3
Linear scale reading = 6 mm(pitch) ||
Circular scale reading = O
n ( L.C ) = 40 ( 0.01) = 0.4mm 139. conceptional 140. conceptional

Reading = 6+04 = 6.4 mm 141.

CH3 −CH2 −CH =CH2 H

HBr

2O2
→CHC
3 H2CH2CH2Br
27.2
128. P.E = − + 27.2 = 20.4eV
22 C2HO
5 Na

P.E = −27.2eV + 27.2 = 0

1 CH3 ( CH2 )3 OC2H5
129. T .Eα m ; rα
m 142. conceptional
131. ∆U = nCv dT = n
5R
[TB − TA ] 143. H 2 SO4 + HONO2 → HSO4− + NO2+ + H 2O
2 (addition KHSO4 backward reaction takes place
5 R 12 × 103 20 × 103  due to common ion effect
=n −
2  nR nR  144. conceptional 145. conceptional
146. K sp = s 2 = 10−10 s = 10 −5 = OH − ( ) As 1 mole potassiumdichromate in acidic
medium gives 48 grams of oxygen , then 3.2 ×
P OH = 5 P H = 14 − 5 = 9 10-3 grams of oxygen was given by 19.6 mg of
147. As pH = 12 , then pOH = 14-12 = 2, [OH]- = potassium dichromate.
10pOH = 10-2 294 grams of K2Cr2O7 will give ----------- 48
Weight of NaOH per litre = Molarity × grams of oxygen
mol.weight = 10-2 × 40 = 0.4grams ?------------------
148. conceptional 3.2mg of oxygen
149. PF3 has one lone pair of e − = (294 × 3.2) / 48 = 19.6mg
150. 166. conceptional
COCH3 167. As PNH3 << Ptotal , , Ptotal = PN2 + PH2 ,
PN2 = ( ¼)×P and PH2 =( ¾ )×P
3 OOH  →CHC
SOCl2
CHC 3 OCl
AlCl3 Kp = PNH32 / PN2 × P H23 = PNH32 / P / 4 ×
(3P/4)3

On simplification of above , we get, PNH3 =

CH3 3 1
CN
3 K P2
2 2
P
HOOC C CN CH3 C OH
16
H2O 168. ∆ng = −1 conceptional
169. fries rearrangement
151. Conceptional 170.
152. Willamson’s synthesis H 2 + CO2 = CO + H 2O
153. Mild oxidizing agent 1 1 O O
CH3 −C ≡ N C 
6H5MgBr
→CH3 −C = NMgBr
| x x x x
C6H5 1− x 1− x x x
+
HO
3
1 1 1 1
2
x
CH3 −C = O
Kc =
(1 − x )
2
|
C6H5
K P = KC ( RT )
∆n
154. 171. 172. conceptional
155. conceptional 173. direct
1 2 3 4 5 6
C− C− C− C− C− C 174. K a < Kb
| 175. When two or three equations are added, then
156. C
7 the equilibrium constant of resultant equation
157. conceptional 158. conceptional obtained is equal to the product of Kc of
159. equations added 176. Salt of strong base and
CH2 weak acid
Br
177. The mixture of week acid and its salt with a
Br
strong base will acts as buffer solution
178. When equal volumes of two bases are mixed
OH together , then pH of resulting solution =
Higher pH value – 0.3
Br When equal volumes of two acids are mixed
160. CO is not green house gas together , then pH of resulting solution =
161. Comceptiona 162.direct 163. direct smaller pH value + 0.3
165. C.O.D. = 3.2ppm means 3.2 grams of oxygen If equal volumes of one acid and another base are
is required to oxidize organic matter present in mixed together , then the pH of resulting
1000 litres of water sample. Then 1 litre solution = 7 , if sum of their pH values is 14
sample requires 3.2 × 10-3 grams ( or 3.2mg) 179. Conceptual.
of oxygen. 180. Oxygen atom has sextet