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CBT

1. Physiological scoring systems and early warning scoring systems help nursing staff accurately predict patient dependency and provide an early accurate predictor of deterioration by identifying physiological criteria that alert nursing staff to patients at risk. 2. It is important for patients to be effectively fasted prior to surgery to reduce the risks of vomiting, reflux, inhalation of gastric contents, vomiting, and chest infections. 3. The professional responsibilities of a qualified registered nurse in medicines management include making sure patients understand the medicines they are taking, the reasons for taking them, and potential side effects.

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0% found this document useful (1 vote)
869 views

CBT

1. Physiological scoring systems and early warning scoring systems help nursing staff accurately predict patient dependency and provide an early accurate predictor of deterioration by identifying physiological criteria that alert nursing staff to patients at risk. 2. It is important for patients to be effectively fasted prior to surgery to reduce the risks of vomiting, reflux, inhalation of gastric contents, vomiting, and chest infections. 3. The professional responsibilities of a qualified registered nurse in medicines management include making sure patients understand the medicines they are taking, the reasons for taking them, and potential side effects.

Uploaded by

asharoopsing3
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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CBT

1. What would be the indication to use physiological scoring


systems or early warning scoring systems in clinical practice?
A. It helps the nursing staff to accurately predict the patient dependency on a
shift-by-shift basis.
B. The system provides an early accurate predictor of deterioration by
identifying physiological criteria that alert the nursing staff to a patient at risk.
C. These scoring systems are carried out as part of the national audit so we
know how sick patients are in the United Kingdom.
D. It enables nurses to call for assistance from the outreach team or the
doctors via an electronic communication system.

2. Why is it important that the patients are effectively fasted prior


to surgery?
A. Reduce the risk of vomiting.
B. Reduce the rik of reflux and inhalation of gastric contents.
C. Prevent vomiting and chest infections.
D. Prevent the patient gagging.

3. Choose the professional responsibilities of the qualified


registered nurse in medicines management from the below.
A. Making sure that the group of patients that they are caring for receive their
medications on time.
If they are not competent to administer intravenous medications, they should
ask a competent nursing colleague to do so on their behalf.
B.Th. safe handling and administration of all medicines to patients in their care.
This includes making sure that the patients understad the medicines they are
taking, the reason they are taking them and the likely side effects.
C. Making sure they knew the names, actions, doses and side effects of all the
medications used in their area of clinical practice.
D. To liaise closely with pharmacy so that their knowledge is kept up to date.
4. Which of the following is the correct answer for a nurse to take
observations for an adult patient in an acute hospital setting?
A. When they are admitted or initially assessed.
A plan should be clearly documented which identifies, which observations
should be taken and how frequently subsequent observations should be done.
B. When they are admitted and then once daily unless they deteriorate.
C. As indicated by the doctor.
D. Temperature should be taken daily, respirations at night, pulse and blood
pressure 4 hourly.

5. You are taking care of a patient with head injury and monitoring
neurological observations every 15 minutes. Upon assessment you
found that his pupils are unequal, and one is not reacting to light.
Besides the patient is not rousable.
What would be your actions?
A. Continue with your neurological assessment, calculate your Glasgow
Coma Scale, GCS and document clearly.
B. This is a medical emergency. Basic airway, breathing and circulation
should be attended to urgently and senior help should be sought.
C. Refer to the neurology team.
D. Break down the patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale as follows:
Best verbal response V= XX
Best motor response M=XX and
Eye Opening response E=XX

Use this when you hand over.


6.Choose the accurate indication for you to set out information
about a patient to the police officer?
A. If he has a rank of an inspector.
B. If safety of the public is at risk.
C. If the patient may cause imminent and serious harm to themselves.
D. If you receive a request from a police officer.
7.You are looking after a patient who has just undergone an
abdominal surgery 4 hours ago. His regular analgesics were
administered 2 hours ago and he is still complaining of pain.
What would be your immediate and most appropriate nursing
action?
A. Call the doctor.
B. Assist patient in a comfortable position.
C. Give another dose.
D. Look for a healing pad.

8.You are checking the stock balance of controlled drugs record


along with your colleague in your clinical area and observed the
discrepancy.
What would be your immediate response as a newly qualified
registered nurse?
A. Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs
aren’t found, contact the pharmacy to resolve the issue. You will also
complete an incident form.
B. Document the discrepancy on an incident form and contact the senior
pharmacist on duty.
C. Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drug
aren’t found the police need to be informed.
D. Check the cupboard, record book and order book and informed the
registered nurse or person in charge of the clinical area. If the missing
drugs are not found then inform the most senior nurse on duty. You will
also complete an incident report form.

9.Choose the correct indication for the purpose of ‘The NMC Code’
from the below?
A. It outlines specific tasks or clinical procedures.
B. It ascertains in detail a nurse’s or midwife’s clinical expertise.
C. It is a tool for educating prospective nurses and midwives.
D. It will provide guidance to the nurses.
10. The signs and symptoms of shock during early stage?
( stage 1- 3)
A. Hypoxemia
B. Tachycardia and hyperventilation.
C. Hypotension
D. Acidosis

11.Why is anti-embolic stockings are considered as an effective


means of reducing the potential of developing a deep vein
thrombosis?
A. They promote arterial blood flow.
B. They promote venous blood flow.
C. They reduce the risk of postoperative swelling
D. They promote lymphatic fluid flow, and drainage.

12. What is the function of a dressing for effective wound healing?


A. High humidity, insulation, gaseous exchange, absorbent.
B. Anaerobic, impermeable, conformable, low humidity
C. Insulation, low humidity, sterile, high adherence.
D. Absorbent, low adherence, anaerobic, high humidity.

13. In your opinion what are the principles of gaining informed


consent prior to a planned surgery?
A. Gaining permission for an imminent procedure by providing information in
medical terms ensuring a patient knows the potential risks and intended
benefits.
B. Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it by providing
information, both verbally and with written material, relating to the planned
procedure, for them to read on the day of the planned surgery.
C. Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by informing
them about the procedure and highlighting risks if the procedure is not carried
out.
D. Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by providing
information in understandable terms prior to surgery, allowing time for
answering questions, and inviting voluntary participation.

14. What is the sign of dehydration in an elderly patient?


A. Diminished skin turgor
B. Hypertension
C. Anxiety attacks.
D.Pyrexia

15. What is the indication of the proper use of Zimmer frame?


A. Using a 1 point gait.
B. Using a 2 point gait.
C. Using a 3 point gait.
D. Using a 4 point gait.

16. You have observed an IV catheter insertion site with erythema,


swelling, pain and warm.
What would be the best nursing action?
A. Start antibiotics.
B. Re-site cannula
C. Call doctor.
D. Elevate.

17.In your opinion when would you initiate a wound care plan?
A. On initial assessment of every wound.
B. During pre-assessment and up on admission and after surgery.
C. During wound infection, dehiscence or evisceration.
D. During discharge.
18. You were walking on one of the bays in your clinical area and
observed one of your colleagues wrongly using a hoist transferring
a patient. What would be your response as a nurse?
A. Let them continue with their work as you are not in charge of that bay.
B. Report the event to the unit manager.
C. Call the manual handling specialist nurse for training.
D. Inform the relatives of the mistake.

19. You have discharged a patient who is diagnosed with COPD and
was sent home with an oxygen prescription at 2 litres per minute.
Upon your visit, you have observed that he is dyspnoeic, anxious
and panicking. What would be your most immediate nursing action
to relieve dyspnoea?
A. Call the emergency department or the ambulance.
B. Increase o2 rate.
C. Tell the patient to calm down in a loud voice.
D. Calmly instruct the patient to do deep breathing.

20.In your opinion which among the below is not a component of


end of life care?
A. Resuscitation and defibrillation.
B. Reduce pain.
C. Maintain dignity.
D. Provide family support.

21. You have observed an IV catheter insertion site with erythema,


swelling, pain and warmth?
What VIP score would you document on his notes?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
22.Choose the correct method of removing a negative pressure
dressing?
A. Remove pressure then detach dressing gently.
B. Get TVN nurse to remove dressing.
C. Remove in a quick fashion.
D. Remove the pressure gently.

23. Choose the best nursing intervention for a patient who had just
undergone lumbar laminectomy?
A. Move the body as a unit.
B. Move one body part at a time.
C. Move the head first and the body last
D. Never move the patient at all.

24. What is one of the severe complications during the 24 hours


post liver biopsy?
A. Pain at insertion site.
B. Nausea and vomiting.
C. Back pain,
D. Bleeding

25. In your understanding which of the following senses is to fade


last when a person dies?
A. Hearing
B. Smelling
C. Seeing
D. Speaking
26. Which one of the following is a non-communicable disease?
A. Flu
B. Diabetes
C. Aids
D. Ebola

27. An organism that causes disease is called


A. Insect
B. Pathogen
C. Vector
D. Host

28. Which microbe causes tetanus?


A. Algae
B. Fungi
C. Bacteria
D. Virus

29. HIV stands for-


A. Human Immuno Deficiency Vaccine
B. Human Immunity Virus
C. Human Intestinal Virus
D. Human Immuno Deficiency Virus

30. Name the disease that causes the weakeing of bones in children?
A. Measles
B. Chickenpox
C. Rickets
D. Mumps

31. On which day is world AIDS day observed every year?


A. December 1
B. March 24
C. October
D. June 5

32. Beri-Bei is caused due to the deficiency of which vitamin?


A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B4

33. Which mosquitoes transmits malaria to humans?


A. Female Anopheles
B. Male Anopheles
C. Male Culiseta
D. Female Aedes

34. Which part of human body is affected by TB?


A. Brain
B. Kidney
C. Lungs
D. Spine
35. ELISA Test detects which disease?
A. Polio
B. AIDS
C. Cancer
D. TB

36.Which pollutant is responsible for minimata disease?


A. Arsenic
B. Lead
C. Mercury
D. Nickel

37. Which eye disease is never cured?


A. Colour Blindness
B. Myopia
C. Hypermetropia
D. All of the above

38. Which part of the body is affected by Malaria?


A. Kidney
B. Heart
C. Liver
D. Lungs

39. ‘Athelete’s Foot’ is a disease caused by


A. Nematode
B. Fungus
C. Bacteria
D. Protozoa
40. Which of the following parts of human body is affected by
Pyorrhea?
A. Small Intestine
B. Large Intestine
C. Teeth and Gums
D. Human mouth

41. Deficiency of which Hormone causes diabetes?


A. Estrogen
B. Insulin
C. Adrenaline
D. Thyroxine

42. For prevention of which disease, BCG vaccine is given


A. Hepatitis B
B. Diphteria
C. Tuberculosis (TB)
D. Polio

43. Infection with H5N1 virus leads to which one of the following diseases?
A. Bird Flu
B. HIV
C. Swine Flu
D. Focul Cholera

44. Which one of the following is caused due to the deficiency of Vitamin A?
A. Scurvy
B. Beri-Beri
C. Night Blindness
D. Anaemia
45. Which one of the below diseases is caused due to the deficiency
of iodine?
A. Scurvy
B. Goitre
C. Rickets
D. Marasmus

46. Study of Cancer is called?


A. Oncology
B. Hematology
C. Pulmonology
D. Nephrology

47. Which part of the eye is affected by cataract disease?


A. Conjunctiva
B. Retina
C. Optic Nerve
D. Lens

48. Universal Donor Blood group is :


A. AB Positive
B. AB Negative
C. O positive
D. O Negative

49. A team leader has received further complaints about a member


of their team’s attitude towards the patients.
Previous informal discussions do not seem to have helped; how do
they proceed?
A. Follow the Performance Management Policy within the organisation and
arrange a formal meeting to provide support and set targets with review
dates.
B. Speak to their colleagues to see what they would do about the issue.
C. Initiate a formal investigation and complete an incident form.
D. Have another chat and advise that they need to improve or consider a
change of job.

50.What does a nurse say to advocate the profession?


A. Nursing is a job for life.
B. Nursing is a Professional career.
C. Nursing is a not a Profession.
D. Nursing is a job.

51. What is a nurse’s responsibility when faced with an unfamiliar


clinical procedure for the first time?
A. To identify their scope of competence to the ward manager
B. To refuse to undertake the procedure.
C. To undertake the procedure.

52. The care Quality Commission is responsible for which of the


following:
A. Regulation and inspection service for services.
B. A group responsible for allocation of funding.
C. A patient led advisory board.
D. A group that investigates malpractice.

53. A patient in the acute admission unit has experienced a stroke


and is unable to verbalise their wishes. What can the nurse do?
A. Try to work out the patient wants from their body language.
B. Wait for the speech and language therapist to assess and provide a solution.
C. Ask a colleague to try and work out what the patient wants.
D. Provide appropriate supportive communication equipment.

54. A nurse receives a needle stick injury whilst taking a blood


sample fro a patient. What is the initial action to be taken?
A. Inform the doctor and request a blood sample.
B. Encourage bleeding and wash with soap under warm water.
C. Scrub the wound with soap whilst under running water.

55. Why is it essential for a nurse to have undertaken prior training


for a major incident?
A. To ensure that they understand the role of the nurse and other
professionals to safety work within the incidental plan.
B. To ensure that they are media trained to deal with reporters quickly and
efficiently.
C. To ensure that they can work on their own initiative and without direction.
D. In order they can undertake any role delegated to them regardless of
competence.
56. Discharge problems occur when patients are?
A. Waiting for investigations.
B. Waiting for carers.
C. Waiting for assessments.
D. Waiting for medications.

57. A serious incident in a health care that has resulted in harm and
considered preventable is defined in national policy as?
A. Catastrophic mistake.
B. Never event.
C. A cause of concern.
D. Preventable failure.

58. Some antibiotics interact negatively with oral chemotherapy.


What is this called?
A. Contradiction
B. Contra-indication
C. Controversy
D. Contravention

59. What is the name of the process when a clinical error has been
made and this is disclosed to the patient or family?
A. Whistle-blowing
B. Full disclosure
C. Escalation of concern.
D. Duty of candour

60. What does a nurse observe when assessing respiration of a


patient with breathing difficulties?
A. Abilities to speak in full sentences, ease of breathing rate, pattern, evidence
of cyanosis.
B. Ease of breathing, rate, pattern and evidence of cyanosis.
C. Rate, pattern and evidence of cyanosis.

61. A patient has been given the diagnosis of respiratory disease


requiring treatment. Which is checked before they leave nursing
care?
A. Where they collect their prescription.
B. Geological location
C. Inhaler technique
D. Who they hung with.

62. When does a nurse NOT use a glucometer to monitor patient’s


blood sugar?
A. When the nurse prefers urinalysis.
B. If the patient is in an acute setting and venous blood samples can be utilised.
C. When the patient prefers urinalysis.
D. When the peripheral cannulation is impaired.

63. What actions does a nurse take if they are unable to get a
prescribed drug as it is not available in the ward stock?
A. Refer the issue to the senior nurse in charge a they are responsible for
managing the acute unit.
B. Record the reason for the omission on the prescription, inform the
prescriber and the senior nurse.
C. Ring the doctor and inform them that the medication has not been given as
they prescribed the drug.
D. Inform the pharmacist that the medication has not been given as they
prescribed the drug.

64. Patient asking for LAMA, the medical team has concern about
the mental capacity of the patient, what decision should be made?
A. Call the police.
B. Call the security.
C. Let the patient go.
D. Encourage the patient to wait, by telling the need for treatment.
65. Which of the following drugs will require 2 nurses to check during
preparation and administration?
A. Oral antibiotics.
B. Glycerine suppositories.
C. Morphine Tablet.
D. Oxygen.

66. Which bag do you place infected linen?


A. Water-soluble alginate polythene bag before being placed in the
appropriate linen bag, no more than ¾ full.
B. Orange waste bag, before being placed in the appropriate linen bag, no
more than ¾ full.
C. White linen bag, after sorting, no more than ¾ Full.

67. A nurse is having trouble with doing care plans. Her team
members are already noticing this problem and are worried of the
consequences this may bring to the quality of nursing care
delivered.
The problem is already brought to the attention of the nurse. The
nurse should:
A. Accept her weakness and take this challenge as an opportunity to
improve her skills by requesting lectures from her manager.
B. Ignore the criticism as this is a cause of a team issue.
C. Continue delivering care as this will not affect the quality of care you are
rendering your patient.
68.Which of the following nursing actions demonstrate safe
medicine management principles?
A. Asking a nursing assistant to give oral laxatives to an elderly patient.
B. Allowing a final placement nursing student giving paracetamol tablet
unsupervised.
C. Checking an IV antibiotic with a pharmacist.
D. Checking a controlled drug with a medical student.

69. If someone collapses while queueing of falling in line, what


must be assessed first?
A. Call a code
B. Check for responsiveness
C. Check if the scene is safe.

70. What is the purpose of clamping a chest tube?


A. To prevent further lung collapse and entry of air.
B. To minimise the feeling of pain on drain insertion.
C. To aid the drain into the correct position.
D. To minimise risk of infection.

71. A patient suffered from CVA and is now affected with


dysphagia. What should not be an indication to this type of
patient?
A. Place the patient in a sitting position/ upright during and after eating.
B. Water or clear liquids should be given.
C. Instruct the patient to use a straw to drink liquids.
D. Review the patient’s ability to swallow and note the extent of facial
paralysis.

72. In a community hospital, an elderly man approaches you and


tells you that his neighbour has been stealing his money, saying
“sometimes I give him money to buy groceries, but he didn’t buy
groceries and he kept the money” what is your best course of
action for this?
A. Raise a safeguarding alert.
B. Just listen but don’t do anything.
C. Ignore the old man, he is just having delusions.
D. Refer the old man to the community clergy who is giving him spiritual
support.

73. When will you consider giving out information of a patient to a


police officer?
A. If he has a rank of an inspector.
B. If safety of the public is at risk.
C. In the absence of your in-charge

74. What could be the reason why you instruct your patient to
retain on its original container and discard nitroglycerine meds
after 8 weeks?
A. Removing from its darkened container exposes the medicine to the light and
its potency will decrease after 8 weeks.
B. It will have a greater concentration after 8 weeks.

75. You have assigned a new student to an experienced health care


assistant to gain some knowledge in delivering patient care. The
student nurse tells you that the HCA has pushed the client back to
the chair when she was trying to stand up. What is your action?
A. Suspend HCA immediately.
B. Intervene on spot and raise concern immediately to the manager on duty.
C. Ask the client later on what has happened.
D. Ignore the student as she is new and does not have any experience.

76. A newly admitted client refusing to handover his own


medications, and this includes controlled drugs. What is your
action?
A. You have to take it any way and document it.
B. Call the doctor and inform about the situation.
C. Document this refusal as these medications are his property and should not
do anything without his consent.
D. Refuse the admission as this is against the policy.

77. What is the best way to prevent a patient who is receiving an


enteral feed from aspirating?
A. Lie patient flat.
B. Sit patient at least at a 45degrees angle.
C. Tell patient to lie on his side.
D. Check the oxygen saturations.

78. Which check do you need to carry out before setting up an


enteral feed via a nasogastric tube?
A. That when flushed with red juice the red juice can be seen when the tube is
aspirated
B. That air cannot be heard rushing into the lungs by doing the “ Whoosh Test”
C. That the pH of gastric aspirate is < 5.5, and the measurement on the time
insertion.
D. That pH of gastric aspirate is >6.0, and the measurement on the NG tube is
the same length as the time insertion.

79. What is the best site of buttock injection.


A. Ventrogluteal site.
B. Dorsogluteal site.
C. Rectus Femorus.
D. Greater Trochanter area.

80. You are mentoring a 3rd Year student nurse , the student
request that she want to assist a procedure with tissue viability
nurse, how can you deal with this situation.
A. Tell her it is not possible.
B. Tell her it is possible if you provide direct supervision.
C. Call to the college and ask whether it is possible for a 3 rd student to assist
the procedure.
D. Allow her as this is the part of her learning.

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