PRACTICE TEST 36

PART I. LISTENING (50 pts)

Question 1: Listen to a radio program about Biomimicry, the science of copying nature in order to create
new technologies and fill in the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A
NUMBER taken from the recording for each answer in the spaces provided. (20 pts)
Biomimicry imitates nature’s structures, processes and (1) _________ to create new ideas. Velcro was
invented in (2) _________. It was developed after its inventor observed the sticking qualities of one
particular plant’s (3) _________.
Wood has the beneficial feature of being able to (4) ______ The synthetic ‘wood’ created for the post office
will not (5) ________ according to surrounding environmental conditions. The Namibian Fog Basking
beetle uses its ability to (6)________ in order to live in harsh conditions.
A (7) _______ on the beetle’s shell repels water and aids the formation of large droplets. The Sahara Forest
project utilized this concept in the design of a (8) ____________.
The ‘Able Project’ uses (9) _______from the composting process as an input to the fish farm.
The extinction of one species of (10) ________has prevented scientists from finding a cure for excess
stomach acid.
Question 2: For questions 1-5, listen to a conversation between Martin, Amanda and the professor. Write
NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (10pts)
(Cambridge Ielts Practice tests)
1. When is the deadline for handing in dissertations?
__________________________________________________________________________
2. What should the word count exclude?
__________________________________________________________________________
3. Who must approve the dissertation topic?
__________________________________________________________________________
4. How long should the research take?
__________________________________________________________________________
5. What will the students probably spend the second half of April doing?
__________________________________________________________________________
Question 3. Listen to the recording and decide whether the information in each sentence is true (T) or
false (F) or not given (NG). (10 pts)
1. Helen Perry was an expert on theatre history in the middle of the nineteenth century.
2. Her friends encouraged her a lot to become an actress.
3. Learning the lines stopped her from becoming an incredibly successful actress.
4. She was one of the first stars to have a perfume named in her honor.
5. Helen had only a few honorary university degrees.
(Certificate in Advanced English 3)
Question 4: You will hear an interview with a psychologist about friendships. Choose the answer (A, B, C
or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10 pts)
(Succeed in Cambridge English Advanced CAE)
1. According to the presenter, ______
A. we have to adjust our friendships as our lives change.
B. new books are being written to teach people how to manage friendships.
C. it’s almost impossible to keep childhood friends for life.
D. the most important friends are childhood friends.
2. Barbara warns that foul-weather friends,______
A. never want you to be happy. B. engineer bad situations so that they can feel superior.
C. have their life perfectly organized. D. can spoil the times when you are feeling good about life.
3. The danger of a trophy friend is that,_______
A. he or she will inhibit your social life. B. you may develop unrealistic expectations.
C. he or she will push you to be a higher achiever.D. he or she will expect you to become more popular.
4. According to Barbara, a good friend _____
A. probably needs to be someone that you see very often.
B. tends to ask for your help slightly more than you would like but you tolerate it.
C. doesn’t expend too much of your time or energy.
D. never puts you in a serious mood.
5. When making new friends_____
A. try to be as funny as you can.
B. don’t mention serious issues before you have got to know them well.
C. be sensitive to their need for escape.
D. spend as much time with them as you can.

PART II. LEXICO -GRAMMAR (30 pts)

I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) to fill in each blank (20 pts)
1. She ______ agreed to go with him to the football match although she had no interest in the game at all.
A. apologetically B. grudgingly C. shamefacedly D. discreetly
2. No decision has been taken about the building of the new airport. The authorities are still ______.
A. beating about the bush B. comparing apples and oranges
C. sitting on the fence D. holding all the aces
3. Tom’s normally very efficient but he’s been making a lot of mistakes_________.
A. of late B. for now C. in a while D. shortly
4. I know it’s difficult but you’ll just have to _________and bear it.
A. laugh B. smile C. grin D. chuckle
5. I didn’t want to make a decision _________, so I said I’d like to think about it.
A. in one go B. there and then C. at a stroke D. on and off
6. We are not in a _________hurry so let’s have another coffee.
A. dashing B. racing C. rushing D. tearing
7. She’s a bit down in the _________at the moment – her husband has just lost his job.
A. world B. dumps C. heart D. bottom
8. “How did you know that he was lying?” – “It was just a_________ feeling.”
A. faint B. gut C. slight D. vain
9.The new company had been ___with one problem after another and looked as if it were about to go under.
A. glorified B. tainted C. fraught D. bewildered
10. Mike decided that election to the local council would provide a ________to a career in national politics.
A. milestone B. springboard C. highway D. turning point
11. As a poet, I think she _________comparison with the greatest this century.
A. stands B. makes C. leads D. matches
12. We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is _________the law.
A. beyond B. over C. above D. onto
13. When disaster_________, organizations such as Oxfam quickly provide help.
A. comes B. approaches C. arrives D. strikes
14. The number of people traveling by air has been growing_________.
A.by leaps and bounds B. from time to time
C. slow but sure D. by hook and crook
15. Drug-taking is a crime which society simply cannot _________.
A. approve B. acknowledge C. consent D. condone
16. I was scared _________when I looked down from the top of the cliff.
A. tight B. stiff C. hard D. solid
17. The whereabouts of the exiled president remains a_________ guarded secret.
A. highly B. closely C. deeply D. entirely
18. We should all _________when advertisers attempt to use unfair practices.
A. make a stand B. make a comeback C. make amends D. make a deal
19. The company cannot accept _____ for injuries resulting from improper use of rental equipment
A. validity B. liability C. compensation D. privilege
20. Jack never cheats or tricks anybody when he plays. He always goes by the _________.
A. book B. instructions C. principles D. method
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10 pts)
1. This place is an _______exclusion______ zone, which is restricted to people who work in the
Parliamentary House only. (EXCLUDE)
2. He was ______benighted_______by the darkness and got lost in the forest. (NIGHT)
3. He was _______endowed______with intelligence but he tried hard to make up for it. (ENDOW)
4. Any _______malicious______gimmicks are forbidden in this competition. (MALICE)
5. Surely all women must have_____maternal_____ instinct or the human race would die out. (MOTHER)
6. Putting up with noise coming from the neighbor is probably the most ___untoward_____thing. (TO)
7. The leader was taken into custody, which brought an end to the ______insurgency_______. (SURGE)
8. The spectacular view of Sa Pa has ______enraptured_______many visitors. (RAPTURE)
9. Andy has received such_______unwonted______ fame after he tried himself in the school’s play.
(WONT)
10. When we arrived at the hotel, we were amazed at the __incomparable___ hospitality of the staff.
(COMPARE)

PART III. READING (60 pts)

PART 1. Choose the best word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the
following passage. (10 points)
It is not easy to have a rational discussion with people about the nature of their language. They feel
that the language belongs to them, and they are therefore entitled to hold (1)______and dried opinions about
it. And when opinions differ, emotions can run high. Arguments can as easily (2)______from minor points of
usage as from major educational policies. In English, the origin of many popular misconceptions (3)______
in the work of the linguists of the eighteenth century who first attempted to codify English grammar.
Unfortunately, they worked on the (4)______ that English grammar is derived from Latin grammar and that
the rules of the latter necessarily (5)______ the former. It was this fundamental misunderstanding that
resulted in the absurd but (6)______ ‘never-end-a-sentence-with-a-preposition’ type of rules that many
people still cling to. These days, many people complain that the Internet is the source of much unforgivable
distortion of English, and that the ease and speed of email communication (7)______a lazy approach to
writing. This is probably a (8)______ view: perhaps we should be more broad-minded and view such
changes as potential enrichment rather than corruption of the language. Perhaps those who argue it is only
the latter are guilty of a stick-in-the-mud mentality which is often not (9)______ to their own language. The
American linguist Leonard Bloomfield tells the story of a doctor who was quite firm in his view that the
Amerindian language Chippewa had only a few hundred words. When Bloomfield attempted to dispute the
point, the doctor had no thoughts of backing (10)______. He simply turned away and refused to listen.
1. A. high B. cut C. hung D. blow
2. A. root B. branch C. stem D. bud
3. A. stays B. stands C. sits D. lies
4. A. premise B. basis C. stipulation D. law
5. A. ascertain B. discover C. verify D. determine
6. A. time-consuming B. time-honored C. small time D. high time
7. A. bears B. constructs C. engenders D. invents
8. A. short-sighted B. short-cut C. short-handed D. short-tempered
9. A. related B. accustomed C. supposed D. confined
10. A. up B. down C. away D. in

PART 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in
each space. (10 points)
Technology's continual surge forward is well evidenced in television, advertising and multimedia, so
it's not difficult to deduce that the general public's knowledge of computers must develop at the same (1)
______pace/speed___. The level of computer (2) ___knowledge/expertise______ required to succeed in life
is hardly limited to emailing, surfing the web and having a basic knowledge of Microsoft Word. A seasoned
employee is likely to be well versed in the ins and (3) ___outs______ of computer software and hardware, as
least to some extent. In fact, former UK culture minister Ed Vaizey recently postulated that knowing how a
computer works would be on a (4) ___par______ with a knowledge of the arts and humanities. He also
suggested that knowing a bit about computer coding would acquaint people with the digital world in a way
that would allow them to become an active participant in its evolutionary (5) ____phase_____.
Acquiring above-average skills in computer usage isn't even (6) ___all______ that's required, because as
computer systems and programs become obsolete, users have to learn new sets of keystrokes, menu options
and interfacing. It (7) _____goes____ far beyond basic office management and data processing; medical
equipment is often tethered (8) _____to____ a computer system which aids doctors and nurses in
interpreting vital data. While there may still be some fields of employment in which computers take a back
(9) _____seat____ to the work (think fishing), there isn't a job, field or profession that wouldn’t benefit from
a digital revolution. (10) ____come_____ to think of it, even the smallest of fishing boats are likely to be
fitted with GPS devices!

Part 3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 5. (10 points)
LIFTOFF oversteer AND REENTRY
During any space mission, whether it is manned or unmanned, the two most critical periods are liftoff
and reentry. This fact is proven by the fact that every loss of life in the history of space exploration has
occurred during a liftoff or reentry maneuver. Liftoff and reentry not only represent the times of greatest
danger during a space mission, they also present the greatest science and engineering challenges to the
planners and organizers of a space mission.
The major challenge during liftoff is to achieve a great enough velocity to break free of the Earth’s
gravitational pull and escape the atmosphere. The velocity required varies depending on the type of the
mission in question. For example, most orbital missions, like those to the International Space Station or the
launching of a satellite, do not require the spacecraft to complete escape Earth’s gravitational pull. These
spacecraft simply need enough velocity to achieve a certain distance from Earth and then to maintain their
orbit. The speed necessary for this is dependent on the type of orbit desired, but is generally around 24,000
kilometers per hour. Completely escaping the Earth’s gravity, as is needed for interplanetary missions, is a
far more difficult undertaking, requiring a speed of 40,200 kilometers per hour.
To achieve such high speeds, huge rockets must be built. This, however, presents another problem:
the larger the rocket, the larger the total mass that must be lifted into space. This means more fuel is needed,
adding more weight. For this reason, as spacecraft grow larger it becomes increasingly more difficult to lift
them into space. For example, NASA’s space shuttle weighs 78,000 kg, but the rocket required to lift it into
orbit weighs nearly 2,000,000 kg. This means that rockets are actually highly inefficient, since much of the
rocket’s energy is expended lifting the rocket into space, rather than simply the spacecraft that one wants to
place in space.
To help offset this inefficiency, launch sites for rockets are planned carefully. With the exception of a
few launch sites used for highly specialized purposes, nearly all launch sites are placed as near the equator as
possible. Since the equator is the Earth’s widest point, it is also the point where the Earth is spinning the
fastest. Spacecraft can use this fact to receive a little extra “push” from the Earth, reducing the work their
rockets must do during liftoff.
Once a spacecraft has made it safely into space, the next major challenge is for it to return to Earth in
one piece. While the major challenge during liftoff is gaining speed, the three major challenges of reentry are
reducing speed, controlling the angle of reentry, and reducing heat. To initiate reentry, spacecraft perform a
maneuver called a deorbital burn. Simply put, this means they fire their engines in reverse to slow the
spacecraft down. Once the spacecraft has passed below the critical orbital velocity, gravity will once again
take over and begin to pull the spacecraft back towards Earth.
The amount of speed lost during the deorbital burn will determine the angle of reentry, and this angle
is of critical importance. If the reentry angle is too low, the spacecraft will skip off the Earth atmosphere,
much as pebble skips across the water when thrown into a pond. If the angle is too high, the spacecraft will
generate too much heat and burn up during reentry. Even with a correct angle of reentry, spacecraft generate
enormous amounts of heat. As they enter the Earth’s atmosphere, the friction between the spacecraft and the
surrounding air serves to slow the spacecraft, but it also can heat the outer surfaces of the spacecraft to
5,500C. To minimize this effect, spacecraft are designed to create the smallest amount of friction possible
during reentry. Special heat-resistant materials are also used on reentry surfaces of the spacecraft. In this
way, the heat of reentry can be kept to manageable levels.

1. The word “maneuver” in the paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________.

A. accident B. period C. procedure D. control
2. According to the information in paragraph 2, interplanetary missions are more difficult because
_________.
A. they require more fuel B. they must complete reentry maneuvers twice
C. they use larger spacecraft D. they must attain higher escape velocities
3. The word “this” in the passage refers to_________.
A. escaping the Earth’s gravity B. maintaining an orbit around the Earth
C. launching a spacecraft into space D. reaching the International Space Station
4. Why does the author mention NASA’s space shuttle?
A. To suggest that it is the most inefficient spacecraft in the history of spaceflight
B. To better illustrate the disparity between the size of a spacecraft and the size of the rocket
needed to launch it
C. To show that even with modern technology, spacecraft are still very heavy
D. To better illustrate exactly how difficult it is to construct a spacecraft as large as a rocket
5. The word “inefficient” in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
A. technical B. massive C. uneconomic D. ineffective
6. According to paragraph 4, what advantage do spacecraft gain when being launched near the equator?
A. They are able to gain speed from the rotational spin of the Earth.
B. They are able to achieve specialized orbits that are not possible in other locations.
C. They can shorten their flight time during liftoff.
D. They can take advantage of the better weather conditions prevalent at the equator.
7. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 5 as problems during reentry EXCEPT _________.
A. achieving the correct reentry angle B. reducing speed
C. initiating a deorbital burn D. reducing heat
8. The word “initiate” in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
A. control B. accelerate C. alter D. start
9. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 6 about reentry angles?
A. They must be controlled by very precise computers.
B. Failures to achieve the proper angle are responsible for most space disasters.
C. Higher reentry angles result in higher levels of air friction.
D. Reentry angles determine the amount of fuel during reentry.
10. The author explains the effect of an improper reentry angle in paragraph 6 by__________.
A. likening it to a pebble skipping off a pond
B. explaining the scientific causes of friction
C. discussing the maximum temperature a spacecraft can reduce
D. explaining how higher speeds create greater levels of heat
Part 4. The reading passage has seven paragraphs, A–G. For questions 1-5, choose the correct heading
for paragraphs A–G from the list below.
List of headings
I. key people that made a difference
II. An alternative to fingerprinting
III. The significance of prints
IV. How to identify a criminal
V. Patterns in the making
VI. An uncertain past
VII. Family connections

1. Paragraph A _____iii_______
2. Paragraph B ______v______
3. Paragraph C _______vi_____
4. Paragraph D ______i______
5. Paragraph E ______iv______
A. To detectives, the answers lie at the end of our fingers. Fingerprinting offers an accurate and infallible
means of personal identification. The ability to identify a person from a mere fingerprint is a powerful tool
in the fight against crime. It is the most commonly used forensic evidence, often outperforming other
methods of identification. These days, older methods of ink fingerprinting, which could take weeks, have
given way to newer, faster techniques like fingerprint laser scanning, but the principles stay the same. No
matter which way you collect fingerprint evidence, every single person’s print is unique. So, what makes our
fingerprints different from our neighbors?
B. A good place to start is to understand what fingerprints are and how they are created. A fingerprint is
the arrangement of skin ridges and furrows on the tips of the fingers. This ridged skin develops fully during
fetal development, as the skin cells grow in the mother’s womb. These ridges are arranged into patterns and
remain the same throughout the course of a person’s life. Other visible human characteristics, like weight
and height, change over time whereas fingerprints do not. The reason why ever fingerprint is unique is that
when a baby’s genes combine with environmental influences, such as temperature, it affects the way the
ridges on the skin grow. It makes the ridges develop at different rates, buckling and bending into patterns.
As a result, no two people end up having the same fingerprints. Even identical twins possess dissimilar
fingerprints.
C. It is not easy to map the journey of how the unique quality of the fingerprint came to be discovered.
The moment in history it happened is not entirely clear. However, the use of fingerprinting can be traced
back to some ancient civilizations, such as Babylon and China, where thumbprints were pressed onto clay
tablets to confirm business transactions. Whether people at this time actually realized the full extent of how
fingerprints were important for identification purposes is another matter altogether. One cannot be sure if the
act was seen as a means to confirm identity or a symbolic gesture to blind a contract, where giving your
fingerprint was like giving your word.
D. Despite this uncertainty, there are those who made a significant contribution towards the analysis of
fingerprinting. History tells us that a 14 th century Persian doctor made an early statement that no two
fingerprints are alike. Later, in the 17th century, Italian physician Marcello Malpighi studied the
distinguishing shapes of loops and spirals in fingerprints. In his honor, the medical world later named a layer
of skin after him. It was, however, an employee for the East India Company, William Herschel, who came to
see the true potential of fingerprinting. He took fingerprints from the local people as a form of signature for
contracts, in order to avoid fraud. His fascination with fingerprints propelled him to study them for the next
twenty years. He developed the theory that fingerprints were unique to an individual and did not change at
all over a lifetime. In 1880 Henry Faulds suggested that fingerprints could be used to identify convicted
criminals. He wrote to Charles Darwin for advice, and the idea was referred on to Darwin’s cousin, Sir
Francis Galton. Galton eventually published an in-depth study of fingerprint science in 1892.
E. Although the fact that each person has a totally unique fingerprint pattern had been well documented
and accepted for a long time, this knowledge was not exploited for criminal identification until the early 20 th
century. In the past, branding, tattooing and maiming had been used to mark the criminal for what he was. In
some countries, thieves would have their hands cut off. France branded criminals with the fleur-de-lis
symbol. The Romans tattooed mercenary soldiers to stop them from becoming deserters.
F. For many years, police agencies in the Western world were reluctant to use fingerprinting, much
preferring the popular method of the time, the Bertillon System, where dimensions of certain body parts
were recorded to identify a criminal. The turning point was in 1903 when a prisoner by the name of Will
West was admitted into Leavenworth Federal Penitentiary. Amazingly, Will had almost the same Bertillon
measurements as another prisoner residing at the very same prison, whose name happened to be William
West. It was the only their fingerprints that could tell them apart. From that point on, fingerprinting became
the standard for criminal identification.
G. Fingerprinting was useful in identifying people with a history of crime and who were listed on a
database. However, in situations where the perpetrator was not on the database and a crime had no
witnesses, the system fell short. Fingerprint chemistry is a new technology that can work alongside
traditional fingerprinting to find clues than ever before. From organic compounds left behind on a print, a
scientist can tell if the person is a child, an adult, a mature person or a smoker, and much more. It seems,
after all these years, fingers continue to point the way.
For questions 6-10, decide whether the following statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG).
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 points)

6. Fingerprinting is the only effective method for identifying criminals. F

7. The ridges and patterns that make up fingerprints develop before birth. T
8. Malpighi conducted his studies in Italy. NG
9. Roman soldiers were tattooed to prevent them from committing violent crimes. F
10. Fingerprint chemistry can identify if a fingerprint belongs to an elderly person. T
Part 5. For questions 1-10, answer by choosing from the sections of the article (A-E). Some of choices
may be required more than once.

A. Today’s proliferating travel journalists and guidebook writers seem to be portraying the world in an
increasingly uniform manner. Superficial responses and preconceived images alternate with easily
digestible bites of cultural and historical information and with ever-larger doses of ephemeral and
often misleading practical information. It is thus with enormous relief that one comes across
guidebooks written not only with passion and profound knowledge, but also from an unusual and at
times commercially foolhardy perspective.
B. The crisply designed City Secrets, Rome, is one guidebook with a difference. Unashamedly
proclaiming itself to be a ‘highly subjective’ work, it brings together the personal choices of what to
see and experience in Rome of numerous artists who are regular associates of the city’s American
Academy. Under its influence, you might well be encouraged, say, to undertake such an unusual
activity as a “Tosca stroll”. The main problems are that the entries are often too short to be
enlightening, and are sometimes backed up, unnecessarily, by lists of largely unfamiliar names
endorsing the recommendations.
C. With glorious disregard for current fashions in guidebook production, the recently founded Signal
Books Ltd of Oxford has begun bringing out a series of discursive, virtually unillustrated, and highly
literate city guides. This extremely promising series, entitled Cities of the Imagination, concentrates
as much on the image of a city as formed by artists and writers as it does on surviving monuments.
The series was launched by Jason Wilson’s masterly Buenos Aires, which, with its exceptional
wealth of literary references, does full justice to a city whose fictional identity is far more potent than
the stereotypical tourist vision. Wilson’s book inspires the reader to escape into the little-explored
world of Argentinian literature. Later volumes in the series, if the previews are anything to go by,
will be equally rich in their treatment of a place’s artistic associations, which, in guidebooks in
general, have tended to fare far less well than literary ones.
D. Among the very few existing guides devoted solely to retracing an artist’s footsteps is Ellen
Williams’ slight but very readable Picasso’s Paris. She outlines here four walks which have been
intelligently devised so as to give the reader a sense of the artist’s personal and artistic development,
beginning with his impoverished days in Montmartre and ending with his later years when he spent
time in the area of St-Germain-des-Pres. Another good publisher offering titles with an artistic slant
is Ellipsis, which has deservedly gained widespread respect for its architectural guides. These guides,
almost small enough to be hidden in the palm of one’s hand, and yet filled with stunning
photographs, have dealt until now mainly with recent architecture. However, they are rapidly
branching out into other areas, and are soon to include a guide to Italian gardens, and an ‘opinioned’
survey of New York’s museums and art galleries.

E. Appropriately, at a time when publishers are looking ever more favorably on quirky books, three
guides have recently appeared celebrating British quirkiness. One of these books is the enjoyable
Eccentric Britain, which directs travelers to follies, strange local customs, places associated with
famous eccentrics, and obscure museums. The monumental work Follies, Grottes and Garden
Buildings by Headley and Meulenkamp is a model to which all guidebooks should aspire. Scholarly
yet consistently entertaining, it is also clearly laid out and abundantly illustrated, making it the ideal
companion for any cultural tour of Britain. But or sheer eccentricity, there is nothing to beat the
Dutch author Pieter Boogaart the essence of Britain, and is transformed by his pen into a route as
exotic as the Golden Road to Samarkand. It is a book replete with witticisms, personal asides, and
cultural and historical gems.

Which section mentions a book or books?

concentrating on some unusual aspects of life in one country? 1E
which will cover a particular aspect that has often been neglected? 2C
being worthy of their reputation? 3D
Which would benefit from more detail in some parts and less detail in others? 4B
giving equal importance to both culture and places in a particular city? 5C
by writers who are showing less and less variety in their style? 6A
combining an academic approach with attractive design? 7E
containing factual details which may be unreliable? 8A
proudly acknowledging its biased approach? 9B
which will depart from the publisher’s normal theme? 10D

PART VI: WRITING (60pts)

Part 1. Read the following extract and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should be
about 100 - 110 words long. You MUST NOT copy the original. (15 points)
Delays in detection and recall of bad meat happen because the industry is too weakly regulated," Schlosser
says. "By the time the USDA discovers tainted meat, it's already being distributed," he wrote in The Nation
on September 16. Since then, the agency has announced that it will begin random tests at all meatpacking
plants in the U.S., and will have the power to close facilities where contamination is found.

What hasn't changed? The USDA still lacks the power to order the recall of contaminated meat. "Every other
defective product can be ordered off the market. Mandatory recall is important because under the current
voluntary standard the company decides how much meat needs to be recalled and doesn't have to reveal
where the meat has been shipped," Schlosser says. He advises that we write our congressional
representatives in support of the SAFER Meat, Poultry, and Food Act and the Meat and Poultry Pathogen
Reduction Act, which would give the agency power to enforce limits on contaminants, order recalls and
impose fines. The meat industry says it cannot produce bacteria-free meat, so it's up to us to cook it until it's
safely well done (160° F) to kill E. coli. But the tainted food should not be getting to us in the first place.

The industrial food system produces force-fed, disease-prone animals and people. An estimated 120 million
Americans are overweight or obese. McDonald's announced in September, 2002 that it would switch to
heart-healthier polyunsaturated vegetable oil, but that won't make the fries any less fattening. It's just a gloss
on the system in which, through their massive purchasing and marketing power, giant companies control
how our food is produced, from seed to feed to processing. As Wilhelm says of the big meat processors who
buy from megafarms, "They say that we consumers want this pork and they need it to come from one place
to be efficient. "It's time we consumers made it clear that industrial farms, fast foods and their costly
"efficiencies" are not what we want.

Excerpted from Mindy Pennybacker, "Why Fast Food Costs Too Much”

Part 2 (15 points). Graph description

The charts below show the reasons why people travel to work by bicycle or by car. Summarize the
information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.
(30%)
(30%)
(15%)
(13%)
(12%)

(40%)
(21%)
(14%)
(14%)

(11%)

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Part 3. Essay writing. Write about 300-350 words (30 points)

Some people believe that it is a good idea for parents to put constant pressure on their kids to do well,
others think otherwise, claiming that such pressure from parents is detrimental to their children’s
development. Discuss both views and give your opinion.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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THE END