DISPUTE RESOLUTION AND CRISIS/INCIDENT MANAGEMENT

1. Means a voluntary dispute resolution process in which one or more arbitrators,

appointed in accordance with the agreement of the parties or these Rules, resolve a
dispute by rendering an award.
A. Arbitration
B. Arbitration Agreement
C. Authenticate
D. Award

2. Is a natural disagreement arising between two or more people.

A. Conflict
B. War
C. Misunderstanding
D. Crisis

3. Is a period of disorganization, period of upset during which people attempts at

arriving at solution of problems.
A. Conflict
B. War
C. Misunderstanding
D. Crisis

4. Delivery to target is done through Vehicle Bomb-booby traps with attached devices,
Laid Charges-bomb plates, Projected bombs-launched from riffles by a mortal device,
Postal/mail bombs
A. Bombing
B. Arson
C. Hijacking
D. Assassination

5. The oldest but the most commonly used terrorist tactic where targets are often police
or military officials, or political features and they always claim responsibility of
assassination.
A. Bombing
B. Arson
C. Hijacking
D. Assassination

6. This is used to destroy or to disrupt public utilities, political HQs and industrial
facilities.
A. Bombing
B. Arson
C. Hijacking
D. Assassination

1
7. This is a well-planned, well thought-out, properly rehearsed and precisely executed
operation. The terrorist has time on his side and will spend considerable time
preparing for an operation. Terrorist have an advantage in that they can choose the
time and place of operation.
A. Ambush
B. Kidnapping
C. Hostage Taking
D. Assassination

8. What does ADR actually stand for

A. Alternative dispute resolution
B. Additional dispute resolution
C. Alternative despite resolution
D. Alternative desperate resolution

9. A point of view that focuses on inequality and conflict between people of different
racial and ethnic categories.
A. Feminist theory:
B. Critical theory
C. Queer theory:
D. Race-Conflict Approach

10. An approach that is critical of modernism, with a mistrust of grand theories and
ideologies.
A. Feminist theory
B. Postmodern theory
C. Queer theory:
D. Race-Conflict Approach

11. A growing body of research findings that challenges the heterosexual bias in
Western society.
A. Feminist theory:
B. Critical theory
C. Queer theory:
D. Race-Conflict Approach

12. An approach that recognizes women’s political, social, and economic equality to
men.
A. Feminist theory:
B. Critical theory
C. Queer theory:
D. Race-Conflict Approach

13. means any mediation other than institutional or court-annexed

A. Ad hoc Mediation
B. Institutional Mediation
C. Court-Annexed Mediation
D. Court-Referred Mediation

2
14. means mediation ordered by a court to be conducted in accordance with the
agreement of the parties when an action is prematurely commenced in violation of
such agreement.
A. Ad hoc Mediation
B. Institutional Mediation
C. Court-Annexed Mediation
D. Court-Referred Mediation

15. Mediation means any mediation process conducted under the auspices of the court
and in accordance with Supreme Court approved guidelines, after such court has
acquired jurisdiction of the dispute.
A. Ad hoc Mediation
B. Institutional Mediation
C. Court-Annexed Mediation
D. Court-Referred Mediation

16. means any mediation administered by, and conducted under the rules of, a mediation
institution.
A. Ad hoc Mediation
B. Institutional Mediation
C. Court-Annexed Mediation
D. Court-Referred Mediation

17. A person who conducts mediation.

A. Mediator
B. Judge
C. Court
D. PNP

18. A person, other than a party or mediator, who participates in a mediation proceeding
as a witness, resource person or expert.
A. Non-Party Participant
B. Mediation Party
C. Certified Mediator
D. Mediation Party

19. Means a person who participates in a mediation and whose consent is necessary to
resolve the dispute.
A. Non-Party Participant
B. Mediation Party
C. Certified Mediator
D. Mediation Party

20. Mediator means a mediator certified by the Office for ADR as having successfully
completed its regular professional training program.
A. Non-Party Participant
B. Mediation Party

3
C. Certified Mediator
D. Mediation Party

21. Is a strategy where one party gives in to the wishes or demands of another. They’re
being cooperative but not assertive.
A. Accommodating
B. Collaborating
C. Competing
D. Avoiding

22. Is when people just ignore or withdraw from the conflict. They choose this method
when the discomfort of confrontation exceeds the potential reward of resolution of the
conflict.
A. Accommodating
B. Collaborating
C. Competing
D. Avoiding

23. Is used by people who go into a conflict planning to win. They’re assertive and not
cooperative.
A. Accommodating
B. Collaborating
C. Competing
D. Avoiding

24. Is the method used when people are both assertive and cooperative. A group may
learn to allow each participant to make a contribution with the possibility of
co-creating a shared solution that everyone can support.
A. Accommodating
B. Collaborating
C. Competing
D. Avoiding

25. Where participants are partially assertive and cooperative. The concept is that
everyone gives up a little bit of what they want, and no one gets everything they want.
A. Compromising
B. Competing
C. Avoiding
D. Discussing

26. Which crisis involves experiencing a lack of interest, confidence, and social skills to
relate?
A. Physical Crisis
B. Economics Crisis
C. Emotional Crisis
D. Social Crisis

4
27. When an individual is affected by negative feelings such as emotional disturbances
and fear, which type of crisis is being experienced?
A. Physical Crisis
B. Economics Crisis
C. Emotional Crisis
D. Social Crisis

28. In which crisis do individuals experience a deprivation of basic necessities like food
and material things?
A. Physical Crisis
B. Economics Crisis
C. Emotional Crisis
D. Social Crisis

29. Which crisis is associated with health problems or bodily sickness/sufferings?

A. Physical Crisis
B. Economics Crisis
C. Emotional Crisis
D. Social Crisis

30. Which phase involves advance planning, organization, and coordination in response
to an anticipated future crisis occurrence?
A. Reactive Phase
B. Prediction
C. Pro-active Phase
D. Prevention

31. What is the first stage of anticipating future crisis occurrences?

A. Preparation
B. Update-Intelligence
C. Prediction
D. Prevention

32. This pro-active phase considers counter measures as part of the total system of
operation.
A. Preparation
B. Update-Intelligence
C. Prediction
D. Prevention

33. What does the pro-active phase of Prevention consider?

A. Equipment personnel of the organization
B. Counter measures as part of the total system of operation
C. Organizing training and preparation
D. Advance planning for crisis management

5
34. Which pro-active phase involves organizing training and equipping personnel of the
organization?
A. Preparation
B. Update-Intelligence
C. Prediction
D. Prevention

35. What is the purpose of the Update-Intelligence phase?

A. Advance planning for crisis management
B. Organizing training and equipment personnel
C. Collection of information for contingency planning
D. Conducting operations in a secure and effective manner

36. What does the term "Events" refer to in the context of crisis management?
A. Organizing training and equipping personnel
B. Counter measures as part of the total system of operation
C. Advance planning for crisis management
D. Incidents that have passed, facilitating analysis

37. Which counterintelligence measure focuses on preventing threat groups from

learning the unit's plans and methods of operations?
A. Physical Security
B. Operation Security
C. Personal Security
D. Negotiation

38. It considers that all personnel are susceptible to terrorist attack so the is a need for
securing them.
A. Physical Security
B. Operation Security
C. Personal Security
D. Negotiation

39. What does "Physical Security" encompass in crisis management?

A. Negotiation with threat groups
B. Protection of information, material, and people
C. Securing all personnel susceptible to terrorist attacks
D. Protection of information, material, and people

6
40. The stage taken by the Initial Action Unit, which is composed of police and military
personnel immediately organized into a team to initially respond to take the incident
and begin the containment effort.
A. The Initial Action
B. The Action Stage
C. The Post Action Stage
D. Talking Stage

41. The stage that starts as soon as the tactical, support unit and the negotiation unit
arrived and are deployed. The OSC discusses the incident with his commander and
staff and decides on the plans and actions to be taken.
A. The Initial Action
B. The Action Stage
C. The Post Action Stage
D. Talking Stage

42. This stage begins as soon as the perpetrator surrendered, captured or neutralized.
A. The Initial Action
B. The Action Stage
C. The Post Action Stage
D. Talking Stage

43. The emotion of the hostage taker is exceedingly in its highest peak, his
rationalization and proper thinking is low, He may be extremely aggressive in his
reaction to any perceived threat.
A. Alarm Stage
B. Crisis Stage
C. Accommodation Stage
D. Resolution Stage

44. This is the stage when the hostage taker is being stressed out or fatigued of the
situation. He is seemingly losing interest of the situation and lost most of his
bargaining points.
A. Alarm Stage
B. Crisis Stage
C. Accommodation Stage
D. Resolution Stage

45. This is distinguished by boredom, and with moments of terror. Though is considered
as the longest yet is the most tranquil. In the crisis stage, and even in the alarm stage,
hostages are considering escape options but in the accommodation stage, their
initiative and planning are narrowed since captors has increased control over them.
A. Alarm Stage
B. Crisis Stage
C. Accommodation Stage
D. Resolution Stage

7
46. In this stage, when negotiation attempts are being initiated by the crisis negotiator.
Outrageous demands and unpredictable emotion are marked or commonly noted in
the hostage taker.
A. Alarm Stage
B. Crisis Stage
C. Accommodation Stage
D. Resolution Stage

47. In this approach, negotiation is viewed in terms of an exchange or distribution of

resources.
A. Bargaining Negotiation Approach
B. Expressive Negotiation Approach
C. Communication-based negotiation approach
D. Considerable Screening approach

48. This approach is mainly focused on the emotional state of the hostage taker as a
powerful tool to resolving of crisis situation.
A. Bargaining Negotiation Approach
B. Expressive Negotiation Approach
C. Communication-based negotiation approach
D. Considerable Screening approach

49. This approach is founded on an interactive assessment if the crisis [hostage] situation
as it unfolds and is created through the interaction of the negotiator and the
perpetrator.
A. Bargaining Negotiation Approach
B. Expressive Negotiation Approach
C. Communication-based negotiation approach
D. Considerable Screening approach

50. What does the pro-active phase of Prevention consider?

A. Equipment personnel of the organization
B. Counter measures as part of the total system of operation
C. Organizing training and preparation
D. Advance planning for crisis management

51. What is the primary purpose of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)?

A. To increase court dockets' workload.
B. To create lengthy and adversarial legal proceedings.
C. To achieve speedy and impartial justice and declog court dockets.
D. To limit the involvement of neutral third persons in dispute resolution.

52. In the context of ADR, what does an ADR Provider refer to?
A. A person who initiates the dispute resolution process.
B. An accredited mediator, conciliator, arbitrator, or neutral evaluator.
C. A judge presiding over a court adjudication.
D. Any individual exercising similar functions as a government agency officer.

8
53. What is the definition of "Alternative Dispute Resolution System"?
A. Any process used to increase court adjudication.
B. Any procedure that involves a judge presiding over a court.
C. Any process or procedure, other than court adjudication, with a neutral third
person participating in dispute resolution.
D. Any method that excludes neutral third persons from the resolution of
disputes.

54. What is the essence of Arbitration?

A. Involuntary dispute resolution with no neutral third party.
B. Voluntary dispute resolution involving adjudication by a judge.
C. Voluntary dispute resolution where one or more arbitrators render an award.
D. Mandatory dispute resolution with no arbitrators involved.

55. What does an "Arbitration Agreement" involve?

A. An agreement to avoid arbitration and proceed to court adjudication.
B. An agreement by the parties to submit to arbitration all disputes, whether
contractual or not.
C. An agreement to involve multiple arbitrators in the dispute resolution
process.
D. An agreement to exclude certain disputes from the arbitration process

56. What does the term "Authenticate" mean?

A. To initiate legal proceedings.
B. To establish the authenticity of a record or term.
C. To appoint an arbitrator.
D. To submit pleadings in arbitration.

57. In the context of ADR, what does "Award" refer to?

A. An arbitration agreement.
B. A mediator's final decision.
C. Any partial or final decision by an arbitrator in resolving the issue or
controversy.
D. A court's judgment in an ADR process.

58. What is the significance of "Confidential Information" in mediation or arbitration?

A. Information disclosed during court proceedings.
B. Any information intended by the source to be disclosed.
C. Information related to the legal relationship between disputing parties.
D. Information expressly intended not to be disclosed during dispute resolution.

59. Who is considered "Counsel" in the context of ADR?

A. A neutral third party in dispute resolution.
B. A government agency officer.
C. A lawyer duly admitted to the practice of law representing a party in any
ADR process.
D. A person initiating the ADR process

9
60. What does "Court" mean in the provided text?
A. A court adjudicating disputes based on the Model Law.
B. Any regional tribunal involved in dispute resolution.
C. Regional Trial Court, except as otherwise defined under the Model Law.
D. A government agency overseeing ADR processes.

61. What does the term "Roster" mean according to the provided text?
A. A list of accredited ADR Providers.
B. The process of initiating ADR
C. A court's decision in an ADR process.
D. A list of persons qualified to provide ADR services as neutrals or serve as
arbitrators.
62. The provisions of the ADR Act shall not apply to the resolution or settlement of the
following:
A. the civil status of persons
B. the validity of marriage;
C. criminal liability;
D. All of the above

63. The ADR providers/practitioners shall have the same civil liability for acts done in
the performance of their official duties as that of public officers, upon a clear showing
of bad faith, malice or gross negligence. This statement is correct.
A. Yes
B. No
C. True
D. False

64. Functions of the Office of Alternative Dispute Resolution.

A. To promote, develop and expand the use of ADR in the private and public
sectors through information, education and communication.
B. To monitor, study and evaluate the use of ADR by the private and public
sectors for purposes of, among others, policy formulation.
C. To recommend to Congress needful statutory changes to develop, strengthen
and improve ADR practices in accordance with international professional
standards.
D. All of the above

65. Powers of the Alternative Dispute Resolution.

A. To act as appointing authority of mediators and arbitrators when the parties
agree in writing that it shall be empowered to do so.
B. To conduct seminars, symposia, conferences and other public fora and
publish proceedings of said activities and relevant materials/information that
would promote, develop and expand the use of ADR.
C. To certify those who have successfully completed the regular professional
training programs provided by the OADR.
D. All of the above

66. Composition of the Advisory Council.

10
A. Mediation profession
B. Arbitration profession
C. ADR organizations
D. All of the above

67. The certified mediator shall:

A. maintain and continually upgrade his/her professional competence in
mediation skills;
B. ensure that his/her qualifications, training and experience are known to and
accepted by the parties;
C. serve only when his/her qualifications, training and experience enable
him/her to meet the reasonable expectations of the parties and shall not hold
himself/herself out or give the impression that he/she has qualifications,
training and experience that he/she does not have.
D. All of the above

68. The Role of the Counsel

A. The lawyer shall view his/her role in mediation as a collaborator with the
other lawyer in working together toward the common goal of helping their
clients resolve their differences to their mutual advantage.
B. The lawyer must assist his/her client to comprehend and appreciate the
mediation process and its benefits, as well as the client’s greater personal
responsibility for the success of mediation in resolving the dispute.
C. The possible options for settlement but stressing the need to be open-minded
about other possibilities.
D. All of the above

69. The following articles shall be considered in the Conduct of Mediation, except:
A. The mediator shall not make untruthful or exaggerated claims about the
dispute resolution process, its costs and benefits, its outcome or the
mediator’s qualifications and abilities during the entire mediation process.
B. The mediator shall help the parties reach a satisfactory resolution of their
dispute but has no authority to impose a settlement on the parties.
C. The parties shall personally appear for mediation and may be assisted by a
lawyer. A party may be represented by an agent who must have full authority
to negotiate and settle the dispute.
D. shall give support to the mediator so that his/ her client will fully understand
the rules and processes of mediation

70. How should mediation be closed?

A. by the execution of a settlement agreement by the parties.
B. by the withdrawal of any party from mediation
C. by the written declaration of the mediator that any further effort at mediation
would not be helpful.
D. All of the above

71. Information obtained through mediation proceedings shall be subject to the following
principles and guidelines, except:

11
A. Information obtained through mediation shall be privileged and confidential.
B. A party, mediator, or non-party participant may refuse to disclose and may
prevent any other person from disclosing a confidential information.
C. Confidential information shall not be subject to discovery and shall be
inadmissible in any adversarial proceeding, whether judicial or quasi-
judicial.
D. A privilege arising from the confidentiality of information may be waived in
a record or orally during a proceeding by the mediator and the mediation
parties.

72. Waiver of Confidentiality.

A. With the consent of the mediation parties, a privilege arising from the
confidentiality of information may likewise be waived by a non- party
participant if the information is provided by such non-party participant.
B. A person who discloses confidential information shall be precluded from
asserting the privilege under Confidentiality of Information to bar disclosure
of the rest of the information necessary to a complete understanding of the
previously disclosed information.
C. A person who discloses or makes a representation about a mediation is
precluded from asserting the privilege mentioned in Confidentiality of
Information to the extent that the communication prejudices another person in
the proceeding and it is necessary for the person prejudiced to respond to the
representation or disclosure.
D. All of the above

73. Hostage situations of the revised PNP Operational Procedures provides the
following:
A. A crisis management task group shall be activated immediately.
B. Incident scene shall be secured and isolated.
C. Unauthorized person/s shall not be allowed for entry and exit to the incident
scene.
D. All of the above

74. The only person responsible for the command being the ground commander in the
era.
A. The Ground Commander
B. The Negotiator/s
C. Assault Team
D. PNP Chief

75. They shall be designated by the Ground Commander. No one shall be allowed to talk
to the hostage taker without clearance from the negotiating panel or ground
commander.
A. The Negotiator/s
B. Assault Team
C. OIC
D. All of the above

12
76. The field location where the primary functions are performed. The ICP may be co-
located with the incident base or other incident facilities.
A. Incident Command Post
B. Incident Command System
C. Incident Commander
D. ICS National Cadre

77. Group of individuals who successfully underwent the National Training of Trainers
on Incident Command System, didactic and practicum, covering the six (6) ICS
courses conducted by the US Department of Agriculture.
A. Incident Commander
B. ICS National Cadre
C. Assault Team
D. OIC

78. Is a standardized, on-scene, all-hazard incident management concept; allows its

users to adopt an integrated organizational structure to match the complexities and
demands of single.
A. Incident Command Post
B. Incident Command System
C. Incident Commander
D. ICS National Cadre

79. Provides a concise, coherent means of capturing and communicating the overall
incident priorities, objectives, strategies, and tactics in the context of both operational
and support activities.
A. Incident Action Plan
B. Span of Control
C. Resource Management
D. Information and Intelligence Management

80. Must establish a process for gathering, analyzing, assessing, sharing, and managing
incident-related information and intelligence.
A. Incident Action Plan
B. Span of Control
C. Resource Management
D. Information and Intelligence Management

81. Staff is responsible for the functional aspects of the incident command structure.
A. General Staff
B. Command Staff
C. Liaison Officer
D. Safety Officer

82. They monitors incident operations and advises the IC/UC on all matters relating to
operational safety, including the health and safety of emergency responder personnel.
A. General Staff

13
B. Command Staff
C. Liaison Officer
D. Safety Officer

83. What is Situation Awareness?

A. The ability to predict changes in personal objectives.
B. The perception of the current status of the incident and one's actions in
relation to it.
C. The impact of incidents on lives, properties, and the economy.
D. Recognizing information discrepancies.

84. How can Situation Awareness be generated effectively?

A. Ignoring information discrepancies.
B. Taking immediate action in a typical situations.
C. Recognizing potential problems and deviations from the expected.
D. Limiting communication about the incident to team leaders.

85. Demobilization refers to the release and return of resources that are no longer
required for the support of the incident/event is over. The statement is correct
A. Yes
B. No
C. True
D. False

86. Basic Parts of Demobilization Plan

A. Demobilization process
B. Responsibilities
C. Release priorities
D. All of the above

87. Close Out is the formal meeting that shall take place with the RO and the IMT
members. The IC will stay with the incident until its conclusion and the close out
meeting. The statement is correct.
A. Yes
B. No
C. True
D. False

88. Things to discuss during the Close Out Meeting.

A. Incident summary and actions taken
B. Major events that may have lasting ramifications
C. Opportunity for the officials to bring up concerns.
D. All of the above

89. The involvement of PNP personnel during strikes, lockouts and labor disputes in
general shall be limited to the maintenance of peace and order, enforcement of laws,
and implementation of legal orders of the duly constituted authorities. Is the statement
correct?

14
A. Yes
B. No
C. True
D. False

90. The PNP shall only render assistance to labor disputes upon written request
addressed to the Regional Director/ District Director concerned. In case of actual
violence, the police can respond without the written request. Is the statement correct?
A. Yes
B. No
C. True
D. False

91. PNP personnel detailed as peace-keeping force in strike or lockout areas shall be in
not prescribed uniform at all times. Is the statement correct?
A. Yes
B. No
C. True
D. False

92. They shall exercise maximum tolerance and when called for by the situation or when
all other peaceful and non-violent means have been exhausted, police officers may
employ such means as may be necessary and reasonable to prevent or repel an
aggression. Is the statement correct?
A. Yes
B. No
C. True
D. False

93. The matter of determining whether a strike, picket or lockout is legal or not should be
left to Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE) and its appropriate agencies.
PNP personnel should not interfere in a strike, picket or lockout, except as herein
provided. Is the statement correct?
A. Yes
B. No
C. True
D. False

94. Which international code does the PNP adhere to, requiring law enforcement officials
to respect and protect human dignity and uphold human rights?
A. Geneva Convention
B. Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials
C. International Police Standards
D. Universal Declaration of Human Rights

95. Under what conditions can a public assembly with a permit be dispersed?
A. Anytime the police deems necessary
B. If it remains peaceful

15
C. If there is a violation of the permit's terms and conditions
D. Only during specific hours of the day

96. Who is responsible for determining whether there is a permit for the holding of a
public assembly?
A. Mayor of the city or municipality
B. Ground Commanders
C. President
D. Leaders or organizers of the public assembly

97. What is the maximum distance a CDM contingent should be stationed away from the
area of activity during a public assembly?
A. 50 meters
B. 100 meters
C. 150 meters
D. 200 meters

98. When can an arrest be made during a public assembly?

A. Only if there is a violation of a law, statute, or ordinance during the assembly
B. At any point in the assembly
C. Only if the assembly involves a large number of participants
D. All of the above

99. When may the truncheon or baton be utilized during the confrontational stage?
A. To strike individuals aggressively
B. Only when demonstrators become unruly
C. To push back demonstrators, not striking individuals
D. All of the above

100. When may water cannons be utilized?

A. To strike individuals aggressively
B. Only when demonstrators become unruly
C. To push back demonstrators, not striking individuals
D. All of the above

16
References

Domingo, C. (n.d.). Dispute Resolution and Crisis Management eBook. Scribd.

https://www.scribd.com/document/527006181/Dispute-Resolution-and-Crisis-Manag

ement-eBook

Jasmine. (n.d.). Definition of terms. Scribd.

https://www.scribd.com/document/545729724/Definition-of-Terms

Studocu. (n.d.-a). Criminology 6 Dispute Resolution and Crises Incidents Management - a

self-learning module for BS - Studocu.

https://www.studocu.com/ph/document/university-of-saint-louis/bs-management-acco

unting/criminology-6-dispute-resolution-and-crises-incidents-management/30882133

Studocu. (n.d.-b). Dispute Resolution and Crisis Management - DISPUTE RESOLUTION

AND CRISIS INCIDENT MANAGEMENT - Studocu.

https://www.studocu.com/ph/document/palawan-state-university/criminology/dispute-

resolution-and-crisis-management/22796209

17