Which TB patients with the following comorbid conditions are to be appropriately managed and treated during the course

of the TB treatment?

a.
Patients on illicit drug use
b.
Patients with excessive alcohol use or alcohol-dependent
c.
Both

d.
Neither

Question 2
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As a serious public health issue, confidentiality should be waived regarding the presence of an employee being ill with TB and be divulged to the
concerned employees in the work area.

a.
True

b.
False

Question 3
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Prejudicial perception of TB patients leading to unjust distribution or deprivation of services and non-acknowledgment of their rights is:

a.
None of the choices

b.
Social Isolation
c.
Discrimination

d.
Stigma

Question 4
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A treatment supporter can be any of the following , EXCEPT

a.
Midwife

b.
Driver

c.
None of the choices

d.
Nurse

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True about patient-centered care approach is:

a.
All of the choices

b.
Patient actively participates in decisions regarding his treatment
c.
Capitalizes on the trust-based relationship between the patient and the provider

Question 6
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The institution of patient-centeredness in TB care recognizes the patient as an important partner in the decision-making process on the diagnosis,
treatment and management of the TB disease.

a.
True

b.
False

Question 7
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Which of the followings does not include in patient-centered approaches to TB care?

a.
Monitoring the clinical progress of the rehabilitation of a previously drug-dependent patient while undergoing the TB treatment.

b.
Treatment administration can be done at a location that is convenient to the patient.

c.
Allowing patients to miss out on their doses after several vomiting episodes without any adjustments or modifications to the treatment regimen.
d.
Issuance of a medical certificate for the patient upon completion of the treatment for re-assimilation to the workforce.

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Location of treatment as preferred by the patient, can be:

a.
At home

b.
Workplace

c.
Both

d.
Neither

Question 9
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Which of the following statement is TRUE of palliative care:

a.
Palliative care can be offered to the patient, as decided by the TB Medical Advisory Committee or when the patient fails the alternatives to treatment and
there is no possible cure.
b.
It is not considered as an option in the treatment and management for DRTB patients.
c.
Palliative care and hospice care are essentially the same.
d.
Palliative care is offered only at the time that the patient has failed treatment and is medically improbable to proceed to another course of treatment.

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Palliative care should be offered to the following patients

a.
Patients who cannot be cured
b.
Patients who refuse treatment
c.
Both A and B
d.
None of the above

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A patient came to your facility for consult and was identified as a presumptive TB upon systematic screening. During interview, the patient presented a
document from a private physician that he completed 2HRZE/4HR of TB treatment in his clinic. In what particular risk group does the patient belong?

a.
DRTB Low Risk Group

b.
DRTB High Risk Group
c.
Both A and B

d.
None of the above

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To identify presumptive TB in targeted high-risk groups, which of the following can be done by a health worker if chest x-ray is not available?

a.
Do nothing
b.
Refer to another city or municipality
c.
Use symptom-based screening
d.
Do Xpert

Question 3
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Among PLHIV, which of the following systematic screening procedures should be done every visit (if not on TB treatment)?

a.
Collect one sputum for Xpert Test

b.
Screen for TB S/S and Chest X-ray

c.
Chest X-ray

d.
Screen for TB S/S

Question 4
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Among PLHIV patients, at the time of diagnosis and annually, which of the following procedures for systematic screening should be done?

a.
Screen for TB S/S and Chest X-ray
b.
Collect one sputum for Xpert Test
c.
Chest X-ray
d.
Screen for TB S/S

Question 5
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_________ refers to a person who shared an enclosed space with a TB patient for extended periods of time during 3 months prior to diagnosis.

a.
Children
b.
None of the choices

c.
Index Case

d.
Close Contact

Question 6
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Presumptive TB refers to any person having _______________:

a.
2 weeks or longer of any of the following- cough, unexplained fever, weight loss and drenching night sweats
b.
CXR finding suggestive of TB
c.
Both a and b

Question 7
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Which of the following criteria does not meet to define as Presumptive Pulmonary TB?

a.
Chest X-ray finding suggestive of TB
b.
2 weeks of unexplained fever
c.
One week of cough

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The smear microscopy result of a patient on Regimen 1 in your facility turned out to be 2+ on the second month of treatment. Which of the following risk
groups does the patient belong?

a.
DRTB Low Risk Group
b.
DRTB High Risk Group
c.
None of the above
d.
All of the above

Question 9
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Presumptive Pulmonary TB in children include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a.
Unexplained fever of 2 weeks or more after common causes such as malaria or pneumonia have been excluded
b.
Unexplained weight loss or failure to thrive of 2 weeks or more not responding to nutrition therapy
c.
Coughing/wheezing of 2 weeks or more especially if unexplained
d.
None of the choices

Question 10
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All DSTB and DRTB contacts who have no signs and symptoms of TB and with CXR not suggestive of TB will be advised to follow-up for:

a.
Symptom screening every 6 months and CXR yearly for 2 years

b.
Symptom screening and CXR yearly

c.
Symptom screening every 4 months and CXR yearly for 4 years

d.
Symptom screening every month and CXR every 6 months for 2 years
In TB disease classification based on drug susceptibility testing, mono-resistance means _________:

a.
resistance to one first-line anti-TB drug only
b.
resistance to any fluoroquinolone and to at least one of three second-line injectable drugs in addition to multidrug resistance

c.
resistance to at least both isoniazid and rifampicin

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Which of the following is a positive TST result?

a.
Induration of >5mm in a malnourished child
b.
8 mm induration in a healthy child
c.
No induration noted but with erythema
d.
A&C

Question 3
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The following statements are true regarding specimen for Xpert MTB/Rif test, EXCEPT:
a.
Mucus from the nose and throat are not good specimens

b.
Blood, urine and stool are currently not accepted specimens for Xpert MTB/RIF Testing

c.
Good quality sputum specimens are those that are purulent, mucoid, and blood-stained

d.
Grossly bloody or pure blood specimens can be examined for Xpert test

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You received an Xpert test result with MTB detected, Rifampicin resistance detected. How will you record the result in the presumptive TB masterlist
following guidelines?

a.
T in red Ink

b.
RR in black ink
c.
RR in red ink

d.
T in blue ink

Question 5
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If the Xpert MTB/Rif Test result of a 28-year-old new TB case who is not a DR-TB contact is MTB detected Rifampicin Resistance detected, what should
be the next step?

a.
Refer to TB MAC

b.
Do clinical follow up

c.
Start with the Standard Treatment Regimen for DR-TB

d.
Recollect and repeat Xpert MTB/Rif Test
Question 6
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In the TB disease classification based on drug susceptibility testing, Multi-drug resistant means:

a.
resistance to more than one first-line anti-TB drug (other than both isoniazid and rifampicin)
b.
any resistance to rifampicin detected using phenotypic or genotypic methods, with or without resistance to other anti-TB drugs
c.
resistance to at least both isoniazid and rifampicin

Question 7
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Which of the following specimens are unacceptable for Xpert MTB/RIF test?

a.
CSF, Gastric aspirate

b.
Tracheal aspirate

c.
Tissues and fine needle biopsy specimen
d.
Blood, urine and stool

Question 8
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Following the diagnostic algorithm on the use of Xpert MTB / RIF test, what should be done to a 54-year-old patient, with history of Regimen I treatment
whose outcome was declared cured and is currently experiencing productive cough for 16 days, with Xpert MTB/Rif test result of MTB detected, rifampicin
resistant detected?

a.
Classify as Drug susceptible TB case and Start treatment with first line drugs

b.
Classify as Drug resistant TB case and start treatment with second line drugs
c.
Recollect sputum specimen for repeat Xpert MB/RIF test and follow the second result.
d.
Do chest X-ray to verify the positive sputum result

Question 9
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Which of the following extra-pulmonary specimens cannot be tested for Xpert MTB/Rif test?

a.
Blood

b.
Cerebrospinal fluid

c.
Bronchial alveolar lavage fluid

d.
Pleural effusion

Question 10
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Which test is used to screen resistance to Fluroquinolones and Secondline Injectables?

a.
Second Line LPA
b.
TB LAMP
c.
GeneXpert MTB/RIF Test
d.
First Line LPA
What is the registration group of a patient who has had previous completed treatment for tuberculosis but comes back and diagnosed with active clinically-
diagnosed TB?
a.
Previous treatment outcome unknown
b.
Relapse
c.
Treatment Failure
d.
New

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What is the registration group of a patient who has never had previous treatment for tuberculosis or treated but less than 1 month?

a.
New

b.
Treatment after loss to follow-up

c.
Treatment Failure

d.
Relapse

Question 3
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When should a sputum follow-up examination (smear microscopy) be requested for a new clinically diagnosed DS-TB case?

a.
End of 2 months only, as long as its negative

b.
End of 2 months, 5th month, 6th month

c.
No follow-up required

d.
None of the above

Question 4
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If a patient interrupts treatment for 6 weeks after being on treatment for 5 months, and the repeat smear microscopy is positive, what would you do?
a.
Declare as failed treatment, do Xpert MTB/Rif test
b.
Continue treatment and prolong to compensate for missed dose
c.
Extend treatment to 8 months
d.
Declare as lost to follow-up

Question 5
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Once a regimen is assigned, which factor is considered to determine the dosage of drugs to be given?

a.
Weight

b.
Sex

c.
History of treatment

d.
Site of disease

Question 6
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What is the registration group classification of a patient who remains sputum positive at the 5 th month of treatment?
a.
Patients with unknown previous TB treatment history

b.
Treatment after Failure

c.
Relapse

d.
Treatment after loss to follow-up

Question 7
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If a patient comes to the health facility already taking TB medicines for 1 month prescribed by a private physician, what should you do?

a.
Ask patient to just continue treatment with his private physician

b.
Immediately discontinue treatment and restart from Day 1
c.
Assess the patient, do a bacteriologic test and then decide whether to discontinue, restart, or continue treatment

d.
Immediately discontinue treatment and do Xpert test

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Which of the following should be done during every follow-up visit of a DS-TB patient on treatment?

a.
Weigh the patient

b.
Ask about symptoms and adverse drug reactions

c.
Continue to manage the co-morbid conditions

d.
All of the above

Question 9
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When should a sputum follow-up examination by smear microscopy be requested for a retreatment clinically diagnosed DS-TB case?

a.
End of 2 months only, as long as its negative

b.
End of 2 months, 5th month, 6th month

c.
No follow-up required

d.
None of the above

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Which of the following regimen is appropriate for a patient who previously completed treatment for DS-TB (6 months on Regimen 1) and comes back with
symptoms of PTB and Xpert MTB/Rif test result of “MTB detected, Rifampicin susceptible”?

a.
2HRZES/1HRZE/5HRE
b.
2HRZE/4HR

c.
6HRZE

d.
DRTB regimen

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In principles of designing Individualized Treatment Regimen (ITR), a drug is considered “Likely effective drug” when:

a.
With known resistance to drugs known to have high cross-resistance (FQs, SLIs, INH & Pto)

b.
DST showing resistance to the drug

c.
Drug has been used in a regimen that failed to cure the individual patient

d.
No known close contacts with resistance to the drug
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Which of the following is not part of the Exclusion Criteria for SLOR FQ-S?

a.
QTcF of 540ms

b.
Exposure to Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin, bedaquiline, Linezolid or Clofazimine for less than a month

c.
Confirmed resistance to Fluoroquinolones

d.
History of heart disease

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In patients on SLOR (Standardized Long oral Regimen), TB culture should be done:
a.
At baseline and monthly until completion of intensive phase (i.e 6 month of treatment at least)
b.
Every other month after the 10th month of treatment
c.
Every other month during the intensive phase
d.
None of the above

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Patient ERB who is receiving SSOR completed 10 months of treatment on March 17, 2019. He is adherent to his treatment and submission of sputum.
What is the treatment outcome of this patient?

Results of Sputum Monitoring Weight (kg)

Month Date DSSM Culture
0 5/5/15 3+ MTB/MTB 59
1 6/5/15 0 0 59
2 7/6/15 0 0 60.5
3 8/7/15 0 0 61
4 9/8/15 1+ 0 61
5 10/8/15 0 0 60
6 11/8/15 0 0 61
7 12/8/15 0 0 63
8 1/9/16 1+ 0 63
9 2/9/16 0 64
10 3/9/16 0 65.5
a.
Cured

b.
Treatment Completed

c.
Lost to Follow-up

d.
Not evaluated

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For patients with outcome of cured and treatment completed, post treatment follow-up must be done every:

a.
6 months for 2 years
b.
3 months for 1 year
c.
3 months for 2 years
d.
6 months for 1 year

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Identify the INCORRECT statement for DR TB treatment:

a.
Treatment education including infection prevention education shall be given to patients and family members prior to and during treatment

b.
Standard treatment regimens shall be given based on patient eligibility and exclusion criteria.

c.
Treatment shall be started within 14 days from diagnosis.

d.
Individualized treatment shall be given to patients not eligible to any of the standard regimens.

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Which of the following is FALSE regarding the exclusion criteria of SSOR (Regimen 3)?
a.
AST/ALT >5 times elevated
b.
Creatinine Clearance of >30 mL/min
c.
History of heart disease
d.
QTcF 550 ms

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Which of following situations is not considered off-label use for Bdq and Dlm?

a.
An EPTB patient taking Lfx

b.
A patient initiated on Regimen 5 (SLOR FQ-R)

c.
A pregnant patient taking Bdq

d.
A 4 years old child taking Dlm
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Which of the following is true about the use of Prothionamide?

a.
Start Pto in two divided dosages (morning and evening) for the first two weeks of treatment if total daily dose is >250mg

b.
Once tolerance has improved, change Pto dosing to once daily after 1 week

c.
Pto should be taken on an empty stomach

d.
Give Pto in full dose upon initiation of treatment

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First and second-line LPA test shall be done prior to start of treatment.
a.
False

b.
True

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Female patients who vomit at any time after, or within the first two hours after taking contraceptive tablet should use ______________:

a.
Lactation amenorrhea method

b.
Symptom-thermal method

c.
Vasectomy

d.
Barrier method

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BFD, 23 years old male was diagnosed with HIV recently. He was referred to your facility and was diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis by Xpert
MTB/Rif Test. He claims to have been treated with TB the year before this consultation. The approach to treatment would be:

a.
Start anti-TB treatment and await 8 weeks prior to anti-retroviral therapy
b.
If CD4 count is less than 50 cells per cubic mL, ART should be started within 2 weeks.
c.
The patient should receive co-trimoxazole as prophylaxis for other infection
d.
All of the above

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Patient AX is under your care and she is receiving anti-TB medication which includes Bedaquiline and Delamanid in her regimen. She is breastfeeding her
5-month old baby. Based on her sputum microscopy, she remained positive for tubercle bacilli. As her health worker what will be your suggestion to
patient AX?

a.
Discontinue breastfeeding her baby
b.
Continue breastfeeding her baby
c.
Provide cup feeding instead of breastfeeding
d.
Defer breastfeeding until 2 years old

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A 23-year-old female patient has been battling seizures since she was a child. She has been experiencing recurrent seizures despite intake of
medications. She was recently diagnosed with MDR-TB. In designing her regimen, which among the following anti-TB drugs must be avoided:

a.
Cycloserine
b.
Isoniazid high dose

c.
Both a and b

d.
Letter a only

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Patient Lina is currently receiving Rifampicin as part of her anti-TB regimen. At the same time she is also taking oral contraceptive pills. As a health care
worker, you provided information that she has the option to do the following:

a.
Use progesterone only injectables

b.
All of the above

c.
Use of combined contraceptive patch
d.
Use of an oral contraceptive with higher dose of estrogen

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Which of the following first line drugs would require dose adjustment in case of renal insufficiency with creatinine clearance below 30 mL/min?

a.
Isoniazid

b.
Pyrazinamide

c.
Ethambutol

d.
b and c

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The regimen for Mrs. Cruz once she is confirmed pregnant should include three to four oral drugs deemed to be effective but should not include the
following: (select all that apply)

Select one or more:

a.
Isoniazid

b.
Prothionamide

c.
Streptomycin

d.
Ethambutol

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You have started BFD, an HIV patient on DR-TB regimen containing Bedaquiline. What anti-retroviral drug should be avoided once BFD is started on anti-
retroviral therapy?

a.
Efavirenz

b.
Nevirapine

c.
Dolutegravir

d.
None of the above

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What intervention/s will safely prevent transmission of TB from mother to her breastfeeding infant?

a.
Contact between mother and child should be limited when the mother is TB culture positive

b.
Contact should occur in an open-air space if possible

c.
Mother should wear a surgical mask or a respirator

d.
All of the above

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Diagnosed TB patients with substance dependence should be_____________:

a.
Referred for therapy in specialized institutions

b.
Should not be started treatment

c.
Evaluated and assessed using the CAGE questionnaire

d.
Both a and c

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Patient JGD, 24 y/o, male, a retreatment case is on SLOR FQ-S regimen. On the third month, he started experiencing nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain
and lethargy, which are suspicious findings of lactic acidosis, according to the treatment center physician. What would be the possible anti-TB drug that
would cause lactic acidosis?

a.
Linezolid
b.
Clofazimine

c.
Bedaquiline

d.
Levofloxacin

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Which of the following is TRUE about severe psychotic symptoms of patients on DR-TB treatment?

a.
Individual or group therapy sessions would suffice as intervention.

b.
Characterized by extreme disorientation and paranoia.

c.
The manifestations are always drug-induced.
d.
Hospitalization is usually not indicated.

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A 47 y/o male was started on individualized treatment regimen consisting of BdqLzdCfzCsDlmZ. Monitoring of liver enzymes on the first month of treatment
were as follows:
ALT / SGPT 38 U/L (Normal value: 0-35 U/L; male) ;
AST / SGOT 39 U/L (Normal value: 0-37 U/L; male)
At present, the patient is asymptomatic. Which is the next best step?

a.
Request for biliary tract ultrasonography.

b.
Continue anti-TB treatment and repeat liver function tests (LFT) weekly.

c.
Encourage fluid intake and dietary intake of bananas, rice, apple and crackers.

d.
Stop all anti-TB drugs and other hepatotoxic drugs.

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A 64 y/o female currently on the 2nd month of SLOR FQ-S regimen started complaining of “pins and needles” sensation and aching pain on her both lower
extremities, but more pronounced on the right. She also has bilateral lower extremities numbness, but more pronounced on the left. The BPNS scale was
at Grade 3, for the pain on the right leg whereas the grading scales for the numbness and pin and needle sensation are grade 2 and 1 respectively. What
should be the management for this patient

a.
Stop giving Lzd from the treatment regimen
b.
Provide symptomatic relief with NSAIDs.
c.
Substitute the offending drug with another anti-TB drug.
d.
All of the above

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Which of the following drug attribute to presentation of an orange-colored urine in a patient on first line drug treatment?

a.
Pyrazinamide
b.
Isoniazid
c.
Ethambutol
d.
Rifampicin

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What includes in the suggested management strategies for patients with acute renal failure that developed while on DR TB treatment with second-line
injectable?

a.
Initiate oral or intravenous rehydration therapy immediately to correct volume status.

b.
For moderate to severe acute renal injury, repeat creatinine weekly until it has returned to normal or has stabilized.

c.
Check for other causes of acute renal failure (prerenal, renal, postrenal).

d.
All of the above

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What questions/s must be routinely asked to patients as part of evaluating their state of depression?
a.
Any feeling of sadness
b.
Any feeling of hopelessness
c.
Any mood changes (easy irritation, agitation, challenge to concentration)
d.
All of the above

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After two months on DRTB treatment, patient RSV, 23 y/o, male, started experiencing “blurring of vision,” to which he never had symptoms before. After
consultation with an optometrist, the patient was advised that there was no error of refraction and that he would not be needing corrective lenses yet, but
still need further consultation and evaluation with an ophthalmologist. The ophthalmologic consult yielded diagnostic results of the presence of scotoma,
and an incipient red-green color visual blindness. What periodic diagnostic procedure should have been done at the treatment center to have monitored
this occurrence?

a.
Performing the Rinne and Weber tests

b.
Monthly blood chemistry examination for serum electrolytes

c.
2-lead electrocardiography

d.
Snellen chart and Ishihara color vision test

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Which anti-TB drug will not cause optic neuritis?

a.
Bedaquiline

b.
Linezolid

c.
Prothionamide

d.
Isoniazid

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Which general strategy/ strategies are applied in managing adverse drug reactions?

a.
Provision of psychosocial support

b.
Adjustment of drug dosages

c.
None of the above

d.
Both A and B

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Systematic collection and reporting of standardized data for SAEs and AESI is one of the essential activities for:

a.
FDA

b.
Screening
c.
aDSM

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What adverse events include in the intermediates aDSM package reporting?

a.
All SAEs and AEs of special interests and AEs of clinical significance

b.
All SAEs and AEs of special interests

c.
All SAEs

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aDSM refers to _____________________:
a.
safety index of drugs used for MDRTB patients

b.
active and systematic clinical and laboratory assessment on MDR patients while on treatment with new drugs, novel regimens and XDR TB regimens to
detect, manage and report suspected or confirmed drug toxicities

c.
effectiveness of drugs used for MDRTB patients

Question 4
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The following are considered SAEs, EXCEPT:

a.
Resulting in death

b.
Requiring hospitalization

c.
Liver enzymes 3x ULN

Question 5
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Which is TRUE in managing adverse events?

a.
All adverse events should be managed clinically but all patients with serious adverse events should be hospitalized.

b.
All adverse events should be managed clinically but only serious adverse events and adverse events of special interests should be reported.

c.
All adverse events should be managed clinically but only serious adverse events of special interests should be reported.

Question 6
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Essential activities in aDSM involves:
a.
Clinical and laboratory assessment without managing adverse events

b.
Only clinical assessment

c.
Clinical and laboratory assessment to detect adverse event, managing and reporting adverse event

Question 7
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In filling out the FDA SAR form:

a.
The contact number and address of the reporter should be written

b.
The contact number and address of the patient should be written

c.
The contact names and addresses of both the reporter and patient should not be written
Question 8
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In filling out the FDA form, which of the following is correct?

a.
The names, addresses, contact numbers of both the reporter and patient should be written

b.
The name, address and contact number of the reporter should be written

c.
The initials of the patient, contact number and address of the patient should be written

Question 9
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What does a positive re-challenge mean?

a.
The adverse event did not recur after the reintroduction of the drug

b.
The adverse event recurred after the reintroduction of the drug

c.
The adverse event improved after the culprit drug was stopped.

Question 10
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The evaluation of the likelihood that a medicine was observed to have a possible causal relationship with the adverse drug event:

a.
Causality assessment
b.
ADR assessment
c.
ADR safety assessment and management
Which statement is true for the identification of persons with LTBI?

a.
There is no gold standard that can identify a person has definitely LTBI.

b.
Can identify by Chest X Ray.

c.
Can identify by signs and symptoms.
d.
Can identify by TST.

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In people living with HIV, which drugs are contra-indicated to co-administer with 3HP or 3HR or 4R LTBI regimen?

a.
Efavirenz

b.
Nevirapine

c.
Protease inhibitor

d.
b&c

Question 3
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In order to maintain adherence to TPT, which statement is true?
a.
At home/community or workplace by oriented family member or treatment partner combined with health education and counseling about LTBI treatment

b.
Community based treatment by a treatment partner is not allowed

c.
Drugs administration at the health facility under direct observation of a health care worker is the only option

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For whom TST is not mandatory prior to starting TB preventive treatment?

a.
Children <5 years old who is household contact of bacteriologically confirmed TB case

b.
People living with HIV who are >1 year old

c.
Adult household contact with bacteriologically confirmed TB case with at least one other risk factor (such as diabetes, smoking, malnourished, etc)
d.
Adult household contact with bacteriologically confirmed TB case without any risk factor

e.
All close contacts of clinically diagnosed TB cases

f.
None of the above

g.
a,b,c

Question 5
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What is not potential adverse events of TB preventive therapy?

a.
Flu like syndrome

b.
Hepatitis
c.
Nausea and vomiting

d.
Renal toxicity

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Which procedure is required as an initial step for the exclusion of active TB disease in children <5 years old household contacts of bacteriologically
confirmed TB cases?

a.
Tuberculin Skin Test (TST) is mandatory

b.
Only checking by signs and symptoms such as current cough, fever, weight loss and night sweat

c.
CXR is mandatory

Question 7
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What are potential adverse events of TB preventive therapy?

a.
Flu like syndrome

b.
Nausea and vomiting

c.
Hepatitis

d.
a&c

e.
a, b, c

Question 8
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Which statement is true for the required initial step for the exclusion of active TB disease in adults and children > 5 years old household contacts?

a.
TB signs and symptoms and CXR are both required

b.
TB signs and symptoms, CXR and TST are mandatory for all adult household contacts

c.
TB signs and symptoms and either CXR or TST are required procedures

Question 9
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Which statement is not true for defining the outcomes of TB Preventive Treatment?

a.
A person who interrupted TB preventive treatment for two (2) consecutive months or more is defined as Loss To Follow-Up
b.
A person who developed active TB disease anytime while on TB preventive treatment is not defined as “Failed”.

c.
A person who dies for any reason during the course of therapy is defined as “Died”.

d.
A person who has been transferred to another health facility with proper referral slip for continuation of TB preventive treatment and whose treatment
outcome is not known

e.
A person completed the prescribed duration of treatment and remain well or asymptomatic during the entire period is defined as “Completed”.
Question 10
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Who is required to have a liver function test before starting TB preventive therapy?

a.
Age 12 years old, no history of liver disease

b.
Age 62 years old, no history of chronic liver disease, not taking alcohol regularly

c.
25 years old HIV infected

d.
a&c

e.
b&c
A treatment partner can be any of the following:

a.
Oriented health care worker

b.
Oriented lay volunteer
c.
Oriented family member

d.
All of the above choices

e.
None of the choices

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In designing an MDRTB regimen for adults, there should be at least 5 “likely effective drugs”

a.
False

b.
True

Question 3
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All are true regarding the Tuberculin skin test (TST), EXCEPT:

a.
An induration of at least 10 mm regardless of BCG vaccination is considered positive

b.
Trained health workers shall do the testing and reading

c.
An induration of 5mm regardless of BCG vaccination in immunocompromised children is considered a positive TST
d.
None of the choices

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Off- label use – is the use of anti-tb drug other than those indicated by its manufacturer and authorized by a national regulatory authority (e.g. FDA)

a.
False

b.
True

Question 5
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The use of technology (video DOT, missed calls/SMS DOT) to assist self-administered treatment is not recommended even in special situations.

a.
True

b.
False

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All adverse events should be managed and documented promptly but only SAEs and AEs of special interest should be reported to national authorities.

a.
True

b.
False

Question 7
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Follow-up of DRTB contacts should be done through:

a.
Chest x-ray every 6 months

b.
Symptom screening every 6 months for the next 2 years

c.
Xpert MTB/Rif test every 6 months

Question 8
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In the revised DRTB drug groupings by WHO, Group A would consist the following, EXCEPT:
Select one or more:
a.
Clofazimine

b.
Delamanid

c.
Bedaquiline

d.
Levofloxacin/Moxifloxacin

Question 9
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An anti-TB drug is considered likely effective when:

a.
The drug has not been used in a regimen that failed to cure the individual patient

b.
DST performed indicates that it is resistant to the drug

c.
A close contact is resistant to the drug

Question 10
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Severity of TB disease in children is defined as the presence of > 1 criteria, EXCEPT:

a.
Cavities or bilateral disease on chest radiography

b.
Extrapulmonary form of disease including lymphadenopathy (peripheral node or isolated mediastinal mass)

c.
Positive TB bacteriology (smear, xpert, tb culture)

d.
Presence of severe malnutrition or advanced immunosuppression

e.
None of the choices
Question 11
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DRTB contacts are initially evaluated thru:

a.
Signs and symptoms of TB and chest x-ray

b.
DSSM

c.
Xpert MTB RIF test

Question 12
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The following are extrapulmonary specimens that can be tested for Xpert MTB/RIF test, EXCEPT:

a.
Blood

b.
Synovial fluid

c.
Gastric aspirate

d.
Pleural effusion

Question 13
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All DRTB contacts with signs and symptoms of TB or a positive chest x-ray result suggestive of TB should be identified as presumptive TB.

a.
False

b.
True

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Efavirenz (EFV) increases the Bdq serum level by 52%.

a.
True

b.
False

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The primary systematic screening tool in health facilities among walk-in patients is:

a.
Drenching night sweats

b.
Cough of 2 weeks or more

c.
Unexplained fever

d.
Unexplained or unintentional weight loss

e.
All of the choices