2020

Workbook for:
Physics
Chemistry
Math

The Priceton Review

ScorePlus
2020

Physics Workbook

The Priceton Review

ScorePlus
Physics Workbook
Vectors and Kinematics................................................................................................................................. 1
Newton’s Laws, Work and Energy .............................................................................................................. 13
Momentum and Rotational Motion............................................................................................................ 29
Equilibrium, Gravitation and Oscillations ................................................................................................... 35
Electrostatics and Electric potential ........................................................................................................... 45
Currents and Circuits, Magnetics and Induction......................................................................................... 53
Waves and Optics........................................................................................................................................ 67
Thermal Physics and Modern Physics ......................................................................................................... 84
Vectors and Kinematics

Questions 1 – 4 relate to the following graphs of speed vs time for different objects.

(A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)

1) Which graph best represents the speed of a feather falling through a vacuum if the feather is released
from rest at time 𝑡 = 0?

2) Which graph best represents the speed of a ping-pong ball falling through the air from the top of a tall
building if the ball is released from rest at time t = 0?

3) Which graph best represents the speed of a baseball tossed vertically upward into the air at time
t = 0 as it rises and falls?

4) Which graph best represents the speed of a toy car starting from rest at time t = 0and having a
steadily increasing acceleration?

Vectors and Kinematics |1

Questions 5 – 6

An object moves in a straight line. The graph below shows the relationship between the velocity (in
meters per second) of the object and the time (in seconds) it travels.

5) The acceleration of the object between 2 seconds and 5 seconds is

1
(A) m/s2
2
(B) 1 m/s2
(C) 2 m/s2
(D) 3 m/s2
(E) 4 m/s2

6) The distance the object travels during the first 2 seconds is

(A) 4 m
(B) 6 m
(C) 8 m
(D) 12 m
(E) 16 m

7) If an object starts from rest and is accelerated by a constant force, which of the following is true of
the acceleration vector and the velocity vector?

(A) They are constant.

(B) They both increase.
(C) They have the same direction.
(D) They have opposite directions.
(E) They have equal magnitude.

2|Vectors and Kinematics

Q.8) A person drops a stone from the top of a well and it hits the water 3 seconds later. The distance
from the top of the well to the water level is most nearly

(A) 3 m
(B) 30 m
(C) 45 m
(D) 90 m
(E) 180 m

Q.9) A spiral tube whose inside is frictionless lies flat on a horizontal table as shown in the top view
above. A marble of mass M is projected into one end of the tube. When the marble emerges from the
other end and rolls on the tabletops, which of the paths shown will the marble take?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E

Questions 10 – 11

In an experiment to determine the acceleration of a ball falling through the air, a student uses a stopwatch
to measure the time it takes the ball to fall from rest through a distance d of 44 meters. Six trials give the
following results.

Vectors and Kinematics |3

Time of Fall
Trial Number
(seconds)

1 4.2
2 4.0
3 4.0
4 4.3
5 4.0
6 4.1

10) Which of the following values of time should the student use to calculate the acceleration of the
object?

(A) 4.0 s
(B) 4.05 s
(C) 4.1 s
(D) 4.15 s
(E) 4.2 s

2d
11) The student uses the equation t = √ to calculate the theoretical time of fall and compares it to the
g
experimental results. Which of the following is the most reasonable explanation of the discrepancy
between these values?

(A) The ball had a horizontal component to its velocity, and thus took longer to fall.
(B) The air resistance on the ball slowed it down.
(C) The distance of the fall was actually less than 44 m.
(D) The stopwatch was only accurate to 0.1 second.
(E) The student did not use the correct value of the acceleration of gravity for the altitude at which
the experiment was performed.

12) An object falls freely from rest near the surface of Earth. It has fallen for a time t, but has not yet
hit the ground. If air resistance is negligible, the speed of the object is most nearly

(A) g
(B) 2g
(C) gt
1 2
(D) gt
2
2
(E) gt

4|Vectors and Kinematics

Q.13) In a closed railroad car that is at rest, Amy throws a ball to Bill. Just before Bill catches the ball, it
has a horizontal speed v and has fallen a vertical distance d from its height of release, as shown above.
x
They repeat the throw with the car moving at constant speed vx to the right. Relative to Bill, what is
the horizontal speed of the ball when it reaches him, and what is the distance it has fallen from the
height of release?

Horizontal Speed Distance Fallen

(A) 𝑣𝑥 /2 d
(B) 𝑣𝑥 /2 Greater than d
(C) 𝑣𝑥 d
(D) 𝑣𝑥 Greater than d
(E) 2𝑣𝑥 Less than d

Q.14) A child pushes a toy car so that it goes off the end of a table with a speed v. The car takes a time t
to fall and lands a horizontal distance x from the edge of the table. The child then pushes the car so
that it goes off the table with a speed of 2v. What is the new time it takes the car to fall and the new
horizontal distance that it lands from the edge of the table?

Time Horizontal Distance

(A) 𝑡/2 x/2
(B) 𝑡/2 x
(C) 𝑡 x
(D) 𝑡 2x
(E) √2𝑡 2x

Vectors and Kinematics |5

Q.15) All of the following are vector quantities
EXCEPT
(A) acceleration
(B) force
(C) momentum
(D) velocity
(E) work

Q.16) A moving car first goes 2 kilometers north, then 3 kilometers west, then 1 kilometers north, and
finally 1 kilometer east. If north is toward the top of the page, which of the following diagrams shows
a correct way to find the car’s total displacement, shown by the dashed arrow?

(A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)

6|Vectors and Kinematics

Questions 17-18

The following table gives the results of measurements made by a group of students of the distances a car
traveled during each of four successive seconds.

DISTANCE TRAVELLED EACH

SECOND
Time Interval Distance Traveled
t = 0 s to t = 1 s 8.22 m
t = 1 s to t = 2 s 9.50 m
t = 2 s to t = 3 s 10.77m
t = 3 s to t = 4 s 12.10m

17) Which of the following statements about the car’s motion can be concluded with certainty from the
data that the students obtained?

(A) The car started from rest.

(B) The car’s maximum instantaneous speed during the four seconds was 12.10 m/s.
(C) The car’s average speed during the third second was 10.77 m/s
(D) The distance the car traveled during the first half-second was 4.11 m.
(E) The distance the car traveled during the fifth second was 13.4m.

18) If it assumed that the acceleration of the car is constant and that any variations therefrom are due to
errors of measurement, then the acceleration of the car is closest to

(A) 1.0 m/s 2

(B) 1.3 m/s 2
(C) 1.5 m/s 2
(D) 3.0 m/s 2
(E) 10 m/s 2

Vectors and Kinematics |7

Q.19) A ball thrown vertically upward is released at time t = 0. If air resistance is negligible, which of
the following graphs best represent the velocity, v, of the ball as a function of time t?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E)

Q.20) An object is projected horizontally above level ground from the top of a vertical cliff. The object
strikes the level ground 1 kilometer from the base of the cliff 4 seconds after it is fired. The height of
the cliff is most nearly

(A) 80 m
(B) 160 m
(C) 200 m
(D) 250 m
(E) 4,000 m

8|Vectors and Kinematics

Q.21) The figure above shows a graph of speed v versus time t for a car moving along a straight level
road. Which of the following statements about the motion is true?

(A) The car is moving at t = 0 s.

(B) The car returns to its initial position at time t = 5 s.
(C) The displacement of the car from its initial position is increasing at all times from t = 0s to t = 5s.
(D) The acceleration of the car reaches its maximum at time t = 2 s.
(E) The velocity of the car is negative between times t = 2 s and t = 5 s.

Q.22) Which of the following graphs of displacement x versus time t shows an acceleration that is
negative and approximately constant?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

\\

(E)

Vectors and Kinematics |9

Questions 23 – 24

An automobile starts from rest and moves along a straight road. In the graph below, the distance x of the
automobile from its starting point is given as a function of time t.

t
(A) Interval A
(B) Interval B
(C) Interval C
(D) Interval D
(E) Interval E

23) During which interval is the automobile stationary and farthest from its starting position?

24) During which interval does the speed of the automobile have its maximum value?

Q.25) A skydiver has been in the air long enough to be falling at a constant terminal speed of 50 meters
per second. How much farther will the skydiver fall in the next 2.00 seconds?

(A) 19.6 m
(B) 50 m
(C) 98 m
(D) 100 m
(E) 120 m

10 | V e c t o r s a n d K i n e m a t i c s
Q.26) It takes about 1.0 second for an object to fall 5 meter vertically. If this same object is thrown
horizontally with a speed of 30 meter per second from a roof-top 5 meter above ground, about how
many meter from the base of the building will the object land?

(A) 30 m
(B) 30√2 m
(C) 30√3 m
(D) 60 m
(E) 90 m

Q.27) A boat that can move at 5 kilometers per hour in still water is crossing a river whose current is 2
kilometers per hour. The problem is to steer the boat so that it will land directly across the river from
where it started. The solution to the problem is best represented by which of the following sketches in
which the river is flowing to the right?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E)

V e c t o r s a n d K i n e m a t i c s | 11
Q.28) A car travels around a circular track that has a radius of 1 km. If the car completes 3 trips around
the track in 5 minutes, which of the following expression gives the average speed of the car in km
per hour?

(3)(2π)(1)
(A) 5(1/60)
(5)(60)(2π)(1)
(B) 3
(3)(2π)(1)
(C) 5(60)
(5)(2π)(1)
(D) (3)(60)
(3π)(1)
(E) 5(1/60)

Q.29) The graphs below represent velocity as a function of time t for five different particles each
moving along a straight line. Which particle experiences the greatest displacement between t = 0
and t = 1 second?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E)

12 | V e c t o r s a n d K i n e m a t i c s
Newton’s Laws, Work and Energy

Questions 1 – 3

A box is placed on a scale in an elevator on Earth. The scale is calibrated in newtons, and when the
elevator is at rest, the reading on the scale is 250 newtons. Assume that the acceleration due to gravity
remains constant over the entire distance the elevator moves.

(A) Zero
(B) Less than 250 N, but not zero
(C) 250 N
(D) More than 250 N
(E) It cannot be determined from the information given.

1) When the elevator is moving upward at constant speed, what is the reading on the scale?

2) When the elevator is accelerating downward at 5 meters per second squared, what is the reading on
the scale?

3) If the elevator cables broke and the elevator fell freely, what would be the reading on the scale?

Question 4 – 5

A block on an inclined plane, as shown above, has four forces acting on it.

W: the force of gravity acting downward (weight)

N: a force normal to the surface of the plane

f : a frictional force acting along the plane

F: an external applied force acting along the plane

N e w t o n ’ s L a w s , W o r k a n d E n e r g y | 13
The following vector diagrams illustrate various possibilities when these forces are added, depending on
the magnitude and directions of f and F.

4) In which case can the block be accelerating up the plane?

5) In which case can the block be moving down the plane with constant velocity?

14 | N e w t o n ’ s L a w s , W o r k a n d E n e r g y
Q.6) Two students standing on skateboards with frictionless bearings face the same direction with
Student X behind Student Y, as shown above. If Student X pushes on Student Y’s back, which of the
following is true?
(A) Both students roll backward,
(B) Student X rolls backward and Student Y remains still.
(C) Student X rolls backward and Student Y rolls forward.
(D) Student X remains still and Student Y rolls forward.
(E) Neither student moves.

Q.7) A woman weighing 500 newtons starts from rest, runs up a 5-meter-high flight of stairs in
5.0 seconds and stops at the top. The average power developed by the woman is most nearly

(A) 1,250 W
(B) 500 W
(C) 250 W
(D) 100 W
(E) 25 W

Questions 8–9

A car of mass M is moving around a perfectly circular track of radius R at a constant speed v.

8) The time it takes the car to go around the track is

R
(A) v
V2
(B) R
R
(C) 2πv
πR
(D) v
2πR
(E) v

N e w t o n ’ s L a w s , W o r k a n d E n e r g y | 15
9) The magnitude of the net force acting on the car is

(A) zero
(B) MvR
Mv
(C) R
Mv
(D) R2
Mv2
(E) R

10) Starting from rest, a 10 kiligram box slides down a 30 0 incline of length 3 meters, as shown above. It
is subject to a frictional force of 15 newtons while it is sliding. Its kinetic energy at the bottom of the
incline is

(A) 45 J
(B) 105 J
(C) 150 J
(D) 255 J
(E) 300 J

16 | N e w t o n ’ s L a w s , W o r k a n d E n e r g y
Questions 11 – 13

A ball is thrown straight up, and air resistance is negligible. The following give proposed combinations of
instantaneous velocity and instantaneous acceleration for points along the ball’s path.

Instantaneous Instantaneous
Velocity Acceleration

(A) Zero Zero

(B) Zero Downward

(C) Upward Downward

(D) Downward Upward

(E) Downward Downward

11) Which a combination occurs just after the ball is released?

12) Which combination occurs when the ball is at the top of its path?

13) Which combinations occur just before the ball returns to the point at which it was released?

N e w t o n ’ s L a w s , W o r k a n d E n e r g y | 17
Q.14) Which of the following graphs of position versus time is consistent with a zero net force
being applied to an object

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

18 | N e w t o n ’ s L a w s , W o r k a n d E n e r g y
Q.15) The figure above shows the velocity of a 5-kilogram object as a function of time. What
is the magnitude of the net force acting on this object?

(A) 1N
(B) 5N
(C) 20N
(D) 25N
(E) 100N
Q.16)An object of mass4x10 4 kilograms is accelerated by a net force of 2 x 1011 newtons. The object’s
acceleration is

(A) 5 x 10−8 m/s 2

(B) 2 x 10−7 m/s 2
(C) 5 x 106 m/s 2
(D) 2 x 107 m/s 2
(E) 8 x 1015 m/s 2

Questions 17 – 18

An 8-kilogram block with 36 joules of kinetic energy slides with speed v on a frictionless portion of a
horizontal surface, as shown above. The block then enters a rough portion of the surface and slides 2
meters before coming to rest.

17) The magnitude of the average frictional force exerted on the block by the rough surface is

(A) 9N
(B) 18N
(C) 36N
(D) 72N
(E) 144N
N e w t o n ’ s L a w s , W o r k a n d E n e r g y | 19
18) If the initial speed of the block were only v/2, the distance that it would slide on the rough surface
before coming to rest would be

(A) 0.25 m
(B) 0.5 m
(C) 1 m
(D) 2 m
(E) 4 m

19) A ball attached to a string is whirled around in a horizontal circle having a radius of 25 centimeters.
The radius of the circle is changed to 100 centimeters, but the speed of the ball remains constant. In
terms of the original centripetal force F, the new centripetal force applied to the ball is

1
(A) 4 F
1
(B) 2 F
(C) F
(D) 2F
(E) 4F

20) A long, flat metal ruler is clamped at one end. If the free end is pulled a small distance to one side in
the direction shown above and then released, the end will probably execute

(A) uniform linear motion

(B) projectile motion
(C) uniformly accelerated motion
(D) uniform circular motion
(E) harmonic motion

20 | N e w t o n ’ s L a w s , W o r k a n d E n e r g y
21) An object experiences a net force whose magnitude is constant but whose direction is continually
changing. If the object’s speed remains constant, it is moving along which of the following type of
path?

(A) A straight line

(B) An ellipse
(C) A circle
(D) A parabola
(E) A sine curve

Questions 22– 23

A 5.0-kilogram box is pulled to the right on a horizontal floor by a 20-newton force. The force acts at an
angle of 37o to the horizontal, so that it has components of 12 newtons upward and 16 newtons to the
right, as shown above. A 2.0-newton frictional force acts to the left.

22) The magnitude of the box’s acceleration is

(A) 7.6 m/s2

(B) 4.0 m/s2
(C) 3.6 m/s2
(D) 2.8 m/s2
(E) 0.4 m/s2

23) The coefficient of friction between the box and the floor is

(A) 1/6
(B) 1/10
(C) 1/19
(D) 1/25
(E) 1/33

N e w t o n ’ s L a w s , W o r k a n d E n e r g y | 21
24) Two blocks are suspended motionless near the surface of Earth by a cord passing over a frictionless
pulley, as shown above. Each block weighs 50 newtons. The force exerted on each block by the cord
is

(A) zero
(B) 25 N
(C) 50 N
(D) 100 N
(E) 200 N

25) If a body on which three forces are acting is in equilibrium, which of the following can be correctly
inferred?

I. The vector sum of the three forces is zero.

II. Two of the forces act in the same direction.
III. Each of the forces has the same magnitude.

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

22 | N e w t o n ’ s L a w s , W o r k a n d E n e r g y
26) Two blocks, of weight 3 newtons and 2 newtons, are attached to ropes A and B of negligible mass
and hung as shown above. What is the tension in each of the ropes?

Tension in A Tension in B

(A) 5N 5N

(B) 5N 2N

(C) 3N 2N

(D) 3N 1N

(E) 2N 1N

27) A constant net force acts on a moving body in the direction of the body in motion. As a result, there is
a continual increase in the magnitude of all of the following quantities pertaining to the body
EXCEPT

(A) acceleration
(B) kinetic energy
(C) momentum
(D) speed
(E) Velocity

N e w t o n ’ s L a w s , W o r k a n d E n e r g y | 23
28) A woman stands in an elevator. The force of gravity exerted on the woman by the Earth
is 500 newtons. If the elevator is accelerating upward, which of the following forces
would have a magnitude of 500 newtons?

I. The force exerted on the Earth by the woman

II. The force exerted on the woman by the floor of the elevator
III. The force exerted on the floor of the elevator by the woman

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

24 | N e w t o n ’ s L a w s , W o r k a n d E n e r g y
29) Assume that every projectile fired by the toy cannon shown above experiences a constant net force F
along the entire length of the barrel. If a projectile of mass m leaves the barrel of the cannon with a
speed v, at what speed will a projectile of mass 2m leave the barrel?
v
(A) 2
v
(B)
√2
(C) v
(D) 2v
(E) 4v

Questions 30-32

An automobile with a mass of 1.5 × 103 kilograms is traveling on a flat, level road. The above
graph shows the automobile’s speed as a function of time.

30) The automobile’s acceleration at the end of 60 seconds is

(A) 0.25 m/s2
(B) 2.5 m/s2
(C) 4 m/s2
(D) 15 m/s2
(E) 60 m/s2

31) The constant braking force applied to stop the car is

(A) 1.7 N
(B) 50 N
(C) 1.5 × 103 N
(D) 4.5 × 104 N
(E) 1.4 × 105 N
N e w t o n ’ s L a w s , W o r k a n d E n e r g y | 25
32) The speed of the automobile 10 seconds after the brakes are applied is

(A) 1 m/s
(B) 10 m/s
(C) 15 m/s
(D) 20 m/s
(E) 30 m/s

33) Two blocks of identical mass are connected by a light string as shown above. The surface is
frictionless and the pulley is massless and frictionless. The acceleration of the two-block system is
most nearly

(A) 20 m/s2
(B) 15 m/s2
(C) 10 m/s2
(D) 5 m/s2
(E) 2.5 m/s2

34) Consider the following four forces involving an object at rest on a tabletop.

I. The gravitational force on the object due to the Earth

II. The gravitational force on the Earth due to the object
III. The force on the tabletop due to the object
IV. The force on the object due to the table top

Which, if any of these forces are action reaction pairs

in accordance with Newton's third law?

(A) Pair I and II only

(B) Pair I and IV only
(C) Pair I and II, and pair III and IV
(D) Pair I and IV, and pair II and III
(E) There are no action-reaction pairs among these forces

26 | N e w t o n ’ s L a w s , W o r k a n d E n e r g y
35) An object of mass m rests on a horizontal frictionless surface. A force F making an angle θ with the
horizontal is then applied to the object to move it along the surface. The acceleration of the object is

F
(A) m
F
(B) 2m
F cos θ
(C)
m
F sin θ
(D) m
F tan θ
(E) m

Questions 36– 37

A person is standing on a scale that is located on a platform at the surface of Earth. The platform is
supported by a machine that can move the platform up and down at various accelerations while keeping it
level.

36) At what acceleration of the platform does the machine have to exert the LEAST force on the
platform?

(A) Zero
(B) 4.9 m/s2 down
(C) 9.8 m/s2 up
(D) 9.8 m/s2 down
(E) 19.6 m/s2 up

37) If the person’s weight has apparently doubled according to the reading on the scale, what is the
acceleration of the platform?

(A) About 9.8 m/s2 up

(B) About 9.8 m/s2 down
(C) About 19.6 m/s2 up
(D) About 19.6 m/s2 down
(E) It cannot be determined without knowing the mass of the person.

N e w t o n ’ s L a w s , W o r k a n d E n e r g y | 27
Two masses m1 and m2 are hung from the ceiling by two ropes as shown above. The tension in the
upper rope is T1 and then tension in the lower rope is T2.

38) Which of the following is correct?

(A) T1 is always greater than T2.

(B) T1 is always less than T2.
(C) T1 is always equal to T2.
(D) T1 is greater than T2 only if m1 is greater than m2.
(E) T1 is greater than T2 only if m2 is greater than m1

39) Which of the following best represents the forces acting on m2?

(A) (B)

(C)
(D)

(E)

28 | N e w t o n ’ s L a w s , W o r k a n d E n e r g y
Momentum and Rotational Motion

3kg 5kg

1 kg 4 kg

1) The system shown above consists of four masses arranged on the circumference of a circle. The
dashed lines are diameters of the circle. Which point is closest to the center of mass of the system?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E

II I Top
view

III IV

Initial Positon
of Three Objects

2) Three objects of equal mass are resting on a frictionless surface in contact with each other at the
origin of the coordinate axes, as shown above. A small explosive charge is set off in the center of the
arrangement and two of the objects move away from their initial position with velocities of 4 meters
per second east and 3 meters per second south, respectively. One can conclude that the third object is
moving

(A) in quadrant IV with a speed of 7 m/s

(B) in quadrant IV with a speed of 5 m/s
(C) in quadrant II with a speed of 5 m/s

M o m e n t u m a n d R o t a t i o n a l M o t i o n | 29
(D) in quadrant II with a speed of 1 m/s
(E) eastward with a speed of 4 m/s

3) A 3-kilogram sphere initially moving with a velocity of 2 meters per second to the right strikes a 1-
kilogram stationary sphere. The two spheres stick together when they collide and continue moving to
the right with a speed of

(A) 3.0 m/s

(B) 2.6 m/s
(C) 2.0 m/s
(D) 1.5 m/s
(E) 0.8 m/s

Questions 4 – 5

The figure above shows a 1-kilogram disc moving to the right at 2 meters per second. It collides with an
identical disc that is initially at rest. The figures below show a student’s proposed outcomes for the
velocities of the discs immediately after the collision. The dashed lines are components of velocities.

I. II. III.

30 | M o m e n t u m a n d R o t a t i o n a l M o t i o n
4) Kinetic energy is conserved for which of the proposed outcomes

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III

5) Momentum is conserved for which of the proposed outcomes?

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III

Questions 6 – 8

The following statements compare the magnitudes of the quantities in columns I and II below.

(A) The quantity in column I is greater.

(B) The quantity in column II is greater.
(C) The quantities in column I and column II are equal.
(D) It cannot be determined without knowing the initial position of the two objects.
(E) It cannot be determined without knowing the direction of the velocities of the two objects.

Assuming that g is constant and has the same value for both columns, which quantity in the following
pairs is greater?

I II
6) The magnitude of the momentum of a The magnitude of the momentum of a 0.5-
6,000-kilogram truck at rest kilogram ball moving at 100 meters per second
7) The increase in potential energy of a 10-
The increase in potential energy of a 5-kilogram
kilogram ball when it is raised 10 meters from
cube when it is raised 20 meters from the ground
the ground

8) The magnitude of the acceleration of a The magnitude of the acceleration of a small,

small, dense ball that is thrown straight up dense ball immediately after it has been released
when it reaches the top of its path at height h from rest from a height h

M o m e n t u m a n d R o t a t i o n a l M o t i o n | 31
9) Cart P, which has a mass of 4 kilograms and a velocity of 6 meters per second east collides with cart
Q, which has the same mass and is at rest. If cart Q has a velocity of 6 meters per second east after the
collision, the velocity of cart P after the collision will be

(A) 6 m/s west

(B) 0 m/s
(C) 4 m/s east
(D) 6 m/s east
(E) 24 m/s east

10) The frame above is made from four pieces of metal, each piece having a uniform density. The pieces
are all the same size and shape. The bottom piece has a mass seven times greater than the mass of the
other three pieces. Which of the points shown could be the center of mass of the frame?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E

11) All of the following are vector quantities EXCEPT

(A) acceleration
(B) force
(C) momentum
(D) velocity
(E) Work

32 | M o m e n t u m a n d R o t a t i o n a l M o t i o n
12) A force acts on an object for a short time interval Δt, as shown on the graph above. Which of the
following quantities is equal to the area under the curve?

(A) Speed
(B) Acceleration
(C) Work
(D) Kinetic energy
(E) Impulse

13) A person sits 3 meters from the center of a rotating platform. If the platform makes 5 revolutions per
minute, the speed of the person is most nearly

π
(A) m/s
4
π
(B) 2
m/s
3π
(C) 4
m/s
(D) Π m/s
(E) 2 π m/s

14) A net force of 10 Newtons accelerates a 5-kilogram object for a distance of 3 meters. The resulting
change in the kinetic energy of the object is

(A) 2 J
(B) 6J
(C) 15 J
(D) 30 J
(E) 150 J

M o m e n t u m a n d R o t a t i o n a l M o t i o n | 33
Questions 15 – 17 relate to calculations or explanations on the following principles.

(A) Conservation of energy alone

(B) Conservation of momentum alone
(C) Conservation of both energy and momentum
(D) Conservation of charge
(E) Mechanical equivalence of heat

15) Used to calculate the velocity of two moving freight cars, after they couple and move together, given
the initial masses and velocities of the freight cars.

16) Used to calculate the speed of a lump of clay that hits and sticks to a block of wood suspended as a
pendulum, given the height to which the block swings and the masses of the block and clay

17) Used to calculate the speed of a pendulum bob at the bottom of its swing given the height to which
the bob is released from rest

18) A system consists of two pucks moving without friction on a horizontal surface. If the pucks collide
elastically, properties of the system that are the same before and after the collision include which of
the following?

I. Momentum
II. Kinetic energy
III. Total energy

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

34 | M o m e n t u m a n d R o t a t i o n a l M o t i o n
Equilibrium, Gravitation and Oscillations

Each of the relationships below may be used to express a common law of physics. In each case x and y are
variable quantities and k is a constant.

(A) y = k . x
(B) y = k . x 2
k
(C) y =
x
(D) y = k . √x
k
(E) y =
√x

1) Which relationship could express the net force on an object with constant mass as a function of the
object’s acceleration?

2) Which relationship could express the force exerted by an ideal linear spring as a function of the
distance it is stretched?

Questions 3 – 4

Objects X and Y, of mass M and 2M, respectively, are attached as pendulum bobs to strings of equal
length. The objects are pulled back through the same small angle and released from rest so they swing
back and forth. The following represent possible relationships between quantities for the two objects.

(A) It is half as great for Y as for X.

1
(B) It is times as great for Y as for X.
√2
(C) It is the same for both objects.
(D) It is √2 times as great for Y as for X.
(E) It is twice as great for Y as for X.

3) The potential energy of the objects at the lowest points of their paths is zero. How does the potential
energy of object Y at the highest points of its path compare with that of object X at the highest point
of its path?

4) How does the velocity of object Y at the lowest point of its path compare with that of object X at the
lowest point of its path.

E q u i l i b r i u m , G r a v i t a t i o n a n d O s c i l l a t i o n s | 35
5) If the diameter of Earth were doubled while the mass of Earth remained the same, the force of
gravitational attraction between Earth and the Moon would be

(A) halved
(B) unchanged
(C) doubled
(D) tripled
(E) quadrupled

6) Which of the following changes will cause an increase in the period of a simple pendulum that is
swinging with small amplitude?

I. Increasing the length of the pendulum

II. Decreasing the mass of the pendulum bob
III. Decreasing the amplitude of the swing

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

36 | E q u i l i b r i u m , G r a v i t a t i o n a n d O s c i l l a t i o n s
7) A block of mass M on a horizontal, frictionless surface is connected to walls by two identical uniform
springs, as shown above. If the block is displaced to one side of its rest position and released, it
oscillates in the horizontal plane. Which of the following graphs best represents the velocity v of the
block as a function of time t?

E q u i l i b r i u m , G r a v i t a t i o n a n d O s c i l l a t i o n s | 37
Questions 8 – 9

A mass M moves in simple harmonic motion. Its potential energy U versus position x is graphed below.
The quantities a and b shown on the graph represent energy magnitudes and are always positive numbers.
The total mechanical energy of the mass is 𝐸𝑇 at position 𝑥0 .

(A) a
(B) b
a
(C) b
(D) b – a
(E) b + a

8) What is the potential energy of the mass at position x1 ?

9) What is the kinetic energy of the mass at position x1 ?

38 | E q u i l i b r i u m , G r a v i t a t i o n a n d O s c i l l a t i o n s
Questions 10 – 11

The figures below show satellites in circular orbits around Earth. The satellite masses are m and 2m, and
the radii of the orbits are R, 2R and 4R, as indicated.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

10) Which satellite experiences the greatest force of gravity?

11) Which satellite has the greatest kinetic energy?

E q u i l i b r i u m , G r a v i t a t i o n a n d O s c i l l a t i o n s | 39
12) The two blocks shown above have masses of M and 2M, respectively. When block I is placed on a
spring as shown, it comes to rest with the spring compressed at a distance x. if block I is replaced by
block II, the spring will be compressed by how much when block II comes to rest?

(A) x/2
(B) x/√2
(C) x
(D) √2x
(E) 2x

13) The figure above shows the elliptical orbit of a planet about a star. The points on the orbit represent
position of the planet at times t1, t2, t3, and t4. True statements include which of the following?

I. If the time intervals t2 - t1 and t4 - t3 are equal, the shaded areas A and B are equal.
II. The average speed of the planet between t1 and t2 is greater than that between t3 and t4.
III. The gravitational force acting on the planet is the same at t1 and t3.

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

40 | E q u i l i b r i u m , G r a v i t a t i o n a n d O s c i l l a t i o n s
14) A ball of the end of a massless string swings as a simple pendulum with constant amplitude. True
statements about the ball at the end points of its swing include which of the following?

I. Its total mechanical energy is less that at the bottom of its swing.
II. Its kinetic energy is less than at the bottom of its swing.
III. Its potential energy is greater than at the bottom of it swing.

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

E q u i l i b r i u m , G r a v i t a t i o n a n d O s c i l l a t i o n s | 41
Questions 15 – 17

The diagram shows a pendulum that swings to maximum height h above its lowest point Y. The mass of
the pendulum bob is 0.05 kilogram. At point Y, the bob has a speed of 3.0 meters per second.

15) The momentum of the pendulum bob as it passes through point Y is most nearly

(A) 0.05 kg·m/s

(B) 0.15 kg·m/s
(C) 0.23 kg·m/s
(D) 0.45 kg·m/s
(E) 0.50 kg·m/s

16) The height h is most nearly

(A) 0.15 m
(B) 0.30 m
(C) 0.45 m
(D) 0.60 m
(E) 0.90 m

17) If the potential energy of the pendulum bob is zero at point Y, the total energy (kinetic plus potential)
of the pendulum bob is most nearly

(A) 0.05 J
(B) 0.15 J
(C) 0.23 J
(D) 0.45 J
(E) 0.50 J

42 | E q u i l i b r i u m , G r a v i t a t i o n a n d O s c i l l a t i o n s
18) An object of mass m is attached to a vertically mounted spring that has a spring constant k. The object
is displaced from its equilibrium position and allowed to oscillate. Assume that air resistance and
friction are negligible. To increase the frequency of the motion, one could

(A) Increase the amplitude of the motion

(B) Change to a spring with a greater spring constant
(C) Mount the spring horizontally
(D) Attach an object of grater mass
(E) Attach an object of the same mass but greater density

19) A satellite moves in a circular orbit of radius r around a planet of mass M and radius R, as shown
above. The speed of the satellite would be greater if M and r were changed in which of the following
ways?

M r
(A) Decreased No change
(B) Decreased Increased
(C) No change No change
(D) No change Increased
(E) Increased No change

20) An object with a mass of 5 kilograms is placed at rest on an imaginary planet where the gravitational
field is 4 newtons per kilogram. One can be certain that the object on this planet, as compared to the
object when it is on Earth, will

(A) require a greater force to it on a horizontal surface at 1 m/s2

(B) have less weight
(C) have less mass
(D) have greater mass
(E) have greater acceleration

E q u i l i b r i u m , G r a v i t a t i o n a n d O s c i l l a t i o n s | 43
21) It takes an amount of work W to stretch a spring a distance x beyond its natural length. If the spring
obeys Hooke’s law, how much work is required to stretch the spring a distance 2x beyond its natural
length?

(A) W
(B) 2 W
(C) 3 W
(D) 4 W
(E) 6 W

22) A child on a swing can greatly increase the amplitude of the swing’s motion by “pumping” at the
natural frequency of the swing. This is an example of which of the following?

(A) Conservation of momentum

(B) Newton’s first law of motion
(C) Newton’s third law of motion
(D) Resonance
(E) Interference

44 | E q u i l i b r i u m , G r a v i t a t i o n a n d O s c i l l a t i o n s
Electrostatics and Electric potential

Questions 1-3

In the following diagram of electric fields, the arrows represent electric field lines (lines of force).

1) Which figure represents the field due to two equal but oppositely charged point particles?

2) Which figure represents the field due to a positively charged plate perpendicular to the page and a
single negative point charge in the plane of the page?

3) Which figure represents the field due to a single negative point charge?

-----------------------------------
q1 P q2
4) Two identical electric charges, q1 and q2 are arranged as shown above. A positive charge is place
midway between them at point P. True statements about the charges at P include which of the
following?

I. It exerts no force on q1.

II. It exerts no force on q2.
III. It experiences no net force.

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III

E l e c t r o s t a t i c s a n d E l e c t r i c p o t e n t i a l | 45
5) The diagram above shows the lines of electric field near two charged objects X and Y. Which of the
following correctly indicates the signs and relative magnitude of the changes Q x and Q y on the
objects X and Y, respectively?

𝑄𝑥 𝑄𝑦 Magnitude
(A) Negative Positive 𝑄𝑥 = 𝑄𝑦
(B) Negative Positive 𝑄𝑥 < 𝑄𝑦
(C) Positive Negative 𝑄𝑥 = 𝑄𝑦
(D) Positive Negative 𝑄𝑥 > 𝑄𝑦
(E) Positive Positive 𝑄𝑥 > 𝑄𝑦

6) Two small electricity charged balls 0.05 meter apart repel each other with a force of 4 x 10−4 newton.
When the charged balls are 0.10 meters apart in the same medium, the force of repulsion is

(A) 1 x 10−4 N
(B) 2 x 10−4 N
(C) 3 x 10−4 N
(D) 6 x 10−4 N
(E) 8 x 10−4 N

7) A proton shot vertically downward toward a horizontal, positively-charged plate moves until it is
brought to a stop by the repulsion of the plate. At this instant, which of the following statements is
INCORRECT?

(A) There is an electric force on the proton.

(B) There is an electric force on the plate.
(C) The kinetic energy of the proton is zero.
(D) The electric potential energy has its lowest value.
(E) The velocity of the proton is zero.

46 | E l e c t r o s t a t i c s a n d E l e c t r i c p o t e n t i a l
8) At which point just outside the surface of the charged, conducting object shown above is the electric
field greatest in magnitude?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E

9) A student decides to investigate the electrical shock she receives as she gets out of her car. Which of
the following factors is LEAST likely to have significant effect on the size of the shock?

(A) The materials her clothing contains

(B) The distance she slides across the seat when getting out
(C) The part of the car she touches as she gets out
(D) The humidity of the air
(E) Whether the engine is running

E l e c t r o s t a t i c s a n d E l e c t r i c p o t e n t i a l | 47
10) A positive charge and a negative charge of equal magnitude are situated near each other and are far
from any other charges. Which of the following diagrams most nearly depicts the electric field around
the charges?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

48 | E l e c t r o s t a t i c s a n d E l e c t r i c p o t e n t i a l
11) A negatively charged rod is held near end X of an uncharged metal object mounted on an insulated
stand, as shown above. Under these conditions, which of the following must be true?

(A) End X has a net negative charge.

(B) End Y has a net positive charge.
(C) Ends X and Y each have the same net positive charge.
(D) Ends X and Y each have the same net negative charge.
(E) Ends X and Y are at the same electric potential.

E l e c t r o s t a t i c s a n d E l e c t r i c p o t e n t i a l | 49
Questions 12 – 13 relate to the field lines that are shown in the following diagrams.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E)

12) Which diagram best represent the electric field produce by oppositely charged parallel plates.

13) Which diagram represents the electric field produced by two oppositely charged paticles.

14) If two electrically particles repel each other with forces of equal magnitude, then the charges must

(A) have different magnitudes

(B) have the same magnitude
(C) have different signs
(D) have the same sign
(E) be separated by unit distance

15) An electrically charged, insulated metal rod is observed to attract a neutral pith ball and, after contact
is made, to repel the ball. Which of the following can be concluded about the rod?

(A) The rod had a positive charge before contact and a negative charge after contact.
(B) The rod had a negative charge before contact and a positive charge after contact.
(C) The rod’s charge before and after contact had the same sign.
(D) The rod had a charge before contact, but no charge after contact.
(E) The rod had less charge before contact than after contact.

50 | E l e c t r o s t a t i c s a n d E l e c t r i c p o t e n t i a l
16) Two positive charges of magnitudes q and 4q are 6 centimeters apart, as shown above. If the electric
field is zero at point P (not shown) located on the line segment joining the charges, what is the
distance of point P from the charge of magnitude q?

(A) 1 cm
(B) 2 cm
(C) 3 cm
(D) 4 cm
(E) 5 cm

18) A negatively charged oil drop is maintained at rest between charged parallel plates, as shown above,
by balancing the downward gravitational force Fg on the drop with an upward electric force Fe. If the
mass of the oil drop is 1× 10-6 kilogram and the electric field strength between the plates is 10
newtons per coulomb, then the charge on the oil drop is most nearly

(A) 1× 10-3 C
(B) 1× 10-4 C
(C) 1× 10-5 C
(D) 1× 10-6C
(E) 1× 10-19 C

E l e c t r o s t a t i c s a n d E l e c t r i c p o t e n t i a l | 51
Questions 19 – 20

+
V

19) A parallel-plate capacitor is charged to a voltage V as shown above. If the plates of the capacitor are a
distance d apart, what is the magnitude of the electic field in the region between the plates?

(A) V/𝑑2
(B) V/d
(C) V
(D) Vd
(E) Vd2

20) How much work is done by an external force in moving a positive charge of magnitude q from the
bottom plate to the top plate of the capacitor?

(A) qV
(B) 𝑞 2 V
(C) 𝑉 2 q
(D) q/V
(E) V/q

52 | E l e c t r o s t a t i c s a n d E l e c t r i c p o t e n t i a l
Currents and Circuits, Magnetics and Induction

Question 1 – 3 refer to the figures below, which represent magnetic field lines.

1) Which figure represents the magnetic field between the poles of the two bar magnets shown above?

Axis

Solenoid Paper

2) A current-carrying solenoid is set in a hole in a sheet of paper, as shown above. The axis of the
solenoid lies in the plane of the paper. Which figure could represent the magnetic field in the plane of
the paper?

C u r r e n t s a n d C i r c u i t s , M a g n e t i c s a n d I n d u c t i o n | 53
3) A single, small, current-carrying loop passes through a sheet of paper, as shown above. Which figure
could represent the magnetic field in the plane of the sheet paper?

4) One would expect to find a magnetic field in the vicinity of all of the following EXCEPT a

(A) bar magnet

(B) horseshoe magnet
(C) moving electric charge
(D) stationary electric charge
(E) current-carrying wire

5) Doubling both the resistance of a circuit and the voltage applied to it multiplies the current in it by

1
(A) 4
1
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 2
(E) 4

54 | C u r r e n t s a n d C i r c u i t s , M a g n e t i c s a n d I n d u c t i o n
2 ohms
6 volts
2 ohms

6) Which of the following is most likely an error in the circuit shown above?

(A) The ammeter is placed incorrectly.

(B) The voltmeter is placed incorrectly.
(C) The switch S is located on the wrong side of the battery.
(D) The two resistors should not be in series.
(E) The resistance should not be less than the voltage.

Position 1 Position 2

7) A magnet moving steadily in the direction shown in the diagram above passes completely through a
coil and moves off to the right. Compared to the current in the coil when the magnet is passing
through position 1, the current in the coil when the magnet is passing through position 2 is

(A) zero
(B) greater in magnitude
(C) lesser in magnitude
(D) in the same direction
(E) in the opposite direction

C u r r e n t s a n d C i r c u i t s , M a g n e t i c s a n d I n d u c t i o n | 55
1Ω 2Ω 3Ω

12 V

8) Three resistors of 1 ohm, 2 ohms, and 3 ohms are in series with a 12-volt battery, as shown above.
The current in the 2-ohm resistor is most nearly

(A) 1 A
(B) 2 A
(C) 3 A
(D) 4 A
(E) 6 A
9) A 1.5 volt battery is connected to a 2.0 ohm resistor, a 1.0 microfarad capacitor, and a switch S, as
shown above. What is the voltage across the capacitor after the switch has been closed for a long
time?

(A) 0 V
(B) 0.75 V
(C) 1.0 V
(D) 1.5 V
(E) 3.0 V

10) Four identical resistors are connected in the circuit represented above. The largest current is through
which of the resistors?

(A) R1 only
(B) R 2 only
(C) R1 and R 2 only
(D) R 3 and R 4 only
(E) The current is the same through all the resistors

56 | C u r r e n t s a n d C i r c u i t s , M a g n e t i c s a n d I n d u c t i o n
11) An electron e is initially moving in a straight line toward the right and enters a region containing an
electric and magnetic field. The electric field is directed toward the top of the page, as shown. In what
direction should the magnetic field point in order to keep the electron moving in a straight line?

(A) Toward the top of the page

(B) Toward the bottom of the page
(C) Out of the page
(D) Toward the left
(E) Toward the right

12) A fluorescent lightbulb operating at 25 watts produces the same amount of light as an incandescent
lightbulb that operates at 100 watts. Which of the following gives the correct numerical calculation to
determine how much more energy in joules is consumed by the incandescent bulb in 2,000 hours?

(A) (75)(2,000)

(B) (75)(2,000)(60)

(C) (75)(2,000)(60)(60)

(D) (75)(,2000)
(60)(60)
(E) (75)(60)
(2,000)

13) Oersted observed that a current-carrying wire caused a nearly compass needle to be deflected. This
experimental result is interpreted as evidence that the current

(A) magnetized the wire

(B) magnetized the compass needle
(C) electrified the compass needle
(D) created an electric field
(E) created a magnetic field

C u r r e n t s a n d C i r c u i t s , M a g n e t i c s a n d I n d u c t i o n | 57
Questions 14 – 16

An experiment is perfomed using a strip of metal. The strip is connected in the circuit shown above, and
the voltage across the strip and the current passing through it are monitored. The best-fit line on a graph
of the resulting voltage current measurements appears as shown.

14) The graph shows that the strip obeys which of the following?

(A) Gauss’s law (B) Lenz’s law (C) Faraday’s Law (D) Ampere’s Law (E) Ohm’s Law

15) If you were to draw a standard circuit diagram for the circuit, which of the following symbols should
be used to represent the metal strip?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

16) The strip of metal is cut in half as shown above, and the experiment is repeated. Which of the voltage-
current curves shown below would result?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

58 | C u r r e n t s a n d C i r c u i t s , M a g n e t i c s a n d I n d u c t i o n
17) The relationship between units can be deduced from any correct equation that involves quantifies
with those units. From Farday’s law of induction, a volt can be deduced to be equivalent to which of
the following?

(A) tesla-meter 2 / second

(B) tesla-second/ meter 2
(C) tesla-meter/second
(D) tesla-second/meter
(E) tesla-second-meter

Questions 18 – 19

When a battery and lightbulb are connected, the bulb is brightly lit. This battery and lightbulb are then
connected to a capacitor and a switch is shown above. The switch is initially in position A.

18) After the switch has been in position A for a long time, what is the status of the lightbulb?

(A) Off
(B) On
(C) Flashing on and off
(D) Slowly getting brighter
(E) Slowly getting dimmer

19) The switch is then moved to position B. Which of the following describes the brightness of the
lightbulb after this is done?

(A) It is brightly lit and does not change.

(B) It is brightly lit at first and then gets dimmer.
(C) It is dimly lit and does not change.
(D) It is dimly at first, gets brighter, and the gets dimmer.
(E) It is dimly lit at first, gets brighter, and remains bright.

C u r r e n t s a n d C i r c u i t s , M a g n e t i c s a n d I n d u c t i o n | 59
20) Which of the following, when occurring separately, can produce an induced emf in coil A, which is
fixed in position?

I. Maintaining a steady current in another coil that is fixed in position near coil A
II. Switching off the current in another coil is fixed in position near coil A
III. Quickly moving a magnet into coil A

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

21) In the circuit shown above, the current through the battery is greatest when the switches are in which
of the following positions?

(A) I and III

(B) I and IV
(C) II and III
(D) II and IV
(E) The current is the same regardless of how the switches are positioned

22) A 20 Ohm resistor has a power rating of 10 watts. What is the maximum current possible through the
resistor without exceeding its power rating?

1
(A) √2 A
(B) 1 A
(C) √2 A
(D) 10 A
(E) 20 A

60 | C u r r e n t s a n d C i r c u i t s , M a g n e t i c s a n d I n d u c t i o n
23) The circuit above has reached equilibrium. What is the charge on the 2-microfarad capacitor?

(A) 0C
(B) 20 × 10-6 C
(C) 40 × 10-6 C
(D) 5C
(E) 20 C

C u r r e n t s a n d C i r c u i t s , M a g n e t i c s a n d I n d u c t i o n | 61
Magnetic Field

24) A wire loop of area A and resistance R is located in a magnetic field directed into the page, as shown
above, whose initial magnitude is B0. The field then increases by an amount ΔB in a time interval Δt.
The current induced in the loop depends on all of the following EXCEPT

(A) A
(B) R
(C) B0
(D) ΔB
(E) Δt

Questions 25– 26

The following diagram shows a permanent magnet and a coil of copper wire that is part of a closed
circuit.

25) What happens as the north pole of the magnet is moved at constant speed into the coil?

(A) The magnet gains potential energy.

(B) The magnet attracts the coil.
(C) The coil attracts the magnet.
(D) A current flows in the coil, producing a magnetic field.
(E) The magnetic loses kinetic energy.

62 | C u r r e n t s a n d C i r c u i t s , M a g n e t i c s a n d I n d u c t i o n
26) Which of the following would be different if the magnet were turned around so the south pole moved
into the coil at the same speed as before?

(A) The direction of the forces on the magnet

(B) The direction of the energy transfer
(C) The direction of the current in the coil
(D) The magnitude of the current in the coil
(E) The sign of the charges moving in the coil

27) An electric current in a copper wire is the result of the motion of which of the following?

(A) Copper atoms

(B) Copper oxide molecules
(C) Protons
(D) Electrons
(E) Neutrons

28) In the circuit shown above, the current through the battery will be greatest when the switches are in
which of the following positions?

(A) I and III

(B) I and IV
(C) II and III
(D) II and IV
(E) The current will be the same regardless of how the switches are positioned.

29) A magnet, whose poles are shown in the figure above, moves with velocity v toward a small object of
charge Q initially at rest. Which of the following is a correct statement about the force on the object
due to the magnet as the object initially encounters the field?

(A) It is zero.
(B) It is perpendicular to the page.
(C) It is directed parallel to the magnetic field.
(D) It is in the same direction as v.

C u r r e n t s a n d C i r c u i t s , M a g n e t i c s a n d I n d u c t i o n | 63
(E) It is in the same direction opposite to v.

30) A loop of wire shaped into a triangle, shown above, carries a current of 2 amperes in a clockwise
direction. A magnetic field of 6 teslas is directed into the paper. What are the magnitude and direction
of the force applied by the magnetic field to the 5-meter edge of the triangle?

31) A battery and three identical lightbulbs are connected as shown above. With the switch S close, the
brightness of each lightbulb is noted. When switch S is opened, the brightness of which of the
lightbulbs will change?

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

32) Which of the following is true of any material in a superconducting state that carries a current?

(A) It has a large magnetic field.

(B) It has no external magnetic field.
(C) It has no resistance.
(D) It has a temperature of absolute zero.
(E) It has a very high temperature.
64 | C u r r e n t s a n d C i r c u i t s , M a g n e t i c s a n d I n d u c t i o n
33) Four resistors of equal resistance R are connected as shown above. What is the total resistance
between points X and Y?

(A) R/4
(B) R/2
(C) R
(D) 2 R
(E) 4 R

34) A circuit consists of a battery of voltage V and a resistor of resistance R. The current through the
circuit is I. if the battery is changed to one of voltage 2V and the resistor to one with 4R, the current
through the circuit is

(A) 4I
(B) 2I
(C) I
(D) I/2
(E) I/4

C u r r e n t s a n d C i r c u i t s , M a g n e t i c s a n d I n d u c t i o n | 65
Questions 35– 36

The following statements refer to two uncharged iron rods, X and Y, shown below, that are used by some
students in an experiment. The rods look identical except that their ends are labeled with the numbers 1 to
4, as shown.

(A) Both rods are permanent magnets.

(B) Either rod X or rod Y is a permanent magnet, but not both.
(C) Either one or both of the rods are permanent magnets.
(D) Rod X is a permanent magnet, but rod Y is not.
(E) Rod Y is a permanent magnet, but rod X is not.

35) One student discovers that when the rods are held close together, end 2 attracts end 3. From this
observation alone, what can the student correctly conclude?

36) Another student discovers that end attracts end 3 and that end 1 attract end 4. From these observations
alone, what can the student correctly conclude?

66 | C u r r e n t s a n d C i r c u i t s , M a g n e t i c s a n d I n d u c t i o n
Waves and Optics

Questions 1 – 2 refer to the following wave phenomena

(A) Damping
(B) Refraction
(C) Dispersion
(D) Polarization
(E) Diffraction

1) Which phenomenon is most directly involved in explaining why the actual position of a star near
Earth’s horizon is below its observed position?

2) Which phenomenon is most directly involved in explaining why the loudness of the sound produced
when a large bell is struck with a hammer decreases over time?

3) An inverse square relationships exists between the pairs of quantities in which of the following?

I. The gravitational force between two massive particles and the distance separating them
II. The intensity of light from a point source and the distance from the source.
III. The distance traveled by an object in free fall and the time of fall.

(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

4) The image of a real object formed by the a plane mirror is

(A) real, inverted and the same size as the object

(B) real, upright and larger than the object
(C) virtual, upright and smaller than the object
(D) virtual, upright and the same size as the object
(E) virtual, inverted and larger than the object

W a v e s a n d O p t i c s | 67
5) When the light travels through a glass prism, as shown in the diagram above, the red light is deflected
less than the light of any other color. Which of the following is the explanation of this phenomenon?

(A) The red light is absorbed to a greater extent than the light of any other color.
(B) A prism polarizes the red light more than the light of any other color.
(C) The index of refraction of glass is less for the red light than for the light of any other color.
(D) The red light is scattered less by the glass thank is the light of any other color.
(E) The red light travels slower in a vacuum than the light of any other color.

6) Microwaves with a wavelength of 3 centimeters that are incident on a metal do not produce
photoelectrons because of which of the following?

(A) They are not electromagnetic radiation

(B) They are continuous waves and do not exhibit photon properties.
(C) They cannot be focused on a sample of material
(D) Their spectrum is too broad.
(E) Their photon energies are lower than the work function of any metal.

7) The index of refraction of medium X is 2.0 and the index of refraction of medium Y is 1.5. The ratio
speed of light in X
is
speed of light in Y

(A) 3
3
(B) 2
4
(C) 3
(D) 1
3
(E)
4

68 | W a v e s a n d O p t i c s
Pipe I
Antinode 𝑓1 =10Hz
Node
z

8) The two organ pipes shown above have identical lenghts. Pipe I is open at both ends, and the dashed
line represents the standing wave pattern for the fundamental frequency of 100 hertz. What is the
frequency of the fundamental tone of Pipe II, which is closed at one end?

(A) 25 Hz
(B) 50 Hz
(C) 75 Hz
(D) 100 Hz
(E) 150 Hz

9) When light of wavelength 450 nanometers and a certain intensity passes through a double slit and is
incident on a distant screen, a bright region called the central maximum appears a narrow band
directly opposite the slits on the screen. If instead, light of wavelenght 650 nanometers and equal
intensity passes through the apparatus, this region on the screen will appear

(A) the same color and brightness

(B) the same color but dimmer
(C) the same color but brighter
(D) a different color but still bright
(E) dark

10) Which of the following observations most clearly demonstrates the wave nature of light?

(A) The speed of light in vacuum is a constant.

(B) The refraction of light by a double convex lens converges light to a focus.
(C) Light transmitted through colored glass is reduced in intensity.
(D) Light reflected from a convex mirror appears to come from a virtual image behind the mirror.
(E) Light from two closely spaced slits produces a pattern of light and dark fringes.

11) A tube closed at one end resonates at its fundamental frequency when a tuning fork is held near the
open end. The ratio of the number of nodes to the number of antinodes in the standing wave is
(A) 1 to 2
(B) 1 to 1
(C) 2 to 1
(D) 3 to 1
(E) 4 to 1

W a v e s a n d O p t i c s | 69
12) Which of the following people is NOT commonly associated with the investigation of some property
of sound and light waves?

(A) Copernicus
(B) Huygens
(C) Doppler
(D) Newton
(E) Michelson

70 | W a v e s a n d O p t i c s
13) A light wave, traveling from one medium into a more optically dense medium, is partially reflected
and partially refracted at the interface, as shown in the figure above. If the angele of incidence, i, is
increased, which of the following is true about angle r and angle s?

Angle r Angle s

(A) Increases Increases

(B) Increases Decreases
(C) Decreases Increases
(D) Decreases Decreases
(E) Remains the same Remains the same

14) The wave phenomenon knows as beats occurs under which of the following circumstances?

(A) A wave passs from a less dense into more dense medium.
(B) Two waves of slightly different frequencies and the same amplitude are superimposed on each
other
(C) Two waves of slightly different amplitudes and the same frequency are superimposed on each
other
(D) A wave is reflected off a stationary wall
(E) A wave passes through a narrow slit

W a v e s a n d O p t i c s | 71
15) Light rays S and T enter and emerge from a box with open sides as shown above. Which of the
following optical devices could be inside the box to produce this pattern of light rays?

(A) Plane Mirror

(B) Convex Mirror
(C) Concave Mirror
(D) Converging Lens
(E) Diverging Lens

Questions 16 – 18 refer to the following phenomena.

(A) Polarization
(B) Interference
(C) Reflection
(D) Refraction
(E) Scattering

Select the phenomenon that most directly explains each of the following.

16) A block of glass is used to shift the path o a beam of light as shown above.

17) A magnifying glass is used to read some very small numbers?

18) The Sun appears red at sunset.

72 | W a v e s a n d O p t i c s
Questions 19 – 21

The following diagram represents a traveling wave a particular instant of time.

19) The wavelenght of the wave is

(A) 3 cm
(B) 4 cm
(C) 6 cm
(D) 8 cm
(E) 12 cm

20) The amplitude of the wave is

(A) 2 cm
(B) 3 cm
(C) 4 cm
(D) 6 cm
(E) 8 cm

21) If the frequency of the wave is 100 hertz, then the period of the wave is

(A) 0.001 s
(B) 0.01 s
(C) 0.1 s
(D) 10 s
(E) 100 s

W a v e s a n d O p t i c s | 73
22) Some tornado researchers see a faraway tornado moving straight toward them. They see bolt of
lightning from the cloud above the tornado and 20 seconds later hear thunder. Exactly 40 seconds
after seeing the first lightning bolt, they see a second bolt and hear the second thunder 18 seconds
later. If the speed of sound in air is 340 meters per second, the average speed the tornado is traveling
is most nearly

(A) 17 m/s
(B) 34 m/s
(C) 150 m/s
(D) 310 m/s
(E) 680 m/s

23) Telephone messages can be transmitted via visible light. This technology is based on the use of

(A) microwave relay towers

(B) fiber-optic cables
(C) superconductors
(D) liquid crystals
(E) cathode-ray tubes

24) Which of the following devices, when used separately, can spread out white light into its component
wavelength?
I. A diffraction grating
II. A prism
III. A front-surface mirror

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III

25) An ideal spherical sound wave propagates outward from a small stationary speaker in a uniform
atmosphere. Which of the following properties of the wave decreases as the sound moves away from
the speaker?

(A) Its speed of propagation

(B) Its frequency
(C) Its wavelenght
(D) Its amplitude
(E) Its pitch

74 | W a v e s a n d O p t i c s
26) An object is placed on the optical axis of a double convex lens as shown above. The image of the
object is

(A) smaller than the object and upright

(B) smaller than the object and upside down
(C) of the same size as the object and upright
(D) of the same size as the object and upside down
(E) larger than the object and upright

27) A beam of light is diffracted by a single narrow slit, forming a pattern of light and dark fringes on a
distant screen placed as shown above. What happens to the width of the central bright fringe and the
distance between adjacent bright fringes if the slit is narrowed?

Width of Distance
Central Fringe Between Fringes
(A) Decreases Decreases
Remains the
(B) Decreases
same
Remains the
(C) Increases
same
Remains the
(D) Increases
same
(E) Increases Increases

W a v e s a n d O p t i c s | 75
28) When monochromatic light is passed through two narrow parallel slits, processes that occur include
which of the following?
I. The light is diffracted at each slit.
II. The waves from the two slits exhibit interference.
III. The wavelength of the light decreases.

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

29) Which of the following waves can exhibit interference phenomena?

I. Sound waves
II. Light waves
III. Surface waves on water

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

30) A ripple tank is set up as shown above with a straight wave generator bar sending periodic waves
from the deep section of the tank into the shallow section. The speed of the waves is 30 centimeters
per second in the shallow end and 24 cm/s in the shallow end. If the wavelength of the waves in the
deep end is 4.0 centimeters, their wavelength in the shallow end will be

(A) 2.75 cm
(B) 3.2 cm
(C) 4.0 cm
(D) 6.0 cm
(E) 12 cm

76 | W a v e s a n d O p t i c s
31) A horizontal string, fixed at both ends, is made to vibrate in a standing wave pattern. Pictures of the
vibrating string at different moments in time could not include which of the following?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

W a v e s a n d O p t i c s | 77
32) The diagram above is a top view of an object and a plane mirror. The image would appear to be in
which of the following positions?

(A)
(B)

(C) (D)

(E)

33) A convex lens is used as a magnifier when a real object O is placed inside the focus F, as shown
above, the image produced is

(A) real and inverted

(B) real and upright
(C) virtual and inverted
(D) virtual and upright
(E) none of the above

78 | W a v e s a n d O p t i c s
34) The separation of white light into colors by a glass prism is a result of

(A) interference
(B) diffraction
(C) total internal reflection
(D) variation of absorption with wavelength
(E) variation of index of refraction with frequency

35) Eyeglasses, magnifying glasses, and optical microscopes depend for their operation primarily on the
phenomenon of

(A) reflection
(B) refraction
(C) interference
(D) dispersion
(E) Diffraction

36) One harmonic note of a note produced by a flute has a wavelength λ and an associated frequency f. If
the wavelength of another harmonic of this note is 2λ, what is its associated frequency?

(A) ¼ f
(B) ½ f
(C) f
(D) 2f
(E) 4f

37) Sound waves can exhibit which of the following wave properties?

I. Interference
II. Diffraction
III. Refraction

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

W a v e s a n d O p t i c s | 79
l

38) Polarizing sheets X and Y shown above are oriented so that none of the unpolarized light shining on
X is transmitted through Y. Axis l is perpendicular to both sheets. Which of the following will result
in the transmission of light through Y?

(A) Rotation of Y by 90° about axis l

(B) Rotation of Y by 180° about axis l
(C) Rotation of Y by 360° about axis l
(D) Placement of a third polarizer between X and Y, with its polarizing axis oriented the same way
as X
(E) Placement of a third polarizer between X and Y, with its polarizing axis oriented the same way
as Y

39) A worker hits a metal pipe with a hammer. The ratio of the intensity of loudness as heard by people
standing 100 meters away from the worker to the intensity as heard by people standing 200 meters
away from the worker is

(A) 4:1
(B) 2:1
(C) 1:1
(D) 1:2
(E) 1:4

80 | W a v e s a n d O p t i c s
40) A light ray is incident from air upon a semicircular piece of glass as shown above. Which of the
labeled rays represent the subsequent path of the light?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E

41) Huygens’ principle states that every point on a wave front is the source of a new wave front. To
which of the following types of waves does Huygens’ principle apply?

I. Water waves
II. Sound waves
III. Electromagnetic waves

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

42) A beam of light traveling through the air strikes the surface of a material in which the speed of light is
different from what is in the air. Which of the following is true of the light as it passes into the new
medium?

(A) The frequency changes but the wavelength stays the same.
(B) The wavelength changes but the frequency stays the same.
(C) Neither the frequency not the wavelength change.
(D) Both the frequency and the wavelength change.
(E) Since the speed of light is a universal constant, the speed in the new material is the same as it
was in air.

W a v e s a n d O p t i c s | 81
43) An object O is just outside the focal point F of a concave mirror, as shown in the diagram above. As
the object is moved away from the mirror, the image will do which of the following?

(A) Decrease in size and move closer to the mirror.

(B) Decrease in size and move farther from the mirror.
(C) Increase in size and move closer to the mirror.
(D) Increase in size and move farther from the mirror.
(E) It cannot be determined without knowing the exact focal length.

44) Which of the following occurs when light is reflected from a smooth flat glass surface, as shown
above?

(A) The light is somewhat intensified.

(B) The light is somewhat polarized.
(C) The light is focused.
(D) The velocity of the light is reduced.
(E) The color of the light is shifted toward the blue end of the spectrum.

82 | W a v e s a n d O p t i c s
45) Light of wavelength λ is incident from the left on a pair of narrow slits, as shown above. If point P is
a bright spot (maximum density) on a distant screen, one can be certain that the difference between
distance x and y is

(A) zero
(B) λ/2
(C) nλ, where n is an integer
(D) (n + ½)λ, where n is an integer
(E) (n - ½)λ, where n is an integer

W a v e s a n d O p t i c s | 83
Thermal Physics and Modern Physics

Questions 1 – 2 relate to the following nuclei.

(A) 20
10Ne

22
(B) 10Ne

23
(C) 11Na

(D) 25
11Na

23
(E) 12Mg

1) Which nucleus has the most protons?

2) Which nucleus has the most neutrons?

3) A sample contains a radioactive substance with a half-life of 10 days. The initial activity of the
sample is 2,560 per counts per minute. After 40 days the activity (excluding background) is most
nearly

(A) 0 counts/min
(B) 64 counts/min
(C) 128 counts/min
(D) 160 counts/min
(E) 640 counts/min

4) Ernest Rutherford based his atomic model on the results of a series of experiments involving alpha
particle scattering. Which of the following did he conclude from these experiments?

(A) Atoms are indivisible.

(B) Atoms may contain neutrons.
(C) The electrons in an atom can have only certain discrete energies.
(D) The positive charge in the atom is concentrated in a small region.
(E) Atoms contain equal amounts of positive and negative charges.

84 | T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s
+4 eV ----- ------
+2 eV ----- ------
Ground ----- ------- Two atoms in a ground state

5) A box contains 2 identical atoms, each in its ground state (lowest energy state), as shown in the
energy-level diagram above. Each atom hastwo excited states, at 2eV and at 4eV above ground level.
A 4eV photon enters the box and is absorbed. Which of the following sets of diagrams illustrates a
possible state of the atoms immediately after the photon is absorbed?

(A) +4 eV ----- ------

+2 eV ----- ------
Ground ----- ------

(B) +4 eV ----- ------

+2 eV ----- ------
Ground ----- ------

(C) +4 eV ----- ------

+2 eV ----- ------
Ground ----- ------

(D) +4 eV ----- ------

+2 eV ----- ------
Ground ----- ------

(E) +4 eV ----- ------

+2 eV ----- ------
Ground ----- ------

T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s | 85
6) A person on Earth observes a spaceship to be traveling at a speed of 0.5c. Astronauts on the spaceship
measure the length of the spaceship and the time interval it takes them to run an experiment. Which of
the following describes how the measurements made by the person on Earth compare with those
made by the astronauts?

Length Observed from Time Interval

Earth Observed from Earth

(A) Longer Longer

(B) Longer Shorter

(C) The same Longer

(D) The same Shorter

(E) Shorter Longer

Questions 7 – 8
80
70
60
Temperature (0C)

50
40
30
20
10
0
0 1 2 3 4
Time (hours)

The graph above shows the temperature of the water in a tank as a function of time as the water was
allowed to cool in a room whose temperature was held constant.

7) The temperature of the room in which the tank of water was cooling must have been closest to
(A) 00 C
(B) 100 C
(C) 200 C
(D) 400 C
(E) 600 C

86 | T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s
8) The tank of water loses 8 x 105 joules of heat energy for every 10 C that it cools. What is the
approximate rate of energy loss by the tank when it is at a temperature of 340 C?

J
(A) 0.08 x 106 ⁄hr
J
(B) 8 x 106 ⁄hr
J
(C) 18 x 106 ⁄hr
J
(D) 27 x 106 ⁄hr
(E) The approximate loss cannot be determined without knowing the mass of the water in the tank.

9) Heat energy may be transferred from one region to another by which of the following processes?
I. Thermal conduction
II. Thermal convection
III. Radiation

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II and III

10) If the speed of light is 3 x 108 meters per second and the wavelength of light in a certain spectral line
is 5 x 10−7 meter, then the frequency of this light is most nearly

(A) 1.67 x 10−15 Hz

(B) 6.00 x 10−2 Hz
(C) 6.00 x 1014 Hz
(D) 1.67 x 1015 Hz
(E) 15 Hz

11) In an automobile engine, the hot gaseous combustion products in the cylinder do work as they expand
against the piston of the cylinder. Heat is exhausted to the atmosphere during each complete cycle of
the engine. According to the laws of thermodynamics, which of the following is true?

(A) The expanding gases do no work on the piston.

(B) The heat exhausted to the atmosphere cannot be zero.
(C) The work done is equal to the energy initially absorbed.
(D) The engine will always operate at the ideal maximum efficiency.
(E) The engine will always operate at the ideal maximum efficiency.

T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s | 87
12) Ice, water and water vapor are kept in a perfectly insulated container. After an extended period of
time, which of the following is true?

(A) The ice is colder than the water.

(B) The water is colder than the water vapor.
(C) All of the contents of the container are at the same temperature.
(D) The ice has more thermal energy than an equal mass of the water.
(E) The ice becomes “old ice” and sinks.

13) A metal rod length L and cross-sectional area A connects a hot substance of temperature Th to a colder
substance of temperature Tc . If all other factors remain constant, the rate of heat conduction along the
rod decreases when

(A) The thermal conductivity of the rod increases.

(B) L decreases
(C) A increases
(D) Th increases
(E) Tc increases

Questions 14 – 16 refer to the following thermodynamic statements.

(A) The amount of thermal energy an object can absorb depends on its heat capacity.
(B) A material remains at constant temperature while undergoing a phase change.
(C) The change in an object’s internal energy depends on the heat added to it and the work done on it.
(D) In any thermodynamic process, the net entropy of the universe increase.
(E) Different materials have different coefficients of thermal expansion.

14) Which statement helps explain why a strip made of two thin metal pieces will bend when heated?

15) Which statement helps explain why reducing the volume of a gas at a constant pressure will increase
its temperature, even if no heat s added to the gas?

16) Which statement explains why heat flows from warmer to colder objects?

88 | T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s
17) Heat is supplied at a constant rate to a sample of gold, raising its temperature from 00 C to 13000C.
The melting point of the gold is 10640C. Which of the following is the best graph of the temperature
of the gold as a function of time during this process?

(A)
Temperature

(B)
Temperature

(C)
Temperature

(D)
Temperature

(E)
Temperature

T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s | 89
18) A solid of mass m, initial temperature 100 C, and specific heat cs is placed in a liquid that has the
same mass, but has initial temperature 200 C and specific heat CD with CL > CS . If no heat is lost to
the surroundings, which of the following statements is true of the final temperature T of the solid and
liquid?

(A) T < 100 C

(B) 100 C < T < 150 C
(C) T = 150 C
(D) 150 C < T < 200 C
(E) T > 200 C

19) According to present theory, which of the following is one reason that an object traveling slower than
the speed of light in a vacuum cannot be accelerated to the speed of light?

(A) Time would go backward.

(B) The object’s energy would become infinite.
(C) The object’s length would become infinite.
(D) The object’s density would approach zero.
(E) The object would become invisible.

Z
85 86 87 88 89
232 A Parent
231
A 230 B C
229
228 D E

20) A radioactive parent atom has an atomic number of 89 and an atomic mass of 232. The atom
undergoes alpha decay. Which letter shows the position of the resultant daughter atom?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E

90 | T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s
21) An energy level diagram for a hypothetical atom is shown in the figure above. If all transitions were
possible, how many absorption special lines could this atom exhibit due to transitions between these
three levels?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) Five

22) A heat engine absorbs heat from a reservoir at 500 K and exhausts heat to a reservoir at 300 K. What
is the maximum possible efficiency of the engine?

(A) 20%
(B) 40%
(C) 60%
(D) 80%
(E) 100%

23) Which of the following people did NOT make a significant contribution to the study of heat or
thermodynamic?

(A) Joule
(B) Celsius
(C) Fahrenheit
(D) Snell
(E) Carnot

T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s | 91
24) When a beam of alpha particles passs through a thin gold foil, almost all of the particles pass through
the foil with little deviation. However, a very few emerge from the foil traveling in a direction
opposite to that in which they entered. Rutherford explained this phenomenon by mean of an atomic
model which assumed that each gold atom has

(A) a very small, massive, positively charged nucleus

(B) a large positive charge with embedded electrons
(C) a large number of electrons each of which must have wave properties
(D) a large number of electrons moving around a nucleus in circular orbits
(E) positively and negatively charged particles of equal mass

25) All isotopes of carbon have the same

(A) atomic mass

(B) nuclear charge
(C) physical properties
(D) half-life
(E) charge-to-mass ratio

26) Which of the following is true electrons?

(A) They cannot ionize air.

(B) They can cause an interference pattern.
(C) They travel only at the speed of light.
(D) The have no mass when at rest.
(E) The have no mass when in motion

27) A person on Earth observes a particle traveling east at a relativistic speed of 0.6c and a spaceship
traveling west at 0.6c. Which of the following correctly describes the particle’s speed as measured by
an observer in the spaceship?

(A) Greater than c

(B) c
(C) Greater than 0.6c but less than c
(D) 0.6c
(E) Less than 0.6c

92 | T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s
28) The length of a metal rod increases by 0.003 centimeter when its temperature is raised from 20°C to
22°C. How much would the length of the rod increase if its temperature were raised from 20°C to
30°C?

(A) 0.030 cm
(B) 0.024 cm
(C) 0.018 cm
(D) 0.015 cm
(E) 0.012 cm

T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s | 93
29) In the following diagrams, the temperatures and masses of two blocks are given. In which of the
diagrams does the arrow correctly show the direction of heat transfer when the blocks are brought
into contact?

I.

II.

III.

(A) II only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) II and III only

30) In each of five experiments, the values of two variables, x and y, are recorded for each of many trials
of the experiment. Each of the following graphs show a plot of these data for one experiment. In
which graph are the variables best relate by the equation y = a + bx, where a and b are positive
constants?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E)

94 | T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s
31) When the bulb of an ordinary thermometer made of mercury in glass is warmed, the mercury rises in
the stem because

(A) mercury has a large heat capacity

(B) the coefficient of volume expansion of mercury is greater than that of glass
(C) glass expands rapidly when heated
(D) a cavity in a solid body becomes smaller when the body is heated
(E) mercury has a smaller specific heat that many other substances

32) The graph of pressure p versus volume V for a sample of ideal gas shows two possible paths, X and
Y, that take the gas from state i to state f. How do the changes in internal energy of the gas compare
for the two paths?

(A) It is greater for path X.

(B) It is greater for path Y.
(C) It is the same for both paths.
(D) It cannot be determined without knowing the temperatures of states i and f.
(E) It cannot be determined without knowing the heat added in each case.

33) A heat engine absorbs heat from a reservoir at 500 K and exhausts heat to a reservoir at 300 K. what
is the maximum possible efficiency of the engine?

(A) 20%
(B) 40%
(C) 60 %
(D) 80 %
(E) 100%

34) All isotopes of carbon have the same

(A) atomic mass

(B) nuclear charge
(C) physical properties
(D) half-life
(E) charge-to-mass ratio

T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s | 95
35) A nucleus at rest undergoes a radioactive decay in which a beta particle (an electron) is emitted. The
total momentum of the electron and the nucleus remaining after the decay is not zero. This can be
explained by which of the following?

(A) The decay does not conserve energy.

(B) Another particle besides the electron was emitted during the decay.
(C) The nucleus has changed its atomic number during the decay.
(D) The number has changed it atomic mass during the decay.
(E) The electron has undergone further decay after the first decay.

Questions 36 – 38

(A) Coefficient of linear expansion

(B) Latent heat of fusion
(C) Latent heat of vaporization
(D) Specific heat
(E) Coefficient of thermal conductivity

Select the quantity above that should be used in the calculation of each of the following.

36) The amount of heat required to change 100 grams of ice at 0°C into water at 0°C.

37) The temperature at which a 0.5-centimeter gap between 1.0 meter concrete slabs in a sidewalk will
close up completely.

38) The time required for 100 joules of heat to pass through a copper rod of length 2 meters and cross-
sectional area 0.5 square meter that connects two objects at different temperatures.

Questions 39 – 40 relate to the following particles.

(A) Electron
(B) Neutron
(C) Proton
(D) Neutrino
(E) Photon

39) Which particle constitutes the nucleus of an ordinary hydrogen atom?

40) Which charged particle in the list is least massive?

96 | T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s
Questions 41 – 42

A heat engine operates between two reservoirs, one at a temperature of 300 K and the other at 200 K. In
one cycle, the engine absorbs 600 joules of heat and does 150 joules of work.

41) How much heat is exhausted by the engine in one cycle?

(A) 150 J
(B) 450 J
(C) 550J
(D) 600 J
(E) 750 J

42) The actual efficiency of the engine is most nearly

(A) 75%
(B) 67%
(C) 50%
(D) 33%
(E) 25%

43) All of the following scientists made significant contributions to the field of nuclear physics EXCEPT

(A) Galileo
(B) Rutherford
(C) Becquerel
(D) Curie
(E) Fermi

44) Which of the following distinguishes an atom of one isotope of an element from an element from an
atom of a different isotope of the same element?

(A) The addition or loss of a beta particle

(B) The addition or loss of an alpha particle
(C) The amount of nuclear charge
(D) The number of orbital electrons
(E) The amount of nuclear mass

T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s | 97
45) A hydrogen atom, originally in its ground state, absorbs a photon and goes into an excited state, the
atom will then most likely

(A) be ionized
(B) emit a photon
(C) emit an electron
(D) always be in that excited state
(E) undergo nuclear fission

46) When coal burns, it produces heat in the amount of 2.5 × 104 joules per gram. About 4,000 joules of
heat is required to raise the temperature of one kilogram of water by one degree. The amount of coal
required to heat 5 kilograms of water from 10°C to 60°C is most nearly

(A) 10 grams
(B) 40 grams
(C) 100 grams
(D) 400 grams
(E) 1,600 grams

47) When a person touches the metal part of a bicycle handlebar on a cold day, the metal seems much
colder than the plastic handgrip, even though both are at the same temperature. This phenomenon is
due primarily to which of the following?

(A) The thermal conductivity of the metal is greater than that of the plastic.
(B) The thermal conductivity of the metal is less than that of the plastic.
(C) The density of the metal is greater than that of the plastic.
(D) The density of the metal is less than that of the of the plastic.
(E) The latent heat of fusion of the metal is greater than that of the plastic.

98 | T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s
48) Two identical, human-looking robots are standing and facing forward in separate spaceships. Both
ships are moving at 0.8c but are traveling in opposite directions, as shown above. If a person on the
spaceship with robot A could make measurements on both robots, which of the following would the
person observe to be different?

(A) The robots’ heights

(B) The length of the robots’ feet from toe to heel
(C) The width of the robots’ faces
(D) The length of the robots’ legs
(E) The width of the robots’ shoulders

49) The experimental study of the photoelectric effect and its analysis by Einstein confirmed the
assumption of the

(A) photon aspect of light

(B) crystal structure of materials
(C) discrete charge on the electron
(D) energy-mass relationship of special relativity
(E) uncertainty principle of position and momentum

50) The radius of the first Bohr orbit of an electron in a hydrogen atom is about 10-11 meter. The radius of
the nucleus is about 10-15 meter. If a model of the hydrogen atom were built with the diameter of the
electron orbit equal to the width of a classroom (about 10 meters), which of the following would most
closely represent the size of the nucleus?

(A) The chair you are sitting in

(B) Your head
(C) The eraser on the end of a new pencil
(D) The point of a ball point pen
(E) A red blood cell

T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s | 99
51) The density of a certain material is 3 grams per cubic centimeter. What is the density of the material
expressed in kilograms per cubic meter?

(A) 0.3 kg/m3

(B) 3 kg/m3
(C) 30 kg/m3
(D) 300 kg/m3
(E) 3,000 kg/m3

100 | T h e r m a l P h y s i c s a n d M o d e r n P h y s i c s
2020

Chemistry Workbook

The Princeton Review

ScorePlus
Chemistry Workbook

Atomic Structure ................................................ 1

Periodic Table..................................................... 8
Molecular Bonding ........................................... 12
Molecular Structure ......................................... 15
Molecular Interactions ..................................... 19
Phases and Phase Changes .............................. 21
Solutions .......................................................... 26
Kinetics ............................................................. 34
Equilibrium ....................................................... 38
Acids and Bases ................................................ 46
Thermochemistry ............................................. 51
Electrochemistry .............................................. 54
Descriptive and Lab Chemistry ........................ 57
Miscellaneous .................................................. 63
26) Electrons in atoms absorb and emit energy
only
Atomic Structure
SET 1 (A) In large amounts enough for ionization
(B) In discrete amounts called quanta
50) Correct statements concerning the ground (C) In the visible region of the spectrum
state atoms of halogen group include which (D) When the atoms are in molecules
of the following? (E) When the atoms are in colored
I. The atoms have the same number of molecules
valence electrons
II. The atoms are isotopes of one
another 42) A sample originally contained 8.0 g of Ra-
III. The atoms have the same number of 225. If the half-life of Ra-225 is 8 days, in
occupied energy levels. how man days will the sample contain only
1.0 g of Ra-225?
(A) I only
(B) III only (A) 8 days
(C) I and II (B) 15 days
(D) II and III (C) 24 days
(E) I, II and III (D) 45 days
(E) 60 days

59) Which of the following statements

concerning the quantum number n is 54) Which of the following configurations is
correct? that of an element of the group in the
periodic table that contains nitrogen?
(A) It describes the spin of the electron.
(B) It is the principal quantum number. (A) 1s 2 2s2 2p4
(C) It represents the shape of the atomic (B) 1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s2
orbital. (C) 1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
(D) It indicates the spatial orientation of the (D) 1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
atomic orbital. (E) 1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s 2
(E) It indicates the total number of electrons
in an atom.

24) Positive ions are formed when neutral atoms

(A) Gain neutrons

(B) Gain nuclear charge
(C) Release energy
(D) Lose protons
(E) Lose electrons

Atomic Structure |1
69) For which of the following elements in the 26) The half-life for the radioactive decay of
ground state are there valence electrons in isotope X is 10 minutes. If 12 grams of X
the p orbitals? are initially present, how many grams of X
will remain after 30 minutes?
I. Chlorine
II. Oxygen (A) 1.5 g
III. Magnesium (B) 3.0 g
(C) 4.5 g
(A) I only (D) 6.0 g
(B) II only (E) 10.5 g
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II and III 62) Which of the following is the same for both
24
12Mg
2+
and 199F − ?

Questions 16 – 18 refer to the elements for (A) Atomic number

which ground-state electron configurations (B) Mass number
are shown below. (C) Number of protons
(D) Number of neutrons
(A) [He]2s 2 2p4 (E) Number of electrons
(B) [He]2s 2 2p5
(C) [Ne]3s1 66) What is the highest energy orbital occupied
(D) [Ne]3s2 by electrons in the ground state of a chlorine
(E) [Ar]4s 2 3d6 atom?

16) Has only two unpaired electrons (A) 2s

(B) 3s
17) Has the lowest first ionization energy (C) 2p
(D) 3p
18) Has the highest electronegativity (E) 3d

67) An isotope of element X forms an oxide that

25) Which of the following is the ground-state is64 percent oxygen by mass. If the formula
electron configuration of an alkali metal? of the oxide is XO, what is atomic mass of
X?
(A) 1s 2
(B) 1s 2 2s2 2p5 (A) 9.0
(C) 1s 2 2s2 2p6 (B) 18
(C) 25
(D) 1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(D) 36
(E) 1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2
(E) 52

2|Atomic Structure
Questions 7 – 9 refer to the following. 15) Contains one pair of electrons in the ground-
state electron configuration of the lithium
(A) Reduction potential atom
(B) Ionization energy (ionization potential)
(C) Electronegativity 16) Is exactly one half filled in the ground state
(D) Heat of formation of the phosphorous atom
(E) Activation energy
17) Contains the valence electrons in the
7) Is the energy change accompanying the ground-state electron configuration of the
synthesis of a compound from its elements magnesium atom
in their standard states.

8) Is the energy need to remove an electron

27) The number of electrons in 118 2+
50Sn is
from a gaseous atom in its ground state.

9) Is the minimum energy needed for (A) 2

molecules to react and form products (B) 48
(C) 50
(D) 52
Questions 10 and 12 refer to the following (E) 68
pairs of substances.

(A) NH3 and N2 H4 47) The ionization energies of Li and H are 520
(B) 16O and 17O kJ/mol and 1,312 kJ/mol, respectively. The
(C) NH4 Cl and NH4 NO3 ionization energy of He is
(D) CH3 − O − CH3 and NH4 NO3
(E) O2 and O3 (A) 496 kJ/mol
(B) 656 kJ/mol
10) Are isotopes. (C) 899 kJ/mol
(D) 1,086 kJ/mol
12) Are allotropes. (E) 2,372 kJ/mol

Questions 14 – 17 refer to the following

subshells.

(A) 1s
(B) 2s
(C) 3s
(D) 3p
(E) 3d

14) Contains up to ten electrons.

Atomic Structure |3
2
1𝐻 + 31𝐻 → 10𝑛 + ________ Questions 11 – 13 refer to the atoms with the
following electron configurations:

(A) 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠1

(B) 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝5
49) The missing product in the nuclear reaction
represented above is (C) 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝6 4𝑠1
(D) 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝6 3𝑑2 4𝑠 2
(E) 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝6 3𝑑10 4𝑠 2
(A) 11H
(B) 32He
(C) 42He 11) Is a transition element that can exhibit
(D) 43Li several oxidation states
(E) 53Li
12) Forms a diatomic gas that is a halogen

54) The element carbon is the chief constituent 13) Has the lowest first ionization energy
of all of the following EXCEPT (potential)

(A) coal
(B) glass
Questions 14 – 16 refer to the following types
(C) diamond
of substances:
(D) charcoal
(E) Graphite
(A) Hydride
(B) Halide
(C) Hydroxide
(D) Hydrate
(E) Hydrocarbon

14) A crystalline substance in which water is

one of the structural units

15) A crystalline compound that contains only

metal atoms and hydrogen atoms

16) An organic compound

4|Atomic Structure
Questions 22 – 24 refer to the following 28) Ions of charge 2+ are formed readily from
energy diagram: the elements whose atoms have which of the
following electronic configurations?

I. 1𝑠 2 2𝑠1
II. 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2
III. 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2

(A) II only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, III

32) One isotope of an element contains 13

protons, 13 electrons, and 14 neutrons.
Another isotope this element is

The diagram above is a plot of the energy (A) 26

12Mg

levels for the electron of the hydrogen atom

(roughly to scale) according to the Bohr (B) 28
13Al
Theory. The vertical lines possible
transactions (increases or decreases of (C) 27
14Si
energy) that can occur.
(D) 55
26Fe

22) The transition from the ground state to the

59
first excited state of hydrogen (E) 27Co

23) Of the transitions shown, the one that

involves the LEAST energy
44) The Fe3+ ion contains how many electrons?
24) The transition that represents the ionization
energy (potential) of hydrogen (A) 23
(B) 26
(C) 29
(D) 31
(E) 53

Atomic Structure |5
46) For an atom of cobalt in its ground state, the
3d energy sublevel contains

(A) 10 electrons
(B) 9 electrons
(C) 8 electrons
(D) 7 electrons
(E) 5 electrons

48) In general, when are deviations from ideal

gas behavior greatest?

(A) At standard temperature and pressure

(B) When both pressure and temperature are
high
(C) When both pressure and temperature are
low
(D) When pressure is high, and temperature
is low
(E) When pressure is low, and temperature
is high

53) The half-life for the radioactive decay of

239 239
94Pu is 25,000 years. If 100g of 94Pu are
present initially, how many grams of 23994Pu
will remain after 50,000 years?

(A) 100 g
(B) 50.0 g
(C) 25.0 g
(D) 12.5 g
(E) 0.000 g

59) Each of the following ions has ten electrons.

Which one has the smallest radius?

(A) N 3−
(B) O2−
(C) F −
(D) Na+
(E) Mg 2+

6|Atomic Structure
Correct Explanations Questions

I II
101) Nuclei of radioactive elements BECAUSE Atoms of radioactive elements have
a surplus of electrons
are unstable
105) All chlorine atoms have the same BECAUSE the masses of all the atoms of a
mass number given element are the same

109) The ground-state electron BECAUSE For the Ca atom, the energy of the
configuration of Ca is 3d orbital is lower than the energy
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d2 of the 3p orbital
201) The orbital diagram for a nitrogen BECAUSE the most stable configuration for p
electrons atom in its ground state is
three unpaired electrons

213) Most of the alpha particles directed at BECAUSE the nucleus occupies a very small
a thin sheet of gold foil pass through portion of the volume of the gold
it, while only a few particles are atom
widely deflected
304) Isotopes result when different atoms BECAUSE isotopes are atoms of a given
of the same element have different element with different masses
numbers of protons
403) A 2 g sample of nitrogen and a 2 g BECAUSE equal masses of gaseous
sample of oxygen contain the same substances contain the same
number of molecules number of molecules

Atomic Structure |7
Questions 13-14 refer to the following

Periodic Table (A) Ionization energy

(B) Bond energy
(C) Heat of fusion
Questions 1-3 refer to the following questions (D) Reduction potential
(E) Electronegativity
(A) Au
(B) Xe 13) The energy necessary to remove an electron
(C) Cs from a gaseous atom in its ground state
(D) H 14) The energy change associated with the
(E) Fe process
Cl2 → 2 Cl
1) An element that is a noble gas.
30) Ground-state atoms of most elements have
2) Usually occurs in nature as an elemental
solid. (A) Completely filled orbitals only
(B) A partially filled set of orbitals only
3) Has the lowest first ionization energy. (C) Partially filled sets in both and
(D) A partially filled set of orbital
(E) No electrons in a orbital
Questions 11-12 refer to the following
elements
37) The relative sizes of the atomic radii are
(A) Zinc indicated correctly in which of the
(B) Silver following?
(C) Mercury
(D) Iron I. I > F
(E) Iodine II. K > Li
III. Mg > Ca
11) Can exist as ions in aqueous solution
(A) I only
12) Exists as diatomic molecules at room (B) II only
temperature and atmospheres (C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I, II and III

8|Periodic Table
28) Which of the following is a characteristic of 28) In the modern periodic table, the elements
nonmetals? are arranged in order of increasing

(A) Being malleable (A) mass number

(B) Being an electrical conductor (B) molecular mass
(C) Having an oxide that forms acidic (C) atomic mass
solutions in water. (D) atomic radius
(D) Having high density (E) atomic number
(E) Appearing on the left side of the
periodic table.
29) Which of the following trends is observed as
the atomic number increases in the series of
31) How many electrons does the chlorine-37 halogens F, Cl, Br, and I?
atom have?
(A) The atomic radius increases.
(A) 16 (B) The strength as an oxidizing agent
(B) 17 increases.
(C) 18 (C) The electronegativity increases.
(D) 36 (D) The first ionization energy increases.
(E) 38 (E) The number of electrons in the
outermost (valence) shell increases.

Questions 19-20 refer to the following.

30) Which if the following is a transition
(A) N2 element?
(B) Rn
(C) He (A) Iron
(D) Ca (B) Carbon
(E) Fe (C) Potassium
(D) Tin
(E) Radium

19) Is a radioactive noble gas

20) Commonly exists as ions with charge +2 or

+3

Periodic Table |9
60) True statements about transition metal
include which of the following?

I. Most can exhibit more than one

stable oxidation state.
II. Their compounds are often colored.
III. Their ions have partially filled p-
orbitals.

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

10 | P e r i o d i c T a b l e
Correct Explanation Questions

I II
102) Metals in Group 1 (alkali metals) BECAUSE within a group, atomic radius
are less reactive as atomic number decreases as atomic number increases
increases.
114) Se is a transition element BECAUSE Se atoms in the group have no 4p
electrons.
505) Mendeleev was able to predict BECAUSE on the basis of periodic relationships,
correctly the physical properties of gallium would be expected to have
gallium, Ga, before its discovery the same total number of electrons as
aluminum.
513) Lithium, sodium, and potassium BECAUSE lithium, sodium, and potassium all
have similar chemical properties have the same number of valance
electrons

P e r i o d i c T a b l e | 11
Molecular Bonding

Questions 18 – 21 refer to the following

substances at 25°C and 1 atm.
51) The Lewis structure for the carbonate ion
illustrated above is incomplete for which of
(A) Ca(NO3)2 the following reasons?
(B) CaO
(C) C8H18, octane (A) All of the atoms are not isoelectronic
(D) CO2 with a noble gas.
(E) CH4 (B) The carbon atom has an expanded octet.
(C) All the C-O bonds are not equivalent;
18) A liquid that is insoluble in water one additional resonance structure is
required.
19) A solid that forms a basic solution in water (D) All the C-O bonds are not equivalent;
two additional resonance structures are
20) An ionic compound in which the anion has a required.
charge of -1 (E) The structure does not account for the 2-
charge of the ion.
21) A covalent compound having molecules
with a linear structure
60) Which of the following substances contains
49) When 1 mol of Cr3+ is oxidized to form 1 both ionic and covalent bonds?
mol of CrO42-, how many moles of electrons (A) CaBr2
are transferred? (B) SO2
(C) NH4Br
(A) 3 moles (D) H2O
(B) 4 moles (E) C2H6
(C) 5 moles
(D) 6 moles
(E) 7 moles Question 11 refers to the following pairs of
substances.

29) Which of the following could be used to (A) NH3 and N2H4
illustrate the capability of two elements to (B) 16O and 17O
combine different ratios? (C) NH4Cl and NH4NO3
(A) CCl4 and CF4 (D) CH3OCH3 and NH4NO3
(B) O2 and O3 (E) O2 and O3
(C) H2O and H2S
(D) NO2 and N2O4 11) Have both ionic and covalent bonds
(E) FeO and Fe2O3

12 | M o l e c u l a r B o n d i n g
28) Which of the following is the correct and Questions 17 – 18 refer to the following
complete Lewis electron-dot diagram for substances at room temperature:
PF3?
(A) CO2
(B) N2O
(C) NO2
(A) (D) SiO2
(E) CaO

17) Is an ionic solid

(B)
18) Is a gas in which each molecule has an
unpaired electron

(C)
50) Which of the following best describes the
type of bonding between iodine atoms in a
molecule of I2?

(D) (A) Ionic bonding

(B) Metallic bonding
(C) Hydrogen bonding
(D) Covalent bonding
(E) Dispersion (London) force interactions
(E)

Questions 5.1-5.3 refer to the following

molecules.

(A) N2
(B) C2H6
(C) NH3
(D) CO2
(E) CC14

1) A molecule that has atoms joined by triple

covalent bond

2) A molecule that is polar

3) A molecule having a 180° bond angle

M o l e c u l a r B o n d i n g | 13
Correct Explanation Questions

I II
203) The CO2 molecule is nonpolar BECAUSE the bond dipoles in the CO2 molecule
cancel one another
205) The bonds in solid sodium chloride BECAUSE Sodium is a metal and aluminum is a
have more ionic character than the nonmetal
bonds in solid aluminum chloride
have
412) Methane, CH4, is very soluble in BECAUSE water molecules form hydrogen bond
water with methane molecules
506) Metallic copper is an electrical BECAUSE in metallic copper, the atoms of
conductor copper are covalently bonded

14 | M o l e c u l a r B o n d i n g
31) The Lewis dot structure for N2 is:

Molecular Structure

Questions 22 – 25 refer to the following types

of substances

(A) Isotopes
(B) Electrolytes
(C) Isomers
(D) Polymers
(E) Allotropes

22) Can be represented by carbon-12 and

carbon-14

23) Can be represented by diamond and graphite

24) Can be represented by C2H5 – OH and CH3

– O – CH3 52) The mass percent of Nitrogen in Ammonia
(NH3) is:
25) Can be represented by NaCl and NaF (A) 14%
(B) 17%
(C) 25%
(D) 50%
(E) 82%

M o l e c u l a r S t r u c t u r e | 15
Questions 14 – 16 refer to the following
compounds

(A) NH3
(B) H2S
(C) CH4
(D) CO
(E) CO2

14) Contains a triple bond

15) Contains two double bonds

16) Has one and only one paired of unshared

electrons

5) Which could represent the ion?

6) Which could represent an atom of a member 17) Equal volumes of different gases at the same
of the alkali metal family? pressure and temperature have the same

7) Which could represent an oxygen atom? (A) Mass

(B) Density
(C) number of neutrons
Questions 8 – 9 refer to the following (D) number of electrons
molecular geometries: (E) number of molecules

(A) Linear
(B) Bent
(C) Planar Triangular 37) If both NaOH and KOH were the same price
(D) Tetrahedral per kilogram, it would be cheaper to use
(E) Square planar NaOH to neutralize a quantity of acid
because NaOH
8) The shape of a molecule of HBr
(A) weighs less per mole than KOH
9) The shape of a molecule of CH4 (B) weighs more per mole than KOH
(C) neutralizes more acid per mole than
KOH
(D) neutralizes less acid per mole than KOH
(E) is less dense than KOH

16 | M o l e c u l a r S t r u c t u r e
33) Which of the following elements can be
correctly represented by X in the chemical
formula X2O3

I. Fe
II. B
III. Ca

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II
(E) II and III

39) The boiling points of NH3, H2O, and HF are

all higher than would be expected on the
basis of their molecular masses because of
the

(A) low Kinetic energy of the molecules

(B) unusual isotopic distribution of N,O,F in
nature
(C) high ionization energies of N,O,F
(D) high potential energy of the molecules
(E) hydrogen bonding between the
molecules

M o l e c u l a r S t r u c t u r e | 17
Correct Explanation Questions

I II
107) Water molecule is polar BECAUSE the radius of an oxygen atom is
greater than that of a hydrogen atom
504) The covalent bond between O and BECAUSE the H2O molecule is linear
H in H2O is polar
514) The CH4 molecule has a square BECAUSE all the bonds in the CH4 molecule are
planar geometry equal in length

18 | M o l e c u l a r S t r u c t u r e
Molecular Interactions

64) Products of the combustion reaction below

include which of the following?

… 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻(𝑙) + ⋯ 𝑂2 (𝑔)(𝑒𝑥𝑐𝑒𝑠𝑠) → ⋯

I. CO
II. CO2
III. H2O

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) II & III only
(E) I, II & III

65) Which of the following is true for the

reaction represented below?

𝑊𝑂 + 3𝐻2 → 𝑊 + 3𝐻2 𝑂

(A) WO3 is oxidized

(B) W is the oxidizing agent
(C) H2O is reduced
(D) H2 is reduced
(E) H2 is the reducing agent

67) Mg (s) and N2 (g) react to form which of the

following?

(A) MgN
(B) MgN2
(C) MgN2
(D) Mg3N2
(E) Mg2N3

M o l e c u l a r I n t e r a c t i o n s | 19
Correct Explanation Questions

I II
102) The CCl4 molecule is polar BECAUSE CCl4 has a tetrahedral structure
211) At 1 atm, methane, CH4 has a lower BECAUSE There is more intermolecular
boiling point than water, H2O hydrogen bonding in CH4 than in
H2O

20 | M o l e c u l a r I n t e r a c t i o n s
44) A sample of gas is 2.5 times as heavy
as a sample of O2 measured under the
Phases and Phase Changes same conditions. The molar mass of
gas is
(A) (2.5 x 32 ) g/mol
(B) (2.5 x 22.4) g/mol
(C) (2.5 x 16) g/mol
32
(D) (2.5 × 22.4)g/mol
16
(E) (2.5 × ) g/mol
22.4

1 atm

53) Which of the following does NOT increase

the entropy of the system in which it occurs?

(A) Evaporating a liquid

(B) Decomposing a substance
10 20 30 40 50 60 70
(C) Dissolving alcohol in water
(D) Melting a metal
33) According to the graph above which of the (E) Condensing a vapor
following liquids has a normal boiling point
close to 50°C?
55) A sealed vessel contains 0.040 mol of He
(A) Acetone and 0.060 mol of gaseous Ne at constant
(B) Chloroform temperature and a total pressure 103mmHg.
(C) Ethyl Alcohol What is the partial pressure of Hegas?
(D) Benzene
(E) Water (A) 40 mmHg
(B) 60 mmHg
(C) 100 mmHg
42) If oxygen is collected over water at 25°C (D) 400 mmHg
and at a total barometric pressure of 790mm (E) 600 mmHg
Hg, what is the partial pressure due to
oxygen? (the equilibrium vapor pressure of
water at 25°C is 24mm Hg)?

(A) 814 mm Hg
(B) 790 mm Hg
(C) 784 mm Hg
(D) 766 mm Hg
(E) 760 mm Hg

P h a s e s a n d P h a s e C h a n g e s | 21
62) A 2 L vessel contains a mixture of gases at
25°C. The mixture consists of 4 g of H2 (g)
and 15 g of N2(g). Which of the following
correctly expresses the pressure of the gases
L atm
in the vessel? (R = 0.0821 mol K)

(4+15)(0.0821)(298)
(A) atm
2
4 15
( + )(0.0821)(298)
2 20
(B) atm
2
(4+15)(0.0821)(25)
(C) atm
2
4 15
( + )(0.0821)(25)
2 20
(D) atm
2
4 15
( + )(2)(298)
2 20
(E) atm 21) Where are the vapor pressure of the solid
0.0821
and the pressure of gas equal?

63) True statements concerning 1 mol of 22) Where does the solid exist in equilibrium
methane, CH4, at 0°C and 1 atm include with the liquid?
which of the following?
23) Where does the substance exist only as gas?
I. It contains 6.023*1023molecules
II. It has a mass of 16 g
III. It occupies a volume of 22.4 L

(A) I only
33) A system is filled with butane gas to a
(B) II only
pressure of 3.20 atm and 47°C. What is the
(C) I and II only
pressure in the cylinder when the
(D) II and III only
temperature is 27°C?
(E) I, II and III
(A) 0.320 atm
(B) 1.00atm
(C) 2.24atm
(D) 3.00atm
(E) 4.48atm

22 | P h a s e s a n d P h a s e C h a n g e s
55) Suppose that 0.5 mol of oxygen gas and 0.5 68) At a given temperature and pressure, which
mol of nitrogen gas are placed in the same of the following gases has the highest rate of
container and that no reaction occurs. In the effusion through a pinhole?
container, the ratio of the pressure exerted
by the nitrogen to the pressure exerted by (A) H2
the oxygen is equal to (B) O2
(C) O3
(A) 0.5 (D) H2O
(B) (E) H2O2
(C) 1
(D) 2
70) A container with a volume of 22.4 L
contains 2.0g of H2(g) and 32 g of O2(g) at
59) The pressure of 2 L of a gas at 27°C is 0oC. In this container
740mm Hg. What is the volume of this gas
at standard temperature and pressure? (A) The total pressure is 760 mm Hg. (B)
The average kinetic energy of the O2 (g)
27 740 is 8 times the average kinetic energy of
(A) V = 2 × 273 × 760
H2 (g).
(C) The partial pressures of the gases are
273 740
(B) V = 2 × 300 × 760 equal.
(D) All of the molecules in the system have
300 740 the same average speed
(C) V = 2 × 273 × 760
(E) All the molecules have stopped moving
because the temperature is 0oC.
300 760
(D) V = 2 × 273 × 740

273 760 36) All of the following can change equilibrium

(E) V = 2 × 300 × 740 concentrations of reactants and products in
the gas-phase reaction represented above
EXCEPT
64) A sample of gas measured at 0°C and 1 atm
(A) decreasing the temperature of the system
occupied 1.12 L. the number of molecules it
(B) decreasing the volume of the system
contained was
(C) removing one of the products of the
1.12 reaction from the system
(A) molecules (D) adding more of one of his reactants to
6.02×1023
(B) 0.0500 (6.02 × 1023 )molecules the system
(C) 0.500 (6.02 × 1023 )molecules (E) adding a catalyst for the reaction to the
(D) 1.12 (6.02 × 1023 )molecules system
(E) 2.24 (6.02 × 1023 )molecules

P h a s e s a n d P h a s e C h a n g e s | 23
51) A glass vessel contains 2.0 mol of N2(g) and H (g) + Cl (g) → 2HCl(g)
2 2 ΔH = -185kJ
3.0 mol of Ar(g). The total pressure is 1.5
atm. What is the partial pressure of the
65) According to the equation for the reaction
Ar(g)?
represented above, what is H for the
(A) 0.2 atm production of 0.100 mol of HCl(g)?
(B) 0.6 atm
(C) 0.9 atm (A) -370kJ
(D) 1.0 atm (B) -18.5kJ
(E) 1.5 atm (C) -9.25kJ
(D) +9.25kJ
(E) +18.5kJ
56) Which of the following statements about a
liquid that evaporates readily at room
temperature is correct?

(A) It has strong intermolecular forces.

(B) It has a high vapor pressure.
(C) It is considered to be non-volatile.
(D) It would make its container feel warm to
the touch.
(E) It should be stored in an open container.

57) Correct statements about a solution of

sodium chloride include which of the
following?

I. It has a normal boiling point.

II. It has a greater density than pure
water at the same temperature.
III. It has a lower freezing point than
pure water

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III

24 | P h a s e s a n d P h a s e C h a n g e s
Correct Explanation Questions

I II
103) A solid can become a liquid when BECAUSE As the temperature increases, the solid
the temperature is increased particles can gain enough kinetic
energy to break down the rigid
structure of the solid
106) Oxygen, nitrogen and hydrogen are BECAUSE All diatomic molecules are gases at
gases at room temperature and 1atm room temperature and 1 atm

108) At 25°C and 1 atm, a molecule of BECAUSE Each butane molecule contains more
butane, C4H10, can escape more hydrogen atoms than does a water
readily from the surface of the molecule
liquid butane than a water molecule
can escape from the surface of
liquid water
202) At a given temperature, all of the BECAUSE At constant pressure, the volume
molecules in a given volume of an occupied by a fixed quantity of an
ideal gas have the same speed ideal gas is proportional to the
temperature
305) In the gas phase, less energy is BECAUSE a chlorine atom has fewer protons in
required to remove an electron from its nucleus than a sodium atom
a chlorine atom than from a sodium
atom
501) The volume of a gas at constant BECAUSE The average speed of molecules
pressure increases with increasing decreases with increasing temperature
temperature
509) When some of the liquid in an BECAUSE the first molecules that leave the liquid
insulated vessel evaporates, the are those with higher kinetic energies
temperature of the remaining and the remaining molecules have
liquid decreases lower average kinetic energies
515) At 25oC, the average speed of H2(g) BECAUSE at 25oC, the average kinetic energy of
is less than the average speed of H2(g) molecules is less than the
O2(g) molecules average kinetic energy of O2(g)
molecules

P h a s e s a n d P h a s e C h a n g e s | 25
CS2 + O2 →

Solutions 46) When excess oxygen is present, the products

34) The mass of water in 1 mol of is of the reaction include which of the
SnCl4·5H2O closest to: following?

(A) 18g I. C
(B) 26g II. CO2
(C) 90g III. SO2
(D) 260g
(E) 350g (A) II only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
36) For a substance to be characterized as a (D) II and III only
weak electrolyte, the substance must exhibit (E) I, II and III

(A) Weak intermolecular forces

(B) Weak bonds between its forms 51) Correct statements concerning the ground
(C) Low solubility in water state atoms of halogen group include which
(D) A low melting point of the following?
(E) Low electrical conductivity in water I. The atoms have the same number of
valence electrons.
II. The atoms are isotopes of one
another.
III. The atoms have the same number of
occupied energy levels.
43) The molar mass of a compound having an
(A) I only
empirical formula CH2 is 42 g/mol. What is
(B) III only
the formula of the compound?
(C) I and II
(D) II and III
(A) C2H4
(E) I, II and III
(B) C3H6
(C) C4H8
56) Which of the following concentrations is
(D) C5H10
correct for a 0.2 M aqueous solution of
(E) C2H5OH
Ca(NO3)2 ?

(A) 0.1 M Ca2+

(B) 0.4 M Ca2+
-
(C) 0.1 M NO3
-
(D) 0.2 M NO3
(E) 0.4 MNO3-

26 | S o l u t i o n s
A student added 0.10 L of a 0.10 M Na2SO4 CH4 (𝑔) + 2H2 O(𝑔) ↔ CO2 (𝑔) + 4H2 (𝑔)
solution to 0.10 L of a 0.10 M BaCl2 solution. A
white precipitate formed, which the student 27) Which of the following is the correct
filtered, dried and weighed. expression for the equilibrium constant, for
the reaction represented by the equation
68) The net ionic equation for the formation of above?
precipitate is
(A) N+(aq) + Cl-(aq) →NaCl(s) [𝐶𝐻4 ][𝐻2 𝑂]
(B) 2Na+(aq) + SO42-(aq) → Na2SO4(s) (A) 𝐾𝑐 = [𝐶𝑂2 ][𝐻2 ]
(C) Ba2+(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) → BaCl2(s)
(D) Ba2+(aq) + 2SO42- (aq)→ Ba(SO4)2(s)
[𝐶𝐻4 ][𝐻2 𝑂]2
(E) Ba2+(aq) + SO42-(aq) → Ba(SO4) (s) (B) 𝐾𝑐 = [𝐶𝑂2 ][𝐻2 ]4
69) The number of moles of precipitate formed
[𝐶𝑂 ]+4[𝐻 ]
are
(C) 𝐾𝑐 = [𝐶𝐻 2]+2[𝐻 2
4 2 𝑂]
(A) 0.20
(B) 0.050 [𝐶𝑂 ][𝐻 ]
(C) 0.010 (D) 𝐾𝑐 = [𝐶𝐻 2][𝐻 2
4 2 𝑂]
(D) 0.0010
(E) 0.0050
[𝐶𝑂2 ][𝐻2 ]4
(E) 𝐾𝑐 = [𝐶𝐻 2
70) What is the concentration of HF molecules 4 ][𝐻2 𝑂]
in a 0.01 M HF solution that is 20 percent
ionized?
(A) 0.002M
(B) 0.008 M
(C) 0.01 M Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
(D) 0.08 M
(E) 0.2 M 35) What volume of 4.0 M HCl (aq) is required
for complete reaction with 12 g of Mg (s)
For Questions 19 – 20 consider the following according to the reaction above?
compounds

(A) NH4Cl
(A) 0.12 L
(B) NaClO
(B) 0.25 L
(C) HBr
(C) 0.50 L
(D) KOH
(D) 0.75 L
(E) KHCO3
(E) 1.0 L

19) Is a strong acid in aqueous solution

20) Is a strong base in aqueous solution

S o l u t i o n s | 27
36) Characteristics of a 0.1 M aqueous solution 59) Based on the information below, which of
of HNO3 include all of the following the following is correct?
EXCEPT
(A) At room temperature, KCl is practically
(A) It conducts electrivity insoluble in water.
(B) It turns blue litmus red (B) At higher temperatures, KCl dissolves at
(C) It reacts with magnesium to produce a very slow rate.
hydrogen gas. (C) The solubility of KCl in water decreases
(D) It has a hydroxide ion concentration of as temperature increases.
10-7M. (D) Heat is released as KCl dissolves in
(E) It reacts with 0.1 M KOH. water
(E) Heat is released as KCl crystallizes from
40) Which of the following contains the greatest a water solution.
percent chorine by mass?

(A) KCl
(B) KClO Questions 13 – 15 refer to 0.1 M aqueous
(C) KClO2 solutions of the following substances.
(D) KClO3 (A) Cl2
(E) KClO4 (B) HCl
(C) CH3COOH
47) To calculate the molar mass of a pure gas (D) C12H22O11, sucrose
from experimental data, one must know all (E) NH3
of the
following for a sample of gas EXCEPT its 13) Is a neutral solution and has no odor

(A) Mass 14) Is the best conductor of electricity

(B) Boiling point
(C) Pressure 15) Is a basic solution and has a perceptible odor
(D) Temperature CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
(E) Volume
30) In order to produce 88 g of carbon dioxide
48) If an aqueous solution containing 4 mol of by means of the reaction represented above,
NaOH is mixed with one containing 3 mol the number of moles of calcium carbonate,
of HCl, the CaCO3(s) required is
final solution contains
(A) 0.50 mol
(A) 1 mol of NaOH and 3 mol of NaCl (B) 1.0 mol
(B) 1 mol of HCl and 3 mol of NaCl (C) 2.0 mol
(C) 3 mol of NaOH and 1 mol of NaCl (D) 3.0 mol
(D) 3 mol of NaOH and 1 mol of HCl (E) 4.0 mol
(E) 4 mol of NaOH and 3 mol of HCl

28 | S o l u t i o n s
2 C8 H18 (𝑙) + 25 O2 (𝑔) 40) When copper metal is added to 3 M HNO3,
→ 16 CO2 (𝑔) + 18 H2 O(𝑙) bubbles of colorless gas are formed. When
copper
36) Correct statements about the equation for the is added to 15 M HNO3, large amounts of a
reaction represented above include which of brown gas are evolved. From these
the following? observations alone, it
can be concluded that
I. For 2 mol of C8H18(l) consumed, 16
× 44 g of CO2(g) is produced. (A) hydrogen gas is evolved
II. At the same temperature and (B) copper can be reduced
pressure, the number of moles of (C) copper does not dissolve in 1 MHNO3
water produced is 18 times the (D) some nitric acid is reduced to NH4 (E)
number of moles of C8H18(l) the reaction product depends on the
consumed. concentration of nitric acid
III. The volume of produced is greater
than the volume of consumed if
both gases are measured 41) In order to prepare 2.00 L of a 1.00 M
at the same temperature and aqueous solution of K2SO4 (molar mass 174
pressure. g/mol), what
mass of K2SO4 is needed?
(A) I only
(B) III only (A) 696 g
(C) I and II only (B) 348 g
(D) II and III only (C) 174 g
(E) I, II, and III (D) 87.0 g
(E) 43.5 g

38) A beaker contains some crystal of NaCl in

equilibrium with a saturated solution of 44) What is the maximum number of grams of
NaCl at nitric oxide, NO, that can be produced by
constant temperature. If additional crystals combustion of 5.0 mol of nitrogen, N2?
of NaCl are added, which of the following
occurs? (A) 15 g
(B) 30 g
(A) The crystals dissolve completely. (C) 50 g
(B) Heat is evolved. (D) 150 g
(C) The density of the solution increases. (E) 300 g
(D) The density of the solution decreases.
(E) No change occurs in the concentration
of the solution.

S o l u t i o n s | 29
C3 H8 (𝑔) + 5 O2 (𝑔) H2 (𝑔) + Cl2 (𝑔) → 2 HCl(𝑔)
→ 3 CO2 (𝑔)
+ 4 H2 O(𝑔) 53) According to the reaction represented by the
27) How many moles of water would be equation above, how many moles of HCl(g)
produced if 11.0g of propane (molar mass are
44g/mol) were burned completely to carbon produced when 3.0 mol of H2(g) and 4.0
dioxide and water according to the equation mol of Cl2(g) react as completely as
represented above? possible?

(A) 1.0 mol

(B) 2.0 mol (A) 1.5 mol
(C) 3.0 mol (B) 3.0 mol
(D) 4.0 mol (C) 4.0 mol
(E) 5.0 mol (D) 6.0 mol
(E) 8.0 mol

30) What is the number NaOH (molar mass

40g/mol) present in 250mL of 0.10 mol
NaOH(aq)?

(A) 0.025 mol

(B) 0.10 mol
(C) 1.0 mol
(D) 4.0 mol … 𝐶3 𝐻7 𝑂𝐻(𝑔) + ⋯ 𝑂2 (𝑔)
(E) 25 mol → ⋯ 𝐶𝑂2 (𝑔) + ⋯ 𝐻2 𝑂

61) The combustion of C3H7OH(g) is

represented by the unbalanced equation
46) When NaCl is dissolved in pure water at
above. How many moles of O2(g) are
25°C and 1 atm, the resulting solution,
required to burn 2 mol of C3H7OH(g) ?
compared to pure
water, has a
(A) 2 mol
(B) 6 mol
(A) lower density
(C) 8 mol
(B) lower boiling point
(D) 9 mol
(C) higher freezing point
(E) 10 mol
(D) higher electrical conductivity
(E) higher vapor pressure

30 | S o l u t i o n s
70) Which of the following terms give a
28) When two colorless liquid reagents are qualitative rather than a quantitative
mixed, which of the following observations description of the concentration of a
would suggest that a chemical reaction has solution?
occurred?
(A) Molality
I. Formation of a precipitate (B) Mass percentage
II. A color change (C) Dilute
III. Appearance of gas bubbles (D) Mole fraction
(E) Molarity
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only Al2O3 → 4Al + 3O2
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III 34) What is the maximum mass of Al(molar
mass 27g/mol) that can be obtained from
20.4g of pure Al2O3 (molar mass 102 g/mol)
32) A 40.0 g sample of a hydrated salt was ?
heated until all the water was driven off. The
mass of the solid remaining was 32.0 g. (A) 2.70g
What was the percent of water by mass in (B) 5.40g
the original sample? (C) 8.10g
(D) 10.8g
(A) 13.0% (E) 16.3g
(B) 20.0%
(C) 25.0% 37) Of the following the conditions under which
(D) 75.0% the molar volume of gaseous helium is
(E) 80.0% greatest are

(A) 237K and 1 atm

44) Which of the following statements is true (B) 300K and 1 atm
concerning a saturated salt at a constant (C) 400K and 1 atm
temperature? (D) 500K and 2 atm
(E) 600K and 2 atm
(A) The concentrations of salt and solvent
are usually equal. 38) How many grams of RbNO3 (molar mass
(B) The amount of dissolved salt is constant. 147g/mol) are required to produce 0.500 L
(C) Addition of solid salt shifts the of a 0.200 M RbNO3 solution?
equilibrium, which results in an increase
in the amount of dissolved salt. (A) 73.5g
(D) The solution is unstable and sudden (B) 29.6g
crystallization could occur. (C) 14.7g
(E) At the same temperature, a saturated (D) 2.96g
solution of any other salt has the same (E) 1.47g
concentration.

S o l u t i o n s | 31
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2 62) A 9.00 g sample of liquid water has which
of the following?
45) When 1 mol of solid CaCO3 is added to an
excess of HCl according to the reaction I. 1.00 mol of hydrogen atoms
represented above, which of the following II. 9.50 g of oxygen
will be produced? III. A volume of 11.2 L at standard
temperature and pressure
I. 1 mol of Ca2+(aq)
II. 2 mol of CO2(g) (A) I only
III. 6 x 1023 molecules of H2O (B) II only
(C) III only
(A) I only (D) I and II only
(B) II only (E) I, II and III
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I,II and III

52) Which of the following statements is true of

70) A 21g sample of NaF (s) (molar mass
a solution of 0.10 M HCl(aq)?
42g/mol) is dissolved in enough water to
yield 2.0L of solution. What is the molar
(A) The pH is 1.
concentration of Na+(aq)
(B) The concentration of Cl-(aq) is greater
than the concentration of H+(aq). (A) 0.010 M
(C) The concentration of Cl-(aq) is equal to (B) 0.050 M
the concentration of OH-(aq). (C) 0.10 M
(D) The concentration of H+(aq) is equal to (D) 0.25 M
the concentration of OH-(aq). (E) 0.50 M
(E) The indicator phenolphthalien turns pink
when added to the acid solution.

61) If 100 mL of 0.50 M Na OH (aq) exactly

neutralizes 50 mL of a solution of HCl(aq),
the molarity of the HCl(aq) is

(A) 0.10 M
(B) 0.25 M
(C) 0.50 M
(D) 1.0 M
(E) 2.0 M

32 | S o l u t i o n s
Correct explanation questions

I II
113) A 1.0 x10-6 M aqueous solution of BECAUSE NaOH is a strong base that is
NaOH has a pH of 6.0 completely ionized in water at a
concentration of 1.0 x10-6 M.
214) The freezing point of a 0.1-molal BECAUSE The freezing point of water is lowered
solution of sugar in water is lower in proportion to the concentration of
than the freezing point of a 0.1 independent solute particles.
molal solution of sodium chloride
in water.
310) The partial pressure of each gas in BECAUSE each gas in an ideal gas mixture exerts
ideal gas mixture is proportional to its partial pressure independently of
the number of moles of that gas in the presence of other gases
the mixture
312) Water has a higher boiling point BECAUSE the attractive forces among water
than hydrogen sulfide has molecules are greater than the
attractive forces among hydrogen
sulfide molecules
409) A 1 M sucrose solution and a 1 M BECAUSE a 1 M sucrose solution and a 1 M
NaCl NaCl solution contain the same
solution have the same freezing number of solute particles per liter of
point solution

S o l u t i o n s | 33
46) The ground state of which of the following
atoms has exactly three unpaired electrons?
Kinetics
(A) Scandium
(B) Chromium
… CuO(𝑠) + ⋯ NH3 (𝑔) (C) Manganese
→ ⋯ Cu(𝑠) + ⋯ N2 (𝑔) (D) Cobalt
+ ⋯ H2O(𝑙) (E) Aluminum

26) If 1 mol of N2(g) is formed by the reaction

of CuO(s) and NH3(g) as represented above,
how many moles of CuO(s) must have 47) If 100 g of sucrose raises the boiling point of
reacted? 250 g of water by 0.60°C, then 200 g of
sucrose will raise the boiling point of 500 g
(A) 2 of water by
(B) 3
(C) 4 (A) 0.15°C
(D) 5 (B) 0.30°C
(E) 6 (C) 0.60°C
(D) 1.20°C
(E) 2.40°C
- SnO2 + -Al → - Sn + -Al2O3

28) How many moles of Al (s) are needed to 57) Which of the following changes will increase
react with excess SnO2 (s) to form 2 moles the amount of SO2(g) present in the reaction
of Al2O3 (s) according to the reaction mixture at equilibrium?
represented by the unbalanced equation
above? (A) Adding O2(g) to the reaction vessel (B)
Removing SO3(g) from the reaction
(A) 1 vessel
(B) 2 (C) Increasing the temperature of the system
(C) 3 (D) Reducing the volume of the reaction
(D) 4 vessel
(E) 5 (E) Adding a catalyst to the reaction vessel

29) How many grams of oxygen are required to

react completely with 1 mol of carbon in the
formation of carbon dioxide?

(A) 8.0 g
(B) 12 g
(C) 16 g
(D) 32 g
(E) 64 g

34 | K i n e t i c s
… BiCl3 + ⋯ H2 O → ⋯ BiOCl + ⋯ HCl 37) Characteristics of a 0.1 M aqueous solution
of HNO3 include all of the following
58) When the equation above is balanced and all EXCEPT
the coefficients are reduced to the lowest
whole number terms, the coefficient for (A) It conducts electricity
BiOCl is (B) It turns blue litmus red
(C) It reacts with magnesium to produce
(A) 1 hydrogen gas
(B) 2 (D) It has a hydroxide ion concentration of
(C) 3 10-7M
(D) 4 (E) It reacts with 0.1 M KOH
(E) 5

52) According to the kinetic molecular theory,

which of the following statements
concerning the
molecules in a flask containing air at room
temperature and 1 atm is correct?

32) At standard temperature and pressure, when (A) They move at constant speed
1 mol of CO and O2 are mixed and heated, (B) They have the same mass numbers
the (C) They have constant kinetic energies
reaction represented above takes place. (D) They move in one direction
When the reaction has progressed as (E) They collide with one another as well as
completely as possible with the walls of the flask
and the reaction chamber has returned to
original conditions of temperature and
pressure, the final 26) Increasing the temperature of a gas in a rigid
system contains closed container increases which of the
following?
(A) 1 mol of CO2 only
(B) 0.5 mol of CO2 only I. The pressure of the gas
(C) 0.5 mol of CO2 and 1 mol of O2 II. The average speed of the gas
(D) 1 mol of CO2 and 0.5 mol of CO (E) 1 molecules
mol of CO2 and 0.5 mol of O2 III. The mass of the gas

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and II only
(E) I, II, and III

K i n e t i c s | 35
39) Factors that influence where or not two
colliding molecules will react include which
of the following?

I. The energy of the collision

II. The orientation of the molecules
III. The size difference between the
reactant and product molecules

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III

36 | K i n e t i c s
Correct explanation questions

I II
110) Coal dust reacts more rapidly with BECAUSE Coal dust has a greater surface area
oxygen and a spark than a lump of than a lump of coal of equal mass does
coal of equal mass does
111) There are no net changes in a BECAUSE When a system is at equilibrium, the
system when it is at equilibrium concentrations of all species are equal
303) Gases approach ideal behavior at BECAUSE at high temperatures and low
high temperature and low pressures pressures the actual volume of gas
molecules and the attractive forces
between them become insignificant
315) Raising the temperature generally BECAUSE raising the temperature increases the
increases the rate of a chemical number of molecules that collide with
reaction an energy greater than the activation
energy
410) The average kinetic energy of gas BECAUSE the average speed of gas molecules
molecules increases as the decreases as the temperature increases
temperature increases

511) Catalysts increase the rates of BECAUSE the activation energy of a reaction is
chemical reaction lowered by a catalyst for the reaction

K i n e t i c s | 37
Equilibrium

30) NO2 (g) is sealed in a glass tube and allowed

to reach equilibrium at room temperature Al + ……….. excess S →
according to the equation above. Placing the 52) When the equation above is balanced and all
tube in ice water will result in which of the coefficients are reduced to their lowest
following? whole number terms, what is the coefficient
I. An increase in gas volume for Al(s)?
II. An increase in gas pressure
III. A decrease in concentration of NO2 (g) (A) 1
(B) 2
(A) I only (C) 3
(B) II only (D) 4
(C) III only (E) 6
(D) I and II only
(E) I, II and III

45) When the equation below is balanced and all

coefficients are reduced to lowest whole-
number
terms the coefficient for Cr(s) is

… 𝐶𝑟(𝑠) + ⋯ 𝑆8 (𝑠) → ⋯ 𝐶𝑟2 𝑆3 (𝑠)

𝐶𝐻4 (𝑔) + 2𝑂2 (𝑔) → 𝐶𝑂2 (𝑔) + 2𝐻2 𝑂(𝑔)
(A) 2
58) If a mixture of 0.5 mol of CH4 (g) and 2 mol
(B) 3
of O2 (g) react as represented above, how
(C) 4
many moles of each gas are present after the
(D) 8
reactants react as completely as possible?
(E) 16

CH4 O2 CO2
50) Which of the following would most likely
be associated with a reaction that occurs at a (A) 0.5 mol 1 0.5
fast rate?
(B) 0.5 mol 0.5 1
(A) A large activation energy
(B) A small activation energy (C) 0 mol 0.5 0.5
(C) A low temperature
(D) 0 mol 0.5 1
(D) A low concentration of reactants
(E) A decrease in entropy
(E) 0 mol 1 0.5

38 | E q u i l i b r i u m
2X + 3Y → 4Z [NH3 ]2 [O2 ]2
(D) K c =
[N2 O][H2 O]3
66) According to the balanced equation above,
the maximum amount of compound Z that
[NH3 ][O2 ]
can be produced from a mixture of 0.10 mol (E) K c =
[N2 O]+[H2 O]
of compound X and 0.12 mol of compound
Y is

(A) 0.16 mol

(B) 0.20 mol CH4 (𝑔) + CO2 (𝑔) → 2CO(𝑔) + 2H2 (𝑔) ∆H
(C) 0.30 mol = +247 kJ
(D) 0.36 mol
37) According to Le Châtelier’s principle, which
(E) 0.48 mol
of the following changes with increase the
… Fe(𝑠) + ⋯ Cl2 (𝑔) → ⋯ FeCl3 (𝑠) number of moles of CO present at
equilibrium for the endothermic reaction
27) When the equation for the reaction represented above?
represented above is balanced with lowest
whole-number coefficients, what is the (A) Increasing the temperature
coefficient for Fe(s)? (B) Decreasing the volume
(C) Adding H2(g)
(A) 1 (D) Adding a catalyst
(B) 2 (E) Doubling the number of moles of
(C) 3 CH4(g) and reducing the number of
(D) 4 moles of CO2(g) by half
(E) 6

H2 (𝑔) + I2 (𝑔) → 2HI(𝑔)

2NH3 (𝑔) + 2O2 (𝑔) ↔ N2 O(𝑔) + 3H2 O(𝑔)
43) For the reaction above at equilibrium, all of
33) Which of the following is the correct the following statements are true EXCEPT:
expression for the equilibrium constant, Kc,
for the reaction represented above? (A) The ratio is the equilibrium constant
(B) The concentration of HI(g) is constant
[NH3 ]+[O2 ] (C) H2(g) is produced as fast as it is
(A) K c =
[N2 O]+[H2 O] consumed
(D) All chemical reaction ceases
[N2 O]+[H2 O] (E) The total number of moles of material
(B) K c =
[NH3 ]+[O2 ] present remains constant

[N2 O][H2 O]3

(C) K c =
[NH3 ]2 [O2 ]2

E q u i l i b r i u m | 39
2H2 (𝑔) + O2 (𝑔) → 2H2 O(𝑔)
… Al(𝑠) + excess S(𝑠) → ⋯ ?
70) When hydrogen and oxygen react to form
49) How many moles of aluminum are needed water vapor, the heat released is
to react with excess sulfur, as shown above, approximately 13 kJ per gram of water
in order to form 1 mol of the product? formed. The amount of heat evolved when 1
mol of water is formed is approximately
(A) 1
(B) 2 (A) 1.3 kJ
(C) 3 (B) 13 kJ
(D) 4 (C) 26 kJ
(E) 5 (D) 230 kJ
(E) 470 kJ

4HN3 (𝑔) + O2 (𝑔) → 2H2 O(𝑙) + 6N2 (𝑔) Questions 4 – 6 refer to the following
information.
55) Hydrogen azide, HN3(g), may explode when
mixed with oxygen by reacting according to Na2CrO4, a soluble yellow solid
the equation above. How many nitrogen
molecules would be formed by reaction of 3 PbCrO4, an insoluble yellow solid
× 1023 O2(g) molecules with an excess of NaNO3, a soluble white solid
HN3(g) molecules?
Pb(NO3)2, a soluble white solid
23
(A) 1 × 10
(B) 3 × 1023
(C) 4 × 1023 (A) Yellow solid and colorless solution
(D) 6 × 1023 (B) Yellow solid and yellow solution
(E) 18 × 1023 (C) White solid and colorless solution
(D) No solid and yellow solution
𝐜𝐚𝐭𝐚𝐥𝐲𝐬𝐭 (E) No solid and colorless solution
C8 H18 (𝑔) → CH4 (𝑔)
+ 2C2 H4 (𝑔)+?
4) Observed when 1.0 mol of Na2CrO4and 2.0
56) If only one additional product is formed in mol of Pb(NO3)2 are mixed with 1 L of
the decomposition of 1 mol C8H18(g) at water
400°C as shown above, what must that
product be? 5) Observed when 3.0 mol of Na2CrO4and 1.0
mol of Pb(NO3)2 are mixed with 1 L of
(A) H2 water
(B) C2H2
(C) C2H6 6) Observed when 1.0 mol of NaNO3 and 1.0
(D) C3H6 mol of Pb(NO3)2 are mixed with 1 L of
(E) C3H8 water

40 | E q u i l i b r i u m
… H2 S(𝑔) + … O2 (𝑔) → … H2 O(𝑔) + ⋯ SO2 (𝑔) 41) A solution contains 1.00 mol of glucose,
C6H12O6, and 2.00 mol of urea, (NH3)2CO,
25) When 2 mol of H2S(g) react with an excess in 7.00 mol of water. What is the mole
of oxygen according to the equation above, fraction of glucose in the solution?
how much H2O (g)is produced? (Equation is
not balanced.) (A) 0.100
(B) 0.143
(A) 1 mol (C) 0.200
(B) 2 mol (D) 0.333
(C) 3 mol (E) 0.500
(D) 4 mol
(E) 6 mol

… Zn(𝑠) + ⋯ H + (𝑎𝑞) →
2SO2 (𝑔) + O2 (𝑔) ↔ 2SO3 (𝑔)
43) When the equation for the reaction
40) What is the expression for the equilibrium represented above is completed and
constant, Keq, for the reaction represented balanced and all coefficients are reduced to
above? lowest whole-number terms, the coefficient
for H+ is
[𝑆𝑂3 ]
(A) 𝐾𝑒𝑞 = [𝑆𝑂
2] [𝑂2 ] (A) 2
(B) 3
[𝑆𝑂3 ]2 (C) 4
(B) 𝐾𝑒𝑞 = [𝑆𝑂 2
2 ] [𝑂2 ] (D) 5
(E) 6
[𝑆𝑂2 ] +[𝑂2 ]
(C) 𝐾𝑒𝑞 = [𝑆𝑂3 ]

[𝑆𝑂2 ]2 +[𝑂2 ] 2CO(𝑔) + O2 (𝑔) → 2CO2 (𝑔)

(D) 𝐾𝑒𝑞 = [𝑆𝑂3 ]3
45) According to the reaction represented above,
1.00 mol of CO(g) at 0 °C and 1 atm to
[𝑆𝑂3 ]
(E) 𝐾𝑒𝑞 = [𝑆𝑂 consume how much O2(g)?
2] +[𝑂2 ]

(A) 32.0 g
(B) 11.2 L
(C) 22.4 L
(D) 1.00 mol
(E) 2.00 mol

E q u i l i b r i u m | 41
55) At 0 °C and 1.0 atm, the density of C2H4 gas C5 H12 (𝑙) + 8O2 (𝑔) → 5CO2 (𝑔) + 6H2 O(𝑙)
is approximately
59) According to the balanced equation above,
(A) 0.80 g/L when 4 mol of O2(g) react completely with
(B) 1.0 g/L C5H12(l), which of the following is true?
(C) 1.3 g/L
(D) 2.5 g/L (A) 1 mol of C5H12 (l) must react.
(E) 28 g/L (B) 2 mol of C5H12 (l) must react.
(C) 3 mol of H2O (l) must be formed.
(D) 12 mol of H2O (l) must be formed.
(E) 5 mol of CO2 (g) must be formed.
… P4 O10 (𝑠) + ⋯ H2 O(𝑙) → ⋯ H3 PO4 (𝑎𝑞)

57) When 1 mol of P4O10(s) reacts completely

with water to produce H3PO4 (aq) according
to the reaction represented by the
unbalanced equation above, the number of
moles of H2O (l) consumed is

(A) 1 mol
(B) 3 mol
(C) 4 mol
(D) 6 mol
(E) 12 mol

58) Increased randomness results under which

of the following conditions?

I. A 1 L sample of He(g) and a 1 L

sample of Ne (g) are mixed in a 2L
flask.
II. Ice melts.
III. CaO (s) reacts with CO2 (g) to form
CaCO3

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

42 | E q u i l i b r i u m
Questions 63 – 65 64) Why is it essential to know the water
temperature in this experiment?
Mg (s) + 2 H+ → Mg2+ + H2 (g)

A student performed an experiment to determine I. To find the vapor pressure of the

the amount of hydrogen gas released in a water
reaction. The student produced the hydrogen gas II. To control the rate of reaction
III. To make sure the reaction goes to
by reacting hydrochloric acid and a strip of
magnesium metal according to the equation completion
above. All of the magnesium metal was
consumed and the hydrogen gas was collected (A) I only
(B) II only
by displacement of water in an inverted bottle.
The student’s data contain the following (C) I and III only
information. (D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
Mass of Mg ………………….0.024 g

Volume of gas collected over water ... 25.2 mL 65) The volume of the dry hydrogen gas at 1
atm and room temperature would be
Water temperature ……. 22.0 C

Room temperature ….. 22.0 C

(A) (25.2)(749.8 + 19.8)/760 mL
Atmospheric pressure … 749.8 mm Hg (B) (25.2)(760 – 19.8)/749.8 mL
(C) (25.2)(749.8 – 19.8)/760 mL
Vapor pressure of water at 22 C …. 19.8 mm Hg (D) (749.8 – 19.8)/(760)(25.2) mL
(E) (760 – 19.8)/(749.8)(25.2) mL
63) What number of moles of magnesium was
used?
PCl5 (g) + energy ↔ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(A) 5.8 x 10-1 mol
(B) 3.0 x 10-2 mol 69) The system above is at equilibrium in a
(C) 2.4 x 10-2 mol closed container. Which of the following
(D) 1.4 x 10-3 mol would increase the amount of PCl3in the
(E) 1.0 x 10-3 mol system?

(A) Decreasing the pressure of the system at

constant temperature
(B) Lowering the temperature at constant
pressure
(C) Adding a catalyst
(D) Adding some Cl2
(E) Removing some PCl5 (g) from the
reaction vessel

E q u i l i b r i u m | 43
… NH3 (𝑔) + … O2 (𝑔) → … N2 (𝑔) + … H2 O(𝑔) 66) For the system represented above, which of
the following actions will shift the position
29) When the equation for the reaction of the equilibrium to the left?
represented above is balanced with all the
coefficients reduced to the lowest whole (A) Increasing the pressure
number terms, the coefficient for O2(g) is (B) Increasing the temperature
(C) Putting the mixture in a smaller
(A) 1 container
(B) 2 (D) Adding some O2(g)
(C) 3 (E) Removing some SO3(g)
(D) 4
(E) 6

… Na(𝑠) + … H2 O(𝑙) →
(NH4 )2 Cr2 O7 (𝑠) 67) Products of the reaction represented above
→ … Cr2 O3 (𝑠) + … N2 (𝑔) include which of the following?
+ … H2 O(𝑔)
I. Na+(aq)
40) When the equation for the reaction
II. OH-(aq)
represented above is balanced and all
III. H2(g)
coefficients are reduced to the lowest whole
number terms, the coefficients for H2O(g) is
(A) I only
(B) III only
(A) 1
(C) I and II only
(B) 2
(D) I and III only
(C) 3
(E) I,II and III
(D) 4
(E) 8

Ag 2 CO3 (𝑠) → 2Ag + (𝑎𝑞) + CO3 2− (𝑎𝑞)

47) Some solid Ag2CO3 is shaken with 50mL

of water and equilibrium system represented
above is established. The equilibrium would
be shifted to the left by the addition of which
of the following substances?

(A) Solid Ag2CO3

(B) 50mL H2O
(C) 0.5 M HCl
(D) 0.5 M Na2CO3
(E) 0.5 M NaNO3

44 | E q u i l i b r i u m
Correct Explanation Questions

I II
306) A catalyst increases the rate of a BECAUSE A catalyst increases the activation
chemical reaction energy of a reaction
405) Alkali metals are very good BECAUSE Alkali metals are easily oxidized
reducing agents
406) A 1.0 g sample of calcium nitrate, BECAUSE there are more Ca atoms in 1.0 mol
Ca3(C6H5O7 (molar mass 498 calcium carbonate than in 1.0 mol
g/mol), contains more Ca than a 1.0 of calcium citrate.
g sample of calcium carbonate,
CaCO3 (molar mass 100 g/mol)
413) A 1 mol sample of electrons is BECAUSE chlorine molecules are diatomic and
required charge on the chloride ion is -1
to reduce 0.5 mol of chlorine gas to
chloride ions
414) In 0.1 M acetic acid, [H+] is smaller BECAUSE a molecule of acetic acid contains
than [H+] in 0.1 M hydrochloric more atoms than does a molecule of
acid hydrogen chloride

E q u i l i b r i u m | 45
34) The molar concentration of hydrogen ions in
a solution of pH 6 is
Acids and Bases
41) Which of the following is not an example of (A) 10-8M
an acid and its conjugate base? (B) 10-6 M
(C) 6 M
(A) H2SO4 and HSO4 − (D) 8 M
(B) NH3 and NH2- (E) 106 M
(C) H2O and OH-
(D) H3O+ and H2O 35) A pH meter is used to measure the pH of a
(E) H2O2 and H2O solution of NH4Cl. When a dilute solution of
NH3 is added to this solution, a change in
pH is observed. The pH of the NH4Cl
60) Which of the following solutions has a pH solution would change in the same direction
very close to 2? if which of the following were added to it?

(A) 0.020M NaCl (aq) (A) HCl solution

(B) 1.00MKOH(aq) (B) KOH solution
(C) 0.010M HCl(aq) (C) Solid NH4Cl
(D) 1.0MS(aq) (D) Solid NaCl
(E) 0.50MNaHC(aq) (E) Solid sugar

36) Of the following, which is the strongest

Questions 10-13 Br∅nsted-Lowry base?
(A) Solid zinc is added to a Cu(NO3)2
(A) NH3
solution
(B) Solid calcium carbonate is added to a (B) CO3 −2
solution of hydrochloric acid. (C) H2 O
(C) Solutions of 0.1M BaCl2 and 0.1M (D) Cl−
H2SO4 are mixed. (E) OH −
(D) A solution of ammonia is added to a
Cu(NO3)2 solution.
2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3
(E) Solutions of 0.3M NaOH and 0.1M
H3PO4 are mixed. 60) If all measurements are made under the
same conditions, what volume of SO3 (g) is
10) An oxidation-reduction reaction is taking produced when 40 ml of SO2(g) and 20 ml
place. of O2 (g) react completely according to the
equation above?
11) An acid base reaction involving no visible
change occurs (A) 10 ml
(B) 20ml
12) A gas is evolved. (C) 40ml
(D) 60ml
13) A complex ion is formed. (E) 80ml

46 | A c i d s a n d B a s e s
61) Which of the following can be observed 50) The pH of 0.01 M sodium chloride solution
when 20.0 ml of 1.0 M NaOH (aq), 10.0 mL is about
of 1.0 M HCl (aq) and a few drops of
phenolphthalein are combined and react? (A) 1
(B) 2
(A) A clear, pink solution only (C) 7
(B) A clear colorless solution only (D) 10
(C) A white solid and a clear, colorless (E) 12
solution
(D) A pink solid and a clear, colorless
solution 54) Bubbling gaseous hydrogen chloride into
(E) A white solid and a clear, pink solution distilled water produces a

(A) Precipitate
(B) basic solution
62) If 100 mL of each of the following aqueous
(C) solution with pH < 7
solutions are mixed with 100 mL samples of
(D) solution that does not conduct an
1.0 M NaOH (aq), the greatest amount of
electric current
heat is liberated by
(E) solution that turns litmus paper blue
(A) 0.010 M H2SO4
(B) 0.010M HCl
(C) 0.10M HCl 65) If a nitric acid solution has a nitrate ion
concentration of 0.01 M, the pH of the
(D) 0.10M H2SO4
(E) 1.0 M HCl solution is

(A) 1
48) In standardizing a solution of sodium (B) 2
hydroxide, a student found that 30 mL of the (C) 4
solution exactly neutralized 20 mL or 0.3 M (D) 9
hydrochloric acid. The molarity of the (E) 12
sodium hydroxide solution was

(A) 0.1 M
(B) 0.2 M
(C) 0.3 M
(D) 0.4 M
(E) 0.5 M

A c i d s a n d B a s e s | 47
[H+ ][X- ] 36) In which of the following compounds does
𝐾𝑎 = nitrogen have an oxidation number of +5?
[HX]
(A) HNO3
69) The expression for the ionization constant,
(B) N2
Ka, for the weak acid HX is shown above. If
(C) NO2
the H+ concentration is 10-3M in a 0.10 M
(D) N2O
solution of the weak acid, what is the value
(E) NH2OH
of the ionizationconstant, Ka ?

(A) 10-1
(B) 10-3 38) When a given amount of Ca(OH)2 is
(C) 10-5 completely neutralized with H2SO4, which
(D) 10-6 of the following is the mole ratio of
(E) 10-7 Ca(OH)2 to H2SO4 in this reaction?

(A) 1:4
31) When 50 mL of 1.5 M NaCl(aq) is diluted (B) 1:2
with pure water to a final volume of 150 (C) 1:1
mL, what is the molarity of the resulting (D) 2:1
solution? (E) 4:1

(A) 0.10 M
(B) 0.50 M
HCl(𝑔) + H2 O(𝑙) → H3 O+ (𝑎𝑞) + Cl− (𝑎𝑞)
(C) 1.5 M
(D) 4.5 M
(E) E. 5.0 M 50) All of the following statements are correct
for the reaction represented by the equation
above EXCEPT:
33) A solution that has a pH of 6.0 is
(A) H3O+ is the conjugate acid of H2O
(A) strongly basic (B) Cl- is the conjugate base of HCl
(B) slightly basic (C) H2O is behaving as a Bronsted-Lowry
(C) neutral base
(D) slightly acidic (D) HCl is a weaker Bronsted-Lowry acid
(E) strongly acidic than H2O
(E) The reaction proceeds essentially to
completion

48 | A c i d s a n d B a s e s
61) The molarity of solution X is to be 25) Given solutions with the following pH
determined by a titration procedure. to carry values, which has the greatest
out his procedure, all of the following must concentration of H+ ions?
be known, EXCEPT the
(A) 1
(A) equation for the chemical reaction that (B) 5
occurs during the titration (C) 7
(B) volume of solution X that is used (D) 9
(C) mass of solution X that is used (E) 11
(D) volume of the solution that reacts with X
(E) molarity of the solution that reacts with
X 41) Which of the following solutions has the
highest pH?

62) The primary intermolecular attraction that (A) 0.1 M NH3

makes it possible to liquefy hydrogen gas is (B) 0.1 M NaOH
called (C) 0.1 M HOCl
(D) 0.1 M H3PO4
(A) London dispersion forces (E) 0.1 M HC2H3O2
(B) dipole-dipole attraction
(C) covalent bonding
(D) ionic bonding
(E) hydrogen bonding

Questions 19 – 21:

(A) Oxidation
(B) Decomposition
(C) Precipitation
(D) Acid-base
(E) Reduction

Which of the following best describe the

reaction presented by each of the following
equations?

19) CaCO3 (s) → CaO(s) + CO2 (g)

20) Pb2+ (aq) + 2I − (aq) → PbI2 (s)

21) Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e−

A c i d s a n d B a s e s | 49
Correct explanation questions

I II
104) HNO3 acts as a Bronsted – Lowry BECAUSE Bronsted-Lowry acids accept protons
acid
215) A 0.1 M solution of HCl has a BECAUSE The chlorine atom is less
greater concentration of H3O+ than electronegative than the carbon atom
a 0.1 M solution of acetic acid, is
HC2H3O2, has
301) A catalyst increases the rate of a BECAUSE a catalyst increases the activation
chemical reaction energy of a chemical reaction

306) Acetic acid, HC2H3O2, is a strong BECAUSE each molecule of acetic acid contains
acid four hydrogen atoms
309) In the laboratory, water should BECAUSE when water is added to concentrated
never be added to concentrated sulfuric acid, the heat produced may
sulfuric acid cause the mixture to splatter
411) When a concentrated acid is BECAUSE if water is added quickly to a
diluted, the acid should be added concentrated acid, violent splattering
slowly to the water might occur
502) HCI (aq) is a weak acid BECAUSE chlorine is a very electronegative
element
507) Acetic Acid, HC2H3O2, is a stronger BECAUSE acetic acid has more hydrogen in its
acid than sulfuric acid molecular structure than does sulfuric
acid
512) The hydrogen carbonate ion, BECAUSE the hydrogen carbonate ion can either
HCO3(aq) is both a Bronsted Lowry donate or accept a proton
acid and a Bronsted Lowry base

50 | A c i d s a n d B a s e s
68) Sulfur has oxidation states of -2, +2, +4
and +6 and can be expected to from all of
the following EXCEPT

Thermochemistry (A) SF6

27) In which of the following does the (B) SO2
entropy decrease? (C) SCl3
(D) SO3
(A) CaCO3 (s → CaO(s) + CO2 (g) (E) H2S

(B) NH3 (g) + HCI(g) → NH4 Cl(s) 31) When 1.0 L of 1.0 M NaOH is diluted to
2.0 L with distilled water, the Na+
(C) 2NaHCO3 → Na2 CO3 (s) + H2 O(g) + concentration in the final solution is
CO2 (g)
(A) 4.0 M
(B) 2.0 M
(D) 2SO3 (g → 2 SO2 (g) + O2 (g)
(C) 1.0 M
(D) 0.50 M
(E) CH3 OH(l) → CH3 OH(g)
(E) 0.20 M

64) Which of the following processes is 57) Which of the following is an endothermic
endothermic? process?

(A) A chemical bond is broken (A) CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(g)

(B) Liquid sulfur is solidified (B) 2 Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s)
(C) Neon gas in a cylinder is compressed at (C) Dilution of a concentrated H2SO4
25C (D) CO2(s) → CO2(g)
(D) Water vapor condenses. (E) Condensation of a vapor
(E) A gaseous chlorine atom gains an
electron.

𝑋𝑌2 (𝑔) → 𝑋 (𝑔) + 𝑌2 (𝑔) 𝐻 = −60 𝑘𝐽

𝑋𝑌2 (g) → 𝑋𝑌2 (𝑙) 𝐻  = +25 𝑘𝐽 N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇔ 2NH3(g) + 200 KJ
53) Which of the following statements about
the reaction represented above is true?
43) According to the reactions presented
above, what is the standard enthalpy of
(A) The forward reaction is endothermic.
reaction, H, for the following reaction?
(B) A 28 g sample of N2 (g) reacts
XY2 (𝑙) → X(𝑔) + Y2 (𝑔)
completely with a 3 g sample of H2 (g)
(C) NH3 (g) will dissociate into equal
(A) -110 kJ
masses of N2 (g) and H2 (g)
(B) -85kJ
(D) The reactants occupy a smaller volume
(C) -60kJ
than the products when measured at the
(D) -35kJ
same temperature and pressure
(E) +25kJ
(E) The equilibrium concentration of
ammonia is affected by a change in
temperature

T h e r m o c h e m i s t r y | 51
H2 (g) + F2 (g) → 2 HF (g) ΔH = + 537.6 kJ

66) If 0.10 mol of HF (g) is formed according

to the reaction represented above,
approximately how much heat is evolved?

(A) 13 kJ
(B) 27 kJ
(C) 54 kJ
(D) 110 kJ
(E) 220 kJ

63) How much energy is required to heat

100g of H2O from 20.0°C to 40.0°C? (The
specific heat of H2O is 4.18J/(g°C).)

(A) 93.6 J
(B) 482J
(C) 2000J
(D) 4180J
(E) 8360J

52 | T h e r m o c h e m i s t r y
Correct Explanation Questions

I II
204) All endothermic reactions are BECAUSE In endothermic reactions, the total
nonspontaneous energy of the products is higher than
the total energy of the reactants
209) The entropy of a substance BECAUSE Molecules in a liquid have more
increases as it changes from a gas to freedom of movement than gases have
a liquid
212) At a given temperature, the average BECAUSE At a given temperature, atoms of He
speed of atoms in He is greater than and Xe have the same average kinetic
the average speed of atoms in Xe energy, and He has a lower atomic
mass than Xe
307) When a pure liquid at its boiling BECAUSE When a pure liquid vaporizes, there is
point is converted from a liquid to a a decrease in entropy.
gas, its temperature remains
constant until the change is
completed
311) The energy per mole required for BECAUSE the radius of a Na atom is less than the
the process Na(g) → Na+ (g) + e− radius of a Na+ ion.
is less than the energy per mole
required for the process Na(g) →
Na2+ (g) + 2e−
402) The melting of ice is an exothermic BECAUSE water has a relatively high specific
process heat capacity
508) The decomposition of water by BECAUSE converting a pure liquid to its vapor
electrolysis to yield H2 (g) and O2 phase increases the entropy of the
(g) is an endothermic process system

T h e r m o c h e m i s t r y | 53
25) The oxidation number of hydrogen is
negative in which of the following
Electrochemistry compounds?
Questions 15-17 refer to the reactions
represented by the following equations: (A) NaH
(B) NH3
(A) Na+ (g) + e− → Na (g)
(C) H2O
(B) 2Cl− (g) → 2Cl(g) + 2e – (D) HCl
(C) C2 H4 (g) + 3O2 (g) → 2CO(g) + (E) KOH
2H2 O (g)
(D) H + (aq) + OH − (aq) → H2 O (g)
(E) Cu2+ (aq) + 2e− → Cu (aq)
39) The reaction represented above could be
correctly described as
15) A neutralization reaction
(A) proton transfer reaction
16) A combustion reaction (B) A neutron transfer reaction
(C) An electron transfer reaction
17) An oxidation half-reaction (D) A hydronium ion transfer reaction
(E) A nuclear reaction

𝐹𝑒 2+ (𝑎𝑞) → 𝐹𝑒 3+ (𝑎𝑞)
32) The conversion indicated above requires
the addition of Questions 21-23 refer to the following
situations.
(A) A precipitating agent
(A) Alcohol boiling in a beaker
(B) A reducing agent
(B) Copper plating in an electroplating cell
(C) An oxidizing agent
(C) Gas evolving when zinc is mixed with
(D) A strong base
hydrochloric acid
(E) A strong acid
(D) Iron nail rusting
(E) Solid precipitating when calcium
chloride is added to a silver nitrate
40) Hydrogen can be prepared by the action
solution
of dilute hydrochloric acid on which of the
following?
21) Is a chemical change with a large increase
in entropy
(A) Gold
(B) Zinc
22) Is a reaction in which O2 gas is consumed
(C) Silicon
(D) Silver
23) Is a chemical change that does NOT
(E) Carbon
involve oxidation-reduction

54 | E l e c t r o c h e m i s t r y
39) The oxidation number of manganese is C6 H5 OH + CO2 + HC2 H3 O2 → H2 O + aspirin
+2 in which of the following compounds?
49) Phenol (C6H5OH), carbon dioxide (CO2),
I. K2MnO4 and acetic acid (HC2H3O2) react to form
II. MnCl2 aspirin and H2O as shown in the balanced
III. MnO equation above. What is the chemical
formula for aspirin?
(A) I only
(B) II only (A) C9H10O5
(C) I and II only (B) C9H8O4
(C) C8H10O5
(D) II and III only (D) C8H9O4
(E) I, II, and III (E) C8H8O4

58) A 4 L sample of hydrogen and a 3 L

13) Which of the following are strong
sample of oxygen, each at 20°C and 1 atm,
electrolytes in aqueous solution?
are mixed, exploded to form as much
water as possible, and then cooled back to
(A) NH3 and N2H4
the initial temperature and pressure. At
(B) 16O and 17O
the end of the experiment, there remains
(C) NH4Cl and NH4NO3
in the system.
(D) CH3OCH3 and NH4NO3
(E) O2 and O3
(A) 3 L of hydrogen
(B) 2 L of hydrogen
(C) 2 L of oxygen
52) Of the following, which is an example of (D) 1 L of oxygen
an oxidation-reduction reaction? (E) No gas at all

(A) Fe(s) + Sn2+(aq)  Sn(s) + Fe2+(aq)

(B) HCO3-(aq) + OH- CO32-(aq) + H2O (l) C2H5OH(l) + .. O2(g) → .. CO2(g) + ..H2O(g)
(C) Pb2+(aq) + 2 I- (aq)  PbI2(s)
(D) HCl(g) + NH3 (g)  NH4Cl(s) 60) When the combustion reaction
(E) Ba2+(aq) + MnO42-(aq)  BaMnO4(s) represented by the equation above is
balanced using the lowest whole number
coefficients, what is the coefficient of
26) In the compound RbBrO3, the oxidation O2(g) ?
number of bromine is
(A) 2
(A) -1 (B) 3
(C) 4
(B) +1
(D) 5
(C) +3 (E) 6
(D) +5
(E) +7

E l e c t r o c h e m i s t r y | 55
Correct explanation Questions

I II
112) In the conversion of sulfur to BECAUSE In the conversion of sulfur to sulfuric
sulfuric acid, H2SO4, sulfur is acid, the oxidation number of sulfur is
reduced increased from 0 to +6
114) Hydrogen may act as a reducing BECAUSE Hydrogen is a gas at room temperature
agent and 1 atm
208) The oxidation number of chlorine in BECAUSE Chlorine forms the stable molecule Cl2
HCl is -1
313) A greater quantity of electric charge BECAUSE Pb has a greater atomic mass than Ag
is required to deposit 0.1 mol of has.
Pb(s) from Pb2+(aq) than to deposit
0.1 mol of Ag(s) from Ag+(aq)

56 | E l e c t r o c h e m i s t r y
Questions 1 – 4 refer to the following
compounds:
Descriptive and Lab Chemistry
Questions 4 – 6 refer to the following (A) Al2O3
questions: (B) NH4NO3
(C) CF2Cl2
(D) SO3
(E) SiO3

1) Is a primary constituent of ordinary glass

2) Is important as a plant fertilizer
3) Produces acid rain when combined with
atmospheric moisture
4) Implicated in the destruction of ozone in
the stratosphere

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Questions 17 – 18 refer to the following

elements.

4) Most appropriate for delivering the most

(A) Aluminum
precisely measured volume of liquid
(B) Germanium
(C) Iron
5) Most appropriate for diluting a solution to (D) Tungsten
a fixed accurate volume (E) Zinc

6) Most appropriate for titrating an acid 17) Is used to galvanize steel and is a major
with a base component of the alloy brass

18) Is a metalloid that exhibits semiconductor

39) Which of the following is NOT a standard behavior
laboratory practice?

(A) Wearing safety goggles at all times

(B) Returning unused chemicals to their
original containers
(C) While heating test tubes, printing them
away from other people
(D) Working in the laboratory when others
are present
(E) Tying back long hair

D e s c r i p t i v e a n d L a b C h e m i s t r y | 57
29) The following data were collected to 53) The mass of a piece of copper wire and
determine the density of a liquid. the mass of a crucible are measured. The
copper wire is placed in the crucible,
Mass of bottle filled with 21.245 g covered with sulfur and heated to
liquid redness. The mass of the crucible
Mass of empty bottle 10.234 g containing the product is measured after
Volume of liquid in bottle 11.0 ml
cooling. All of the following are possible
The density of the liquid in the bottle is best experimental observations EXCEPT
recorded as
(A) The product is black.
(A) 0.1 g/ml (B) The product is solid.
(B) 1g/ml (C) The product weighs more than the
(C) 1.0g/ml copper.
(D) 1.00g/ml (D) Each copper atom has lost two electrons.
(E) 1.001 g/ml (E) The copper wire has disappeared

41) All of the following are good laboratory

practices EXCEPT 63) All of the following are good electrical
conductors EXCEPT
(A) Fire polishing all edges of glass tubes
and rods (A) Molten NaCl
(B) Heating substances in test tubes only (B) Gasoline
when test tubes are pointed away from (C) A copper wire
everyone (D) A silver spoon
(C) Slowly adding water to acid when (E) 1 M HCl
diluting concentrated acids
(D) Conducting reactions that produce
gaseous products in a fume hood 35) An 8.0 g sample of a gas that contains only
(E) Removing nearby flammable reagents the elements sulfur and oxygen yielded
before lighting a burner 3.2 g of sulfur on analysis. What is the
empirical (simplest) formula for the
51) The best piece of equipment for compound?
delivering exactly 17.50 ml of 0.3175 M
hydrochloric acid into a clean, dry flask is (A) SO
a (B) SO2
(C) SO3
(A) Graduated cylinder (D) S2O3
(B) Volumetric flask (E) S3O4
(C) Beaker
(D) Test tube
(E) Burette

58 | D e s c r i p t i v e a n d L a b C h e m i s t r y
42) Which of the following is the LEAST likely Questions 1-3 refer to the following pieces of
to be used in an acid-base titration? laboratory equipment.

(A) A burette (A) Condenser

(B) A crucible (B) Funnel
(C) An indicator (C) Pipet
(D) An Erlenmeyer flask (D) Balance
(E) A pipet (E) Barometer

1) Commonly used to transfer an exact

58) The best way to separate potassium volume of liquid from one container to
iodide from a mixture of iron fillings, another
sand, and potassium iodide is by
2) Commonly used in a distillation setup
(A) sublimation
(B) using a magnet 3) Commonly used in a filtration setup
(C) extraction with water
(D) using hydrofluoric acid
(E) using a sieve Questions 18-20 refer to the following gases.

(A) O3
(B) O2
63) Gases commonly collected in the (C) CO
laboratory by water displacement include (D) Cl2
which of the following? (E) SO2

I. NH3(g) 18) Contributes to acid rain

II. O2(g)
III. H2(g) 19) In the stratosphere, screens out a large
fraction of ultraviolet rays from the Sun
(A) I only
(B) III only 20) Is a product of the incomplete combustion
(C) I and II only of hydrocarbons.
(D) I and III only
(E) II and III only
34) Which of the following molecules is a
saturated hydrocarbon?

(A) C3H8
(B) C2H4
(C) CH3Cl
(D) CCl4
(E) CO2

D e s c r i p t i v e a n d L a b C h e m i s t r y | 59
46) Species that in water can accept or donate 56) Which of the following contains a weak
protons include which of the following? organic acid?

(A) Vinegar
I. CH4
(B) Hydrogen Peroxide
II. HCO3-
2- (C) Baking Soda
III. HPO4
(D) Freon gas
(E) Ammonia

(A) I only
(B) II only 67) A chemical reaction is used to separate a
(C) III only mixture into separate substances in
(D) II and III only which of the following situations?
(E) I, II, and III
(A) Pure water is obtained from ocean
water by evaporating the water and
condensing it.
(B) Iron filings are separated from sand by
the use of a magnet.
48) An active ingredient in common (C) Plant pigments in a solution are
household bleach solutions is most likely separated by the use of paper
to be which of the following? chromatography.
(D) Iron is exarcted from iron ore.
(A) NaCl (E) Sand is obtained from a sand-sugar
(B) NaClO mixture by adding water to dissolve the
(C) NaHCO3 sugar.
(D) Na2SO4
(E) HC2H3O2
68) If a compound has an empirical formula of
CH2 and a molar mass of 70 g/mol, which
of the following is most likely to be its
molecular formula.

(A) C3H6
(B) C4H4
(C) C4H8
(D) C5H5
(E) C5H10

60 | D e s c r i p t i v e a n d L a b C h e m i s t r y
Questions 4-7 refer to the following 64) If a student were to accurately analyze a
separation methods. mixture of solid NaCl and solid NaOH by
titration of the hydroxide ion with a
(A) Treatment with water followed by
standardized solution of HCl, which of the
filtration
following would be LEAST useful?
(B) Fractional distillation
(C) Evaporation
(A) Bunsen Burner
(D) Paper chromatography
(B) Analytical balance
(E) Gaseous diffusion
(C) Burette
(D) Erlenmeyer flask
4) Most appropriate for separating several
(E) Indicator
components of ink

5) Most appropriate for obtaining salt from

salt-water solutions 68) When the following air pollutants are
present in small amounts, which is LEAST
6) Most appropriate for obtaining sand and hazardous to humans?
sugar
(A) Ammonia, NH3
(B) Carbon dioxide, CO2
7) Most appropriate for separating methyl
alcohol and water (C) Sulfur dioxide, SO2
(D) Nitrogen dioxide, NO2
(E) Hydrogen Sulfide, H2S
43) A 45g sample of pure compound contains
36g of carbon and 9.0g of hydrogen. What
is its empirical (simplest) formula? 69) A compound containing only carbon and
hydrogen is found to have a molar mass
(A) CH3 of 100g/mol and to consist of 16 percent
(B) CH4 hydrogen by mass. The number of carbon
(C) C2H3 atoms in one molecule of the compound is
(D) C3H5
(E) C4H (A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 7

D e s c r i p t i v e a n d L a b C h e m i s t r y | 61
Correct Explanation Questions

I II
107) In a laboratory experiment to BECAUSE In a laboratory experiment to
determine the formula of a hydrate, it determine the formula of a hydrate,
is necessary to heat and measure the to ensure accurate results, it must be
mass of the crucible more than once verified that all the water has been
driven off the sample

115) To find the volume of a gas at BECAUSE When the water level is the same
atmospheric pressure, the water level inside and outside the graduated tube
inside the graduated tube as shown shown above, the combined pressure
above should be even with the water of the gas and water vapor inside the
level outside the tube. graduated tube is equal to
atmospheric pressure
207) All pure hydrocarbons have the same BECAUSE Hydrocarbons contain only the
percentage composition elements carbon and hydrogen
308) Benzene, C6H6, is a cyclic organic BECAUSE All the bonds in a benzene molecule
hydrocarbon are single bonds
401) C2H2 and C6H6 have the same BECAUSE C2H2 and C6H6 have the same
chemical and physical properties percentages by mass of hydrogen
408) All indicators are colorless in neutral BECAUSE indicators develop color only in the
solution presence of a strong acid or a strong
base

62 | D e s c r i p t i v e a n d L a b C h e m i s t r y
Miscellaneous

54) Each of the following statements can describe a chemical property of matter except

(A) It is an acid
(B) It supports burning
(C) It reacts with water
(D) It is less dense than water
(E) It is a reducing agent

61) All of the following are true statements about hydrogen sulfide, at room temperature EXCEPT

(A) It is a gas
(B) It has the odor of rotten eggs
(C) It exhibits weaker intermolecular forces than water does
(D) It is a strong acid
(E) It reacts with many transition metal salts and converts them to insoluble sulfides

M i s c e l l a n e o u s | 63
2020

Math Level II
Practice Workbook

The Princeton Review

ScorePlus
Math Level IIC Workbook
Algebra ................................................................................. 1
SET 1 ................................................................................. 1
SET 2 ................................................................................. 4
SET 3 ................................................................................. 7
SET 4 ............................................................................... 10
SET 5 ............................................................................... 12
Functions and graphs ......................................................... 14
SET 1 ............................................................................... 14
SET 2 ............................................................................... 19
SET 3 ............................................................................... 23
SET 4 ............................................................................... 27
SET 5 ............................................................................... 33
Logarithms ......................................................................... 37
Trigonometry ..................................................................... 38
SET 1 ............................................................................... 38
SET 2 ............................................................................... 41
SET 3 ............................................................................... 44
SET 4 ............................................................................... 48
SET 5 ............................................................................... 51
Solid Geometry .................................................................. 55
Logic, Probability, Arrangements Factorials ...................... 61
Sequences, Complex numbers, Limits, Stats ..................... 66
SET 1 ............................................................................... 66
SET 2 ............................................................................... 68
SET 3 ............................................................................... 70
SET 4 ............................................................................... 73
SET 5 ............................................................................... 77
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
Algebra
SET 1
1) If x = 2, for which of the following is the value of y
greatest?

1
(A) y =
x−1
(B) y = |x|
(C) y = x 2
(D) y = x 3 − 1
(E) y = 2x

3
4) If x = 5−2 , then √x =

(A) -2.92
(B) -2.15
(C) 0.34
(D) 1.31
(E) 2.92

8) For all real numbers a and b such that a 2 > b2 , which

of the following must be true?

I. a2 − b2 > 0
II. a>b
III. ab2 > 0

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II
(E) II and III

9) What is the least positive integer n for which n + 1 is

NOT prime?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

1 |Algebra
11) The senior class at North High designed a T-shirt as a
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
class fund raiser. They had to pay $35 to setup the
design and the total cost to make each finished shirt was
$7.50. They sold the shirts for $10 each. If x is the
number of shirts made and y is the number of shirts
sold, which of the following conditions represents a
profit for the senior class?

(A) 10y − 7.5x + 35 > 0

(B) 10y − 7.5x + 35 < 0
(C) 10y − 7.5x − 35 > 0
(D) 10y − 7.5x − 35 < 0
(E) 10y − (7.5 + 35)x > 0

17) A total of 500 tickets were sold for a school play,

generating total sales of $1,700. If tickets cost $4 for
adults and $2 for children, how many adult tickets were
sold?

(A) 83
(B) 150
(C) 283
(D) 350
(E) 425

18) If 3 is a root of x 5 − x 4 − 11x 3 + 21x 2 − 11x + k = 0,

then k is

(A) -23
(B) -21
(C) 4
(D) 14
(E) 20

21) For which of the following equations is the product of

its roots NOT a negative number?

(A) x 2 + 6x = 0
(B) x 2 − 25 = 0
(C) x 2 − 10x − 24 = 0
(D) x 2 − 6x − 27 = 0
(E) x 2 + 7x − 18 = 0

Math Workbook | 2
29) For all values of x, x 2 + 2x + 4 = (x + 2)2 +
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
a(x + 2) + b, where a and b are constants. What is the
value of a?

(A) -2
(B) -1
(C) 0
(D) 1
(E) 2

49) Two numbers have sum of 10 and a product of 20. What

is the sum of the reciprocals of the two numbers?

(A) 1⁄2
(B) 1⁄5
(C) 3⁄20
(D) 1⁄10
(E) 1⁄20

3 |Algebra
SET 2 USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
2) Exactly $9.00 was used to purchase an equal number of
each of three types of token: $0.10, $0.15, and $0.20.
How many of each type of token were purchased?

(A) 45
(B) 30
(C) 25
(D) 20
(E) 15

4) The sum of x and x 2 is positive. Which of the following

CANNOT be a value of x?

(A) -2
(B) -5⁄4
(C) -1⁄2
(D) -3⁄2
(E) 5⁄4

5) If x 8 = y 2 and x> 0, what is the value of x when y = 9?

(A) 1.316
(B) 1.435
(C) 1.372
(D) 2.250
(E) 10.125

𝑦 = 2𝑥 + 1

8) If (x, y) is a solution to the equation above and -1 <x<

1, which of the following must be true?

(A) -2 < y <2

(B) -1 < y <3
(C) -1 < y <0
(D) 0<y <1
(E) 1<y <3

Math Workbook | 4
14) If 2x+2= k, what is the value of x in terms of k?
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
log k
(A) log 2 − 2
k
(B) log ( ) − 2
2
log (k) - 2
(C) log 2
(D) log k – log 4
k
(E) log 2 − 2

23) What is the maximum value of k for which |𝑥 − 2| < 𝑘

implies |3𝑥 − 6| < 1?

(A) -3
(B) -1/3
(C) 1/3
(D) 3
(E) There is no maximum k satisfying the
condition.

x y
28) If = 10, then 2x - y =
2y - x

(A) 31/12
(B) 14/17
(C) 14/29
(D) 11/29
(E) 2/31

37) If r and s are prime numbers greater than 2, which of the

following could represent a prime number for some
values of r and s?

I. r+s+1
II. rs + 1
III. rs + s

(A) None
(B) I only
(C) II only
(D) III only
(E) I, II, and III

5 |Algebra
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
48) The roots of the equation 𝑥 2 − 7𝑥 + 2 = 0 are s and t,
which of the following equations has s + 1 and t +1 as
roots?

(A) x2 – 5x + 3 = 0
(B) x2 – 9x + 10 = 0
(C) x2 – 9x + 4 = 0
(D) x2 – 7x + 4 = 0
(E) x2 – 2x + 10 = 0

Math Workbook | 6
SET 3 USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
1) If (𝑥 − 2)3 = 13.5, what is the value of x?

(A) 2.38
(B) 2.50
(C) 3.67
(D) 4.38
(E) 4.50

kt
6) Let 𝑣 = ab + cd, where a, b, c, d, k, and t represent
positive real numbers. If the value of d decreases and
remains positive, while the value of a, b, c, k, and
remain unchanged, what happened to the value of v?

(A) It increases.
(B) It decreases.
(C) It remains constant.
(D) It approaches 0.
(E) It becomes negative.

x−y 8x − 8y
8) If a+b
= 3/4, then 9a + 9b
=

(A) 2/3
(B) 3/4
(C) 27/32
(D) 8/9
(E) 17/12

If n is a multiple of both 3 and 6, then n is a multiple of

18.
9) Which of the following values of n shows that the
statement above is false?

(A) 18
(B) 24
(C) 36
(D) 54
(E) 81

7 |Algebra
x
12) If 3x + 3 = 7, then x + 1 = USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

(A) 7/3
(B) 7/4
(C) 10/13
(D) 4/7
(E) 3/7

14) For real numbers x and y, if x = y-1, the xy =

(A) 0
(B) 1
𝑥
(C) 𝑦
(D) 𝑥 2 + x
(E) 𝑦2

18) a < b < 0, which of the following must be positive?

(A) −𝑎2
(B) −𝑎𝑏
(C) −(𝑎𝑏)2
(D) −𝑏 3
(E) −𝑏 4

19) If (x-7) (3x-4) = 0, then either 3x – 4 = 0 or 3x – 4 =

(A) -25
(B) ¾
(C) 4/3
(D) 7
(E) 17

25) Which of the following equations is NOT equivalent to

7𝑥−1 = 494−𝑥 ?
(A) x − 1 = 2(4 − x)
(B) x − 1 = 74−x
(C) 7x−1 = 78−2x
(D) log 7x−1 = log 494−x
(E) (x − 1) log 7 = (4 − x) log 49

Math Workbook | 8
32) How many solutions does the equation│3x – 2│=
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
│x+21│ have?

(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four

41) If n is an integer greater than1 and if 𝑃 =𝑛+

1−(−1)𝑛
(𝑛2 − 1) 2
, which of the following must be
true about the number P?

(A) P is odd.
(B) P is odd and P> 3.
(C) P is even and P≤ 2.
(D) P is even and P > 2.
(E) P is sometimes even and sometimes odd.

9 |Algebra
SET 4 USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
k
42) If 3x + 6 = 4
(x + 2) for all x, then k=

1
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 12
(E) 24

4) If x + y = 2, y + z = 5 and x + y + z = 10, then y =

(A) -3
3
(B) 17
(C) 1
(D) 3
17
(E) 3

8) What is the value of x 2 if x = √152 − 122 ?

(A) √3
(B) 3
(C) 9
(D) 81
(E) 812

19) Which of the following is equivalent to p + s > p − s?

(A) p > s
(B) p > 0
(C) s > p
(D) s > 0
(E) s < 0

36) The only prime factors of a number n are 2, 5, 7 and 17.

Which of the following could NOT be a factor of n?
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 30
(E) 34

Math Workbook | 10
42) The set of all real numbers x such that √x 2=−x consists USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
of

(A) Zero only

(B) Non positive real numbers only
(C) Positive real numbers only
(D) All real numbers
(E) No real numbers

11 |Algebra
SET 5 USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
2) If 0 < x < 1, which of the following has the greatest
value?

1 1
(A) 𝑥 (B) 𝑥 2 (C) 𝑥 3 (D) 𝑥 (E) 𝑥 2

4) If j = x 2 , then x 4 + 4x 2 − 5 = 0 is equivalent to which

of the following?

(A) j2 + 4j − 5 = 0
(B) j2 + j − 5 = 0
(C) j4 + 4j2 − 5 = 0
(D) j8 + 4j4 − 5 = 0
(E) j8 + 4j − 5 = 0

5) A quiz game contains two types of questions, some

worth 3 points and others worth 8 points. Which of the
following must be true about the score for a player in
this game?

I. The total score must be a multiple of 3 or a

multiple of 8.
II. A score of 13 can be achieved
III. Both even scores and odd scores can be
achieved.

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II
(E) II and III

12) What negative number is 42 less than its square?

(A) -8
(B) -7
(C) -6
(D) -5
(E) -3

Math Workbook | 12
23) For which of the following values of a and c does the
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
eqation ax2 + 3x + c = 0 have no real roots?

(A) a = 1, c = 2
(B) a = 1, c = −2
(C) a = −1, c = 2
(D) a = −3, c = 1
(E) a = −3, c = −1

26) If x < 0, then −|x| =

(A) – x
1
(B) –
x
(C) 0
1
(D) x
(E) x

27) If p, s and t are distinct positive primes, what is the least

perfect cube that is divisible by p2 s 5 r 7 ?

(A) p3 s 3 r 3
(B) p3 s 6 r 9
(C) p9 s 9 r 9
(D) p6 s15 r 21
(E) p8 s125 r 343

13 |Algebra
Functions and graphs USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

SET 1
2) If 𝑓(𝑥) = √𝑥 3 + 8, how much does 𝑓(𝑥) increase as 𝑥
increases from 4 to 5?

(A) 0.94
(B) 1.00
(C) 3.05
(D) 3.18
(E) 7.81

3) The speedometer on Jim’s car is inaccurate. The

relationship between the actual speed of the car, a, in
miles per hour, and the reading Jim’s speedometer, r, is
given by a = 12 + 1.7r. What is the actual speed of
Jim’s car when the reading on the speedometer is 15?

(A) 25.5 mph

(B) 27.0 mph
(C) 33.7 mph
(D) 37.5 mph
(E) 45.9 mph

7) Which of the following graphs is symmetric with

respect to the x-axis?

(A)

(B)

Math Workbook | 14
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
(C)

(D)

(E)

15 |Functions and graphs

14) For which of the following functions is there a value of
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
x such that f(𝑥) = −1000?

(A) f(x) = 2x
(B) f(x) = sin(x)
(C) f(x) = (x − 2)2
(D) f(x) = |x − 4|
(E) f(x) = 2x + 3

16) The figure above shows the graphs of functions f and g.

Which of the following is closest to a value of x such
that f(x) − g(x) = 0?

(A) -3
(B) -2
(C) 1
(D) 2
(E) 4

x−5
23) What is the domain of f if f(x) = ?
x2 −5x
(A) All real numbers
(B) All real numbers except 0
(C) All real numbers except 5
(D) All real numbers except 0 and -5
(E) All real numbers except 0 and 5

Math Workbook | 16
24) For which of the following does the property f(f(x)) = USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
x hold for all x?

(A) f(x) = −x
(B) f(x) = x 2
(C) f(x) = 2x
(D) f(x) = cos(x)
(E) f(x) = sin(x)

26) f is a linear function such that f(−1) = 2.5 and

f(1) = −3, what is the value of f(4)?
(A) 2.75
(B) -8.25
(C) -8.5
(D) -11.25
(E) -14

27) If f(x) = x 2 − 1 and g(x) = x + 1, then when x ≠

𝑓(𝑥)
−1, =
𝑔(𝑥)
(A) g(−x)
(B) g(x − 2)
(C) g(x − 1)
(D) g(x)
(E) g(x + 1)

31) The graphs of the functions f and g are shown above.

Which of the following is true?

(A) g(x) = |f(−x)|

(B) g(x) = |f(x)|
(C) g(x) = f(−x)
(D) g(x) = −f(−x)
(E) g(x) = −f(x)

17 |Functions and graphs

37) If f(x) = −x 3 + 4x 2 − 2x + 2, the minimum value of
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
f(x) on the interval [-2,4] occurs when x =

(A) -2
(B) 0.28
(C) 2.39
(D) 4
(E) -6.42

45) Jamie earned $32.50 from baby-sitting and caring for

pets. He earned $3.75 per hour baby-sitting and $2.00
per hour caring for pets. Which of the following best
describes the number of hours worked baby-sitting as a
function of the number of hours 𝑥 worked caring for
pets?

−3.75x+32.50
(A)
2
−2x+32.50
(B)
3.75
−(2+3.75)x+32.50
(C)
3.75
(D) (2 ∗ 3.75)x + 32.50
2x+3.75x
(E)
32.50

48) If ℎ(𝑥) = 𝑓(𝑔(𝑥)), where ℎ(𝑥) = sin(𝑥) and 𝑓(𝑥) =

cos(𝑥), which of the following could define the
function 𝑔?

(A) g(x) = √x 2 − 1
(B) g(x) = √1 − x 2
π
(C) g(x) = +x
2
π
(D) g(x) = −x
2
(E) g(x) = tan(x)

Math Workbook | 18
SET 2 USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
1) Each of the following numbers is in the domain of
1
function g, where g(x) = , EXCEPT
√x2 − 1
(A) -2
(B) -1.5
(C) -1
(D) 1.5
(E) 2

2) Which of the following is an equation of the graph in

the figure above?
(A) 𝑦 = (𝑥 − 4)2
(B) y =|x| - 4
(C) y =|x − 4|
(D) y =|x| + 4
(E) y=|x + 4|

8) The graph of y = f(x) is shown above. If g(x) = f(x + 3),

which of the following is the graph of g?

(A)
(B)

(C) (D)

19 |Functions and graphs

USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

(E)

9) If 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 10, the cost of making x copies of a single

photograph is given by f(x). If x> 10, the cost is given
by g(x). What is the cost of making 5 copies of one
photograph and 20 copies of another?

(A) 𝑔(25)
(B) 20𝑓(5)
(C) 25𝑔(𝑥)
(D) 𝑓(5) + 𝑔(20)
(E) 5𝑓(𝑥) + 20𝑔(𝑥)

10) If f (x) = 7 – 4x and 𝑓(𝑔(𝑥)) = −1 for all values of x,

then g(x) =

(A) 2
(B) 3
1
(C)
2−3x
2−x
(D)
3
(E) 3x– 2

23) If f (x) = 3 (x + 1) and g (x) = 3x + 2, which of the

following expresses f (x) in terms of g (x)?

(A) f (x) = g (x)

(B) f (x) = g (x) - 1
(C) f (x) = g (x) + 1
(D) f (x) = g (x - 1)
(E) f (x) = g (x + 1)

25) If f (x) = nx, for all x, then for what integers n does f (f
(x)) = x?

(A) All positive integers

(B) All negative integers
(C) 0 only
(D) 0 and 1 only
(E) -1 and 1 only

Math Workbook | 20
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

28) Two cycles of a periodic function f are shown above.

What is the value of f (100)?

(A) 0
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
(D) 2
(E) 3

31) If a> 0 and f(x) = ax for all real x, then f (m) ·f (n) =

(A) f (m + n)
(B) f (mn)
(C) f (m) +f (n)
(D) f (f (mn) )
(E) f (am) + f (an)

37) For all real numbers a and b, if b>a, then f (b) >f (a)
The statement above is true for which of the following
functions?

(A) f (x) = - |x|

(B) f (x) = |x|
(C) f (x) = 3
(D) f (x) = x2
(E) f (x) = x3

21 |Functions and graphs

𝑓(𝑥) = 7𝑥
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
𝑔(𝑥) = −0.00012𝑥 4 + 0.055𝑥 3 − 0.852𝑥 2
+ 9.054𝑥 + 6.748

40) The functions f and g above can be used to approximate

the equivalent age of a dog, in human years, where x is
the age of the dog, in years. Which of the following
statements are true?

I. Based on function f, a 4-year-old dog has an

equivalent age of 28 human years.
II. Function g predicts a younger equivalent age
than function f after 6 years.
III. Based on function g, a 10-year-old dog has an
equivalent age of 51 human years.

(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

43) If f(x) = e5x, what is the value of f −1 (2e)?

(A) 0.08
(B) 0.14
(C) 0.22
(D) 0.34
(E) 0.40

49) The height h, in feet, of a ball that is thrown with an

initial velocity of 48 feet per second can be determined
by the equation ℎ = −16𝑡 2 + 48𝑡, where t is time in
seconds. How many seconds after the ball reaches its
maximum height will its height be 20 feet?

(A) 0.5 second

(B) 1 second
(C) 1.5 seconds
(D) 2 seconds
(E) 2.5 seconds

Math Workbook | 22
SET 3 USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
3) If f (x) = ln(2x + 3), what is the value of f (0.5)?

(A) 0.602
(B) 1.099
(C) 1.386
(D) 1.705
(E) 2.565

7) What is the domain of the function f given by

5(x −1)
f (x) = ?
(x + 2)(x −3)

(A) All real numbers

(B) All real numbers except 0
(C) All real numbers except 1
(D) All real numbers except -3 and 2
(E) All real numbers except -2 and 3

10) A radio station pays a recording company $75 per

month to play a new song plus $0.15 each time the song
is played. The songwriter receives 20 percent of the
total paid by the radio station. If a new song is played n
times during the month, which of the following
expressions represents the songwriter’s monthly
earnings, in dollars, from the radio station?

(A) 0.2 (0.15n +75)

(B) 0.15 (0.2n +75)
(C) (0.2)(75) + 0.15n
(D) 75 (0.2)(0.15n)
0.15n + 75
(E)
0.2

16) On the interval -1 ≤ x ≤ 2 the function defined by

𝑓(𝑥) = 2 − 𝑥 2 will have a maximum value for which
value of x?

(A) -2
(B) 0
(C) √2
(D) 2
(E) 4

23 |Functions and graphs

20) What is the minimum value of function f defined by
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
𝜋
𝑓(𝑥) = 1 − 3𝑐𝑜𝑠 ( 2 (𝑥 − 2))?

(A) -3
(B) -2
(C) -2
(D) 2
(E) 3

26) Which of the following have zeros at 1 and -2?

(𝑥+4)(𝑥+2)(𝑥−1)
I. 𝑓(𝑥) = (𝑥+3)(𝑥−4)
(𝑥 2 +3)
II. 𝑓(𝑥) = (𝑥+2)(𝑥−4)(𝑥−1)
(𝑥+2)(𝑥+3)(𝑥−1)
III. 𝑓(𝑥) = (𝑥+2)(𝑥−4)(𝑥+1)
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

31) For which of the following functions is it true that f(x)≥

0 for all real numbers x?
I. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 4 − 2𝑥 2 + 1
II. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑒 𝑥 + 1
III. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝑥 − 1

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I, II and III

35) If 𝑓(𝑥) = 7 − 3𝑥 3 and f −1 the inverse of f, what is the

inverse of f −1 (2)?

(A) -17
(B) -0.06
(C) 1.19
(D) 1.67
(E) 4.63

Math Workbook | 24
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

37) The figure above shows the graph of y = f(x). Which of

the following could be a portion of the graph of y =
1/f(x)

(A) (B)

(C) (( (D)

(E)

25 |Functions and graphs

47) Let f be the function given by
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
1/2 if x is an even integer

f(x) = −1/2 if x is an odd integer .

{ 0 otherwise

What is the period of f?

(A) ½
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) The function is not periodic.

49) If f and g are functions and 𝑓(2𝑥) = 3𝑥 2 for all x,

which of the following is equivalent to 𝑓(𝑔(𝑥))?

2
3(𝑔(𝑥))
(A)
4
2
3(𝑔(𝑥))
(B)
2
2
(C) 3(𝑔(𝑥))
2
(D) 6(𝑔(𝑥))
2
(E) 12(𝑔(𝑥))

Math Workbook | 26
SET 4 USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
2) The relationship between the reading C on the Celsius
temperature scale and a reading F on the Fahrenheit
5
temperature scale is C = (F − 32), and the
9
relationship between a reading on the Celsius
temperature scale and a reading K on the Kelvin
temperature scale is K = C + 273. Which of the
following expresses the relationship between readings
on the Kelvin and Fahrenheit temperature scales?

5
(A) K = (F − 241)
9
5
(B) K = (F + 305)
9
5
(C) K = (F − 32) + 273
9
5
(D) K = (F − 32) – 273
9
5
(E) K= (F + 32) + 273
9

5) If f(x) = 3 ln(x) − 1 and g(x) = xe , then f(g(5)) =

(A) 6.83
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 45.98
(E) 568.17

2√x2 +1−1 2x−1

10) If f(g(x)) = and f(x) = then
√x2 +1+1 x+1
g(x) =

(A) √x
(B) √x 2 + 1
(C) x
(D) x 2
(E) x 2 + 1

27 |Functions and graphs

USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

14) The graph of y = x 4 + 10x + 10x 2 − 96x + c is shown

above. Which of the following could be the value of c?

(A) 3,240
(B) 1,080
(C) 72
(D) -72
(E) -3,240

16) A club is planning a trip to a museum that has an

admission price of $7 per person. The club members
going to the trip must share the $200 cost of a bus and
the admission price of 2 chaperons who will accompany
them on the trip. Which of the following correctly
expresses the cost, in dollars, for each club member as a
function of n, the number of club members going on the
trip?

200+7n
(A) c(n) =
n
214+7n
(B) c(n) =
n
200+7n
(C) c(n) =
n+2
200+7n
(D) c(n) =
n−2
214+7n
(E) c(n) =
n−2

Math Workbook | 28
20) If a and b are in the domain of a function fand f(a) <
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
f(b), which of the following must be true?

(A) a = 0 or b = 0
(B) a < b
(C) a > b
(D) a ≠ b
(E) a = b

24) What is the range of the function f, where f(x) = −4 +

3sin(2x + 5π)?

(A) −7 ≤ f(x) ≤ 3
(B) −7 ≤ f(x) ≤ −1
(C) −3 ≤ f(x) ≤ 3
(D) −3 ≤ f(x) ≤ −1
(E) −1 ≤ f(x) ≤ 1

35) If f is a polynomial of degree 3, four of whose values

are shown in the table, then f(x) could equal

1
(A) (x + 2)(x + 1)(x + 2)
1
(B) (x + 1)(x − 2)(x − 2)
(C) (x + 1)(x − 2)(x − 1)
1
(D) (x + 2) (x − 2) (x − 1)
(E) (x + 2)(x + 1)(x − 2)

29 |Functions and graphs

38) If f(x) = 5√2x, what is the value of f −1 (10)? USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
(A) 0.04
(B) 0.89
(C) 2.00
(D) 2.23
(E) 22.36

41) Portions of the graphs of f and g are shown above.

Which of the following could be a portion of the graph
of fg?

(A) (B)

Math Workbook | 30
(C) (D)
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

(E)

31 |Functions and graphs

46) Which of the following shifts of the graph y = x 2
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
would result in the graph of y = x 2 − 2x + k, where k
is a constant greater than 2?

(A) Left 2 units and up k units

(B) Left 1 unit and up k + 1 units
(C) Right 1 unit and up k + 1 units
(D) Left 1 unit and up k − 1 units
(E) Right 1 unit and up k − 1 units

Math Workbook | 32
SET 5 USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
3
−
1) If f(x) = x , what is the value of f(9)?
2

(A) 0.0007
(B) 0.0370
(C) 0.2311
(D) 4.3267
(E) 6.8587

11) What is the range of the function f defined by f(x) =

3x 2 − 2?

(A) f(x) ≥ −2
(B) f(x) ≥ 0
(C) f(x) ≥ 2
(D) f(x) ≥ 3
(E) All real numbers

15) If f(x) = r x where 𝑟 > 0, and if f(6) = 125, what is

the value of f(7)?

(A) 2.2
(B) 15.7
(C) 127.2
(D) 145.8
(E) 279.5

x+2
19) If f(x) = , what value does f(x) approach as x
x−2
approaches 3.5?

(A) -1.00
(B) -0.43
(C) 0.27
(D) 2.07
(E) 3.67

33 |Functions and graphs

30) The graph of which of the following functions has
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
exactly three distinct x- intercepts?

(A) f(x) = (x 2 − 4)(x + 2)

(B) f(x) = (x 2 + 4)(x + 2)
(C) f(x) = (x 2 + 4)(x + 2)2
(D) f(x) = (x 2 + 4x + 4)(x + 2)
(E) f(x) = (x 2 + 4x − 4)(x + 2)

32) If n[ ]
is defined by the equation n[ ]
= n(n + 1)(n +
8[ ]
2), which of the following is equivalent to ?
4[ ]

(A) 1[ ]

(B) 2[ ]

(C) 3[ ]

(D) 4[ ]

(E) 6[ ]

33) An insurance company has found that the proportion of

claims that are resolved in t days is given by p(t) =
t 2
(t+10) . How many days does it take to resolve 75
percent of the claims?

(A) 1
(B) 13
(C) 30
(D) 65
(E) 75

35) In the xy- plane, in how many points does the graph of
the curve xy 5 − 2x = 3y + x 2 intersect the x-axis?

(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Five

Math Workbook | 34
36) In which of the following is y a function of x?
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III

38) A portion of the graph y = f(x) is shown above. Which

of the following is a graph of = −|f(x)| ?

(A)
(B)

(C) (D)

35 |Functions and graphs

USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

(E)

41) If the function f is symmetric with respect to the line

x = 3 and if f(−1) = −1, what is the value of f(7)?

(A) -7
(B) -1
(C) 1
(D) 3
(E) 7

43) If f(x) = x 4 − 4x + 1and g(x) = f(x + 2), which of the

following statements must be true?

I. fandg have a common zero.

II. The graphs of f and g have one intreestcion
point.
III. fanfg have the same range.

(F) I only
(G) II only
(H) III only
(I) I and II
(J) II and III

Math Workbook | 36
Logarithms USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
x
19) If e = 4, then x =

(A) 1.4
(B) 1.5
(C) 2.0
(D) 4.0
(E) 54.6

25) If log10 √x = a, then log10 x 2 =

(A) a2
(B) 4a
(C) 2a
(D) a
(E) √a

27) If log 𝑎 𝑥 = 0.8 and log 𝑎 𝑦 = 0.2, what is the value of

log 𝑎 (𝑥𝑦)?
(A) 0.16
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.60
(D) 1.00
(E) 4.00

45) If log a 3 = x and log a 5 = y, then log a 45 =

(A) 2x + y
(B) x 2 + y
(C) x 2 y
(D) x + y
(E) 9x + y

14) If log 2 ab = 5 and log 3 b = 4, then a=

4
(A)
81
32
(B)
81
4
(C)
5
5
(D)
4
32
(E)
5

37 |Logarithms
Trigonometry USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

SET 1

Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

28) Safety officials have determined that a ladder placed

against a building as show in the figure above remains
stable if θ, the angle it makes with the ground, is
between 70o and 80o inclusive. Which of the following
distances from the base of the ladder L to the base of the
building B would be considered safe for a ladder 21 feet
long?

(A) 19.7 feet

(B) 18.8 feet
(C) 10.6 feet
(D) 6.5 feet
(E) 3.4 feet

3
37) In right triangle ABC above, sin(C) = and AC = 12.
5
What is the length of BC?

(A) 5
(B) 9
(C) 15
(D) 20
(E) 25

Math Workbook | 38
43) What is the period of the function f given by f(x) =
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
|sin(x)|?

π
(A)
4
π
(B)
2
(C) π
(D) 2π
(E) 4π

45) In ∆ABC and ∆DEF, shown above, are similar. If in

sin(B)
∆ABC, = 3, then in ∆DEF the length of EF
̅̅̅̅ is
sin(A)

1
(A)
3
2
(B)
3
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 6

π
59) If < θ < π and csc(θ) = 2, what is tan(θ)?
2

(A) -1.7321
(B) -0.5774
(C) 0.5774
(D) 1.7321
(E) There is no such angle θ

39 |Trigonometry
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

61) In the figure above, point A is on the circle x 2 + y 2 =

5. If point A has coordinates (x, −1), what is the degree
measure of θ?

(A) 245.9
(B) 243.4
(C) 221.8
(D) 206.6
(E) 204.1

Math Workbook | 40
SET 2 USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
6) What is the range of y = cos x ?

(A) 0 ≤y≤ 2π
(B) -1 ≤y≤ 1
(C) -2π≤y≤ 0
(D) -2π≤y≤ 2π
(E) y is any real number.

π
15) If 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 = 0.15 and 0 <𝑥< , then tan x =
2

(A) 0.85
(B) 0.99
(C) 1.01
(D) 1.52
(E) 6.59

sin2 θ
33) Where defined, +1=
cos2 θ

(A) csc2 θ
(B) sec2 θ
(C) cot2 θ
(D) tan2 θ
(E) 2

35) What is the area, in square centimeters, of ΔABC shown

above?

(A) 3
(B) 3.23
(C) 6
(D) 10.4
(E) 12

41 |Trigonometry
𝜋
39) Point P has polar coordinates(1, ). All of the USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
4
following are also polar coordinates of P EXCEPT

3𝜋
(A) (−1, − )
4
5𝜋
(B) (−1, )
4
7𝜋
(C) (1, − )
4
9𝜋
(D) (1, )
4
13𝜋
(E) (1, )
4

40) What is the maximum value of sin x cos x?

(A) 0.433
(B) 0.500
(C) 0.707
(D) 0.866
(E) 1.000

45) In the figure above, points A, B, and C are collinear. If

x = 0.5, what is the value of h?

(A) 1.23
(B) 1.57
(C) 1.75
(D) 2.02
(E) 2.70

Math Workbook | 42
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

49) In the figure above, PQR is a right triangle with side PR

extended to S. If sin y = 4/5, cos x =

(A) - 5/4
(B) - 4/5
(C) - 3/5
(D) 3/5
(E) 4/5

43 |Trigonometry
SET 3 USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
5) If sin x = 0.07431, the csc x =

(A) 0.6692
(B) 0.9004
(C) 1.1106
(D) 13.457
(E) 1.4945

22) In the figure above, OA = 8 and the measure of AOB is

23o. What is the x-coordinate of Point A?

(A) -7.364
(B) -3.396
(C) -3.126
(D) 3.126
(E) 7.364

Math Workbook | 44
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

24) In the figure above, if BC = 1 and AD = 2, what is the

value of cosθ?
(A) 1/√8
(B) 1/√5
(C) 1/2
(D) 1/√2
(E) 2/√5

28) The figure above shows a helicopter hovering 4,000 feet

above the ground. The pilot measures a 43° angle of
depression to a landing pad. What is the distance d from
helicopter to the landing pad, to the nearest foot?

(A) 5,865 ft
(B) 5,469 ft
(C) 3,730 ft
(D) 2,925 ft
(E) 2,728 ft

45 |Trigonometry
33) What is the area of a triangle that has two sides of
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
length 9 and 14 with an included angle 65°?

(A) 26.6
(B) 52.1
(C) 57.1
(D) 63.0
(E) 114.2

38) Which of the following could be polar coordinates for

1 √3
the point with rectangular coordinates ( ,− )?
2 2

2𝜋
(A) (1, )
3
5𝜋
(B) (1, )
6
7𝜋
(C) (1, )
6
4𝜋
(D) (1, )
3
5𝜋
(E) (1, )
3

Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

40) In the figure above, ∠V and ∠W are acute angles. If

tan V = 0.75 and tan W = 0.91, what is the measure of
∠X to the nearest degree?

(A) 42°
(B) 79°
(C) 101°
(D) 103°
(E) 138°

Math Workbook | 46
𝑡
42) If 𝑓(𝑡) = 2 sin 𝑡 and 𝑔(𝑡) = cos ( ), what is the USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
2
length of the line segment having endpoint coordinates
𝜋 𝜋
(0, 𝑓(0)) and (2 , 𝑔 (2 )) ?

(A) 1.57
(B) 1.72
(C) 2.03
(D) 2.47
(E) 2.97

46) In the unit circle with center O shown above, what is the
length of chord AB?

(A) 1
(B) √(2-√3)
(C) sin θ
(D) 2 sinθ cosθ
(E) √2 − 2 cosθ

47 |Trigonometry
SET 4 USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

7) The figure above shows a rocket taking off vertically.

When the rocket reaches a height of 12 kilometers, the
angles of elevation from points A and B on level ground
are 84.1° and 62.7°, respectively. What is the distance
between points Aand B?

(A) 0.97 km
(B) 6.36km
(C) 7.43km
(D) 22.60km
(E) 139.37km

11) If A is the angle measure of an acute angle and sin 𝐴 =

0.8, then cos(90 − 𝐴) =

(A) 0.2
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.6
(E) 0.8

15) If cosx = 0.4697, then secx =

(A) 2.1290
(B) 2.0452
(C) 1.0818
(D) 0.9243
(E) 0.4890

Math Workbook | 48
22) To the nearest degree, what is the measure of the
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
smallest angle in a right triangle with sides of 3, 4, and
5?

(A) 27
(B) 30
(C) 37
(D) 45
(E) 53

27) If sin 𝜃 > 0 and sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃 < 0, then θ must be in

which quadrant in the figure below?

(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
(E) There is no quadrant in which both
conditions are true.

33) What is the period of the graph of = 2 tan(3𝜋𝑥 + 4) ?

2π
(A)
3
2
(B)
3
(C) 2
1
(D)
3
π
(E)
3

49 |Trigonometry
π
37) If 0 ≤ x ≤ and sin 𝑥 = 3 cos 𝑥, what is the value of USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
2
x?

(A) 0.322
(B) 0.333
(C) 0.340
(D) 1.231
(E) 1.249

43) In the triangle shown above, sin 𝛼 =

3
(A)
8
1
(B)
2
2
(C)
3
3
(D)
4
4
(E)
5

π
46) If sin 𝜃 = t, then, for all θ in the interval 0 ≤ θ ≤ ,
2
tan 𝜃 =

1
(A)
√1−t2
t
(B)
√1−t2
1
(C) 1−t2
t
(D) 1−t2
(E) 1

Math Workbook | 50
SET 5 USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
π
8) If 0 ≤ x ≤ 2
and sin 𝑥 = 0.56, then sin 4𝑥 =

(A) 0.531
(B) 0.692
(C) 0.784
(D) 2.125
(E) 2.240

13) The distance measured on level ground, from the base

of a flagpole to a point P is 10 feet. If the angle of
elevation from P to the top of the pole is 66, which of
the following is an expression for the height, in feet, of
the flagpole?

(A) 10 sin 66°

(B) 10 cos 66°
(C) 10 tan 66°
sin 66°
(D)
10
10
(E)
tan 66°

16) A straight line l contains the points (0,0) and (3,4).

What is the cosine of the acute angle that l makes with
the x-axis?

3
(A)
5
3
(B)
4
4
(C)
5
4
(D)
3
5
(E)
3

51 |Trigonometry
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

18) The figure above one cycle of the graph of y = 1 +

sin 𝑥 for 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π. If the maximum value of y
occurs at U, what are the coordinates of U?

𝜋
(A) (4 , 1)
𝜋
(B) ( , 2)
4
𝜋
(C) (2 , 1)
(D)(
𝜋
, 2)
2
𝜋
(E) (2 +
1, 1)

22) If 0 ≤ θ ≤ 90, what are all values of θ for which

sin 𝜃 ≤ cos 𝜃?

(A) 0 ≤ θ ≤ 45
(B) 0 ≤ θ ≤ 60
(C) 0 ≤ θ ≤ 90
(D) 30 ≤ θ ≤ 45
(E) 45 ≤ θ ≤ 90

Math Workbook | 52
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

̅̅̅̅ is a diameter of the circle. What

24) In the figure above, 𝑃𝑅
is tan 𝜃?

(A) -1.73
(B) -0.57
(C) 0.57
(D) 1.00
(E) 1.73

39) If f(x) = 3 sin(πx) + cos(2πx), what is the period of

the function f?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 2π
(E) 3π

53 |Trigonometry
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

40) In the figure above, which of the following could NOT

be the polar coordinates of points P, Q, R ?

(A) (0, 0)
π
(B) (1, − )
4
7π
(C) (1, )
4
π
(D) (2, )
2
3π
(E) (2, )
2

42) If x = 3 cos 𝜃 and y = 3 sin 𝜃, where θ is a real

number, which of the following must be true?

(A) x + y = 3
(B) x 2 + y 2 = 3
(C) x 2 + y 2 = 9
(D) x 2 − y 2 = 9
(E) −x 2 + y 2 = 9

Math Workbook | 54
Solid Geometry USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

20) In the figure shown above, vertex G of the rectangular

solid shown has coordinates (5,6,4). What is the length
of the diagonal CF?

(A) 11.81
(B) 8.77
(C) 7.81
(D) 7.21
(E) 6.40

32) What is the ratio of the volume of a sphere of radius r to

the volume of a sphere of radius 2r?

(A) 1:2
(B) 1:3
(C) 1:4
(D) 1:6
(E) 1:8

55 |Solid Geometry
42) What is the volume of the solid obtained by rotating the
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
triangle in the figure above about the side ̅̅
XY̅̅?

(A) 375π
(B) 1,250π
(C) 1,500π
(D) 1,875π
(E) 2,000π

21) If the surface area of a cube is 54x2, what is the volume

of the cube?

(A) 27𝑥 2
(B) 81𝑥 2
(C) 9𝑥 3
(D) 27𝑥 3
(E) 81𝑥 3

36) A regular pyramid has 4 inch by 4 inch square base and

a height of 8 inches. What is the length, in inches, of an
altitude of one of the triangular faces of the pyramid?

(A) 6.92
(B) 7.25
(C) 8.00
(D) 8.25
(E) 8.49

43) Which of the following best describes the set of all

points in space that are 2 units for a given line l?

(A) A line parallel to l and 2 units from l

(B) Two lines parallel to and 2 units from l
(C) A circle of radius 2 units with its center on l
(D) A cylinder of infinite height and radius 2
units with l as its axis
(E) A sphere of radius 2 units with its center on l

Math Workbook | 56
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

47) The figure above shows a portion of the graph of the

function f (x) = log10 x. what is the area of trapezoid
ABCD?

(A) 135
(B) 150
(C) 495
(D) 4,950
(E) 5,500

34) The length of a diagonal of the base of a rectangle solid

is √85. What is the length of the longest diagonal of the
solid?

(A) 9.22
(B) 9.38
(C) 9.70
(D) 10.95
(E) 12.22

57 |Solid Geometry
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

44) If the two cones shown above are similar and if the
volume of the smaller cone is 15 cubic centimeters,
what is the volume of the larger cone?

(A) 30 cubic centimeters

(B) 40 cubic centimeters
(C) 60 cubic centimeters
(D) 80 cubic centimeters
(E) 120 cubic centimeters

50) In the figure above, points A, B, C, and D lie on the

parabola with equation 𝑦 = 4 − 𝑥 2 . Points A and D are
on the x-axis. BC is parallel to the x-axis and BC = 2.5.
What is the area of trapezoid ABCD?

(A) 4.88
(B) 7.92
(C) 8.13
(D) 8.94
(E) 15.84

Math Workbook | 58
6) The intersection of a cube with a plane could be which
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
one of the following?

I. A square
II. A parallelogram
III. A triangle

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II and III

12) The set of points (x, y, z) such that x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = 1 is

(A) Empty
(B) A point
(C) A sphere
(D) A circle
(E) A plane

44) The length, width and height of a rectangular solid are

8, 4 and 1 respectively. What is the length of the longest
line segment whose end points are two vertices of the
solid?

(A) 4√5
(B) 9
(C) 3√10
(D) 10
(E) 12

48) If the height of a right circular cone is decreased by 8

percent, by what percent must the radius of the base be
decreased so that the volume of the cone is decreased by
15 percent?

(A) 4%
(B) 7%
(C) 8%
(D) 30%
(E) 45%

59 |Solid Geometry
9) A right rectangular prism has length m, width w, and
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
height h. If h = 3m, w = 4h, what is the volume of the
prism in terms of m?

(A) 9m3
(B) 12m3
(C) 16m3
(D) 36m3
(E) 48m3

Math Workbook | 60
Logic, Probability, Arrangements USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
Factorials

15) Box I and box II each contain only red marbles and blue
marbles. The probability of selecting a red marble from
2
box I is 3 , and the probability of selecting a red marble
3
from box II is 8. If one marble is to be randomly
selected from each box, what is the probability that both
marbles will be blue?

5
(A)
24
8
(B)
24
15
(C)
24
19
(D)
24
23
(E)
24

41) If n is a positive integer, then n! is divisible by 9 if and

only if

(A) n ≥ 3
(B) n ≥ 6
(C) n ≥ 9
(D) n is a multiple of 3
(E) n is a multiple of 9

42) If a point (x, y) is chosen at random from the set of

points where −1 ≤ x ≤ 1and −1 ≤ y ≤ 1, what is the
probability that the distance from the point (x, y) to the
origin is less than or equal to 1.

1
(A)
2
π
(B)
8
π
(C)
6
π
(D)
4
(E) π

61 |Logic, Probability, Arrangements Factorials

If 3 is a factor of c and 2 is a factor of c, then 3 + 2 is a
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
factor of c.

18) Which of the following values of c provides a

counterexample to the statement above?

(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 11
(E) 30

20) Three pairs of gloves – a red pair, a blue pair, and a

green pair - are in a drawer. If gloves are removed at
random without returning any to the drawer, what is the
minimum number that must be removed in order to
guarantee having a match pair of gloves?

(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
(E) Six

22) Two different numbers are chosen at random from the

set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}.What is the probability that
both of these are even?

1
(A)
2
4
(B)
9
1
(C)
4
16
(D)
81
1
(E)
6

Math Workbook | 62
27) In a certain league, each team competes exactly once
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against every other team during the season. If a total of
28 league games are scheduled, how many teams are
there in the league?

(A) Six
(B) Seven
(C) Eight
(D) Twelve
(E) Fourteen

43) An insurance company uses computer file names that

consist of 5 different letters followed by 5 different
digits. If the letters are chosen from V, W, X, Y, Z, and
the digits are chosen from 0, 1, 2, …, 9, how many
different file names of this type can be created?

(A) 15! − 5!
15!
(B)
5!
10!
(C)
5!×5!
10!
(D) 5! ×
5!
5! 10!
(E) ×
4! 5!×5!

45) From the set of integers from 1 to 10, inclusive, two

integers are randomly selected one after the other with
replacement. What is the probability that the sum of the
two integers is greater than 5?

(A) 0.9
(B) 0.8
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.1
(E) 0.06

63 |Logic, Probability, Arrangements Factorials

21) In a recent survey, it was reported that 75 percent of the
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
population of a certain state lived within ten miles of its
largest city and that 40 percent of those who lived
within ten miles of the largest city lived in single-family
house. If a resident of this state is selected at random,
what is the probability that the person lives in a single-
family house within ten miles of the largest city?

(A) 0.10
(B) 0.15
(C) 0.30
(D) 0.35
(E) 0.53

If 𝑥 = 𝑦, then 𝑥 2 = 𝑦 2

29) If x and y are real numbers, which of the following

CANNOT be inferred from the statement above?

(A) In order for x 2 to be equal to y 2 , it is

sufficient that x be equal to y.
(B) A necessary condition for x 2 to be equal to
y 2 , is that x be equal to y.
(C) x 2 is equal to y 2 , impliesx be equal to y.
(D) If x 2 is not equal to y 2 , thenxis not equal to y.
(E) If x 2 is equal to y 2 , thenx is equal to y.

30) In how many different orders can 9 students arrange

themselves in a straight line?

(A) 9
(B) 81
(C) 181,440
(D) 362,880
(E) 387,420,489

Math Workbook | 64
17) A red ball, a blue ball, and a green ball are placed in an
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empty hat. If a blindfolded person takes them one at a
time, what is the probability that the person draws them
in the order red, blue, green?

1
(A)
27
1
(B)
12
1
(C)
9
1
(D)
6
1
(E)
3

29) How many distinct four-digit numbers contain the digits

1, 2, 3 and 4 without repetition, if the digit 2 is always
immediately followed by the digit 3?

(A) Four
(B) Six
(C) Twelve
(D) Eighteen
(E) Twenty-Four

65 |Logic, Probability, Arrangements Factorials

Sequences, Complex numbers, Limits, USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
Stats

SET 1
5) What is the third term of an arithmetic sequence whose
second term is 7 and whose sixth term is 23?

(A) 19
1
(B) 12 3
(C) 12
(D) 11
(E) 4

12) If y = 3−x + 1, what value does y approach as x gets

infinitely large?

(A) -1
(B) 0
1
(C) 3
(D) 1
(E) The value of y increases without bound

34) Using data collected from several donut shops, a linear

regression was used to generate a model relating the
price of a dozen donuts, p, in dollars, and the quantity
sold, d, dozens of donuts. The resulting equations was
d = −26.97p + 342.80. What is the meaning of
−26.97 in this model?

(A) d decreases by $26.97 dozen for every $1

increase in p.
(B) d increases by $26.97 dozen for every $1
increase in p.
(C) p decreases by $26.97 dozen for every one
dozen decrease in p.
(D) p increases by $26.97 dozen for every one
dozen increase in p.
(E) p decreases by $26.97 dozen for every one
dozen decrease in p.

Math Workbook | 66
1 1 1 1
36) What is the sum of 2 + (51 + 52 + 53 + ⋯ + 5n + ⋯ )? USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

1
(A) 2 4
1
(B) 2
2
4
(C) 2 5
1
(D) 3 4
(E) This sum is infinite

40) What is the average (arithmetic mean) of the first 225

positive integers?

(A) 56.25
(B) 112
(C) 112.5
(D) 113
(E) 226

Data Set A

Data Set B

43) The boxplots for data set A and data set B are shown
above.Which of the following statements must be true
about Aand B?

I. At least 50 percent of the values in A are

greater than 50 percent of the values in B.
II. The standard deviation of A is greater than
the standard deviation of B.
III. The range of A is less than the range of B.

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II
(E) I and III

67 |Sequences, Complex numbers, Limits, Stats

SET 2 USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

7) In the matrix equation above, if x = 4, what is the value

of y?

(A) -6
(B) -2
(C) 1
(D) 2
(E) 6

12) If the 5th term of a geometric sequence is 48 and the

ratio is 2, what is the first term of the sequence?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6

16) What is the median of the data represented in the stem-

and-leaf plot above?

(A) 22
(B) 31.7
(C) 36.5
(D) 37
(E) 38

Math Workbook | 68
2x+k
17) If , for what value of k does the graph of f NOT USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
x +3
have a vertical asymptote?

(A) -6
(B) -3
(C) 0
(D) 3
(E) 6

4a + 4b + 4c +4e
30) If = 𝑛, what is the average
16
(arithmetic mean) of a, b, c, and e in terms of n?

(A) n
(B) 2n
(C) 4n
(D) 8n
(E) 16n

34) A prescribed medicine is to be taken at the rate of 6

milliliters every 4 hours. If 25 percent of the medicine
in the body is eliminated every 4 hours, how many
milliliters of medicine are in the body immediately after
the 5th dose is taken?

(A) 8.0
(B) 18.3
(C) 19.7
(D) 30.0
(E) 36.0

46) A coin collection was valued at $1,250 in 1970, and by

2000 the collection had tripled in value. If the value of
the coin collection increased by the same percent each
year, which of the following best estimates the annual
percent increase during the time period 1970 to 2000?

(A) 3%
(B) 3.73%
(C) 4.5%
(D) 6.67%
(E) 10%

69 |Sequences, Complex numbers, Limits, Stats

SET 3 USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

4) The number of students in each of 12 different school

clubs is represented by the dotplot in the figure above.
What is the mean number of students per club?

(A) 15.1
(B) 16
(C) 16.4
(D) 16.5
(E) 17.75

13) The formula A = 15e-0.7h can be used to determine the

amount A, in milligrams, of a certain drug that is a
patient’s bloodstream h hours after the drug has been
administered. How many hours after the drug is
administered is there 2 milligrams of the drug left in the
patient’s bloodstream?

(A) 0.27
(B) 2.88
(C) 3.98
(D) 3.70
(E) 14.90

17) A bee population of 500,000 is decreasing at a rate of

18 percent per year. At this rate, what will the
population be at the end of 20 years?

(A) 0
(B) 9,445
(C) 11,519
(D) 25,000
(E) 49,555

Math Workbook | 70
21) The seven employees at a company earn annual salaries.
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The mean salary is $41,824, and the median salary is
$42600. If an eight employee joins the company and
earns an annual salary of $44,000, which of the
following must be true?

(A) The new mean salary will be greater than

$41,824.
(B) The new mean salary will be less than
$41,824.
(C) The new median salary will be greater than
$46,000.
(D) The new median salary will be less than
$46,000.
(E) Both the mean and median salaries will
remain the same.

15
22) What value does the expression 2𝑥 + approach as
𝑥
x gets infinitely large?

(A) 0
(B) 2x
(C) 15
(D) 17
(E) It does not approach a single value.

71 |Sequences, Complex numbers, Limits, Stats

Total Calories USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
Fat from
FOOD (grams) Fat
Hamburger 9 80
Cheeseburger 12 110
Double Cheeseburger 23 210
French Fries (small) 13 120
French Fries (large) 30 270
Pancakes 18 160
Hash browns 8 70

30) The table above gives the number of grams of fat and
the number of calories from fat for various foods at a
certain fast-food restaurant. Based on a least-squares
linear regression of the data, what is the number of
calories from fat in a chicken sandwich that contains 21
grams of fat?

(A) 184
(B) 187
(C) 190
(D) 200
(E) 210

36) A sequence is given by

𝑆1 = 1, 𝑛 = 1
{
𝑆𝑛 = 2𝑆𝑛−1 , 𝑛 = 2,3,4 …

If 𝑘 ≥ 1, then

(A) 𝑆𝑘 = 2𝑘−2
(B) 𝑆𝑘 = 2𝑘−1
(C) 𝑆𝑘 = 2𝑘
(D) 𝑆𝑘 = 2𝑘+1
(E) 𝑆𝑘 = 22𝑘+1

Math Workbook | 72
SET 4 USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
13) The graph of the rational function f, where f(x) =
5
, has a vertical asymptote at x =
x2 −8x+16

(A) 0 only
(B) 4 only
(C) 5 only
(D) 0 and 4 only
(E) 0, 4 and 5

18) What is the sum of the infinite geometric series

1 1 1 1
+ + + + ⋯?
4 8 16 32

1
(A)
2
(B) 1
3
(C)
2
(D) 2
5
(E)
2

25) Of the following list of numbers, which has the smallest

standard deviation?

(A) 1, 5, 9
(B) 3, 5, 8
(C) 4, 5, 8
(D) 7, 8, 9
(E) 8, 8, 8

26) The formula A = Pe0.08t gives the amount A that a

savings account will be worth after an initial investment
P is compounded continuously at an annual rate of 8
percent for t years. Under these conditions, how many
years will it take an initial investment of $1,000 to be
worth approximately $5,000?

(A) 4.1
(B) 5.0
(C) 8.7
(D) 20.1
(E) 23.0

73 |Sequences, Complex numbers, Limits, Stats

ln 𝑥
31) What value does approach as x approaches 1? USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
x−1

(A) 0
(B) 0.43
(C) 1
(D) 2
(E) It does not approach a unique value

34) The figure above shows a car that has broken down on
East Road. A tow truck leaves a garage on North Road
at point B.The straight line distance between points A
and B is 50 miles. If the tow truck travels at an average
speed of 45 miles per hour along North and East Roads,
how long will it take the tow truck to get to the car?

(A) 27 minutes
(B) 1 hour and 27 minutes
(C) 1 hour and 28 minutes
(D) 1 hour and 33 minutes
(E) 1 hour and 33 minutes

Math Workbook | 74
39) The Fibonacci sequence can be defined recursively as
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
a1 = 1
a2 = 1
an = an−1 + an−2 for n ≥ 3

What is the 10th term of this sequence?

(A) 21
(B) 34
(C) 55
(D) 89
(E) 144

49) If matrix A has dimensions m × n and matrix B has

dimensions n × p, where m, n and p are distinct
positive integers, which of the following statements
must be true?

I. The product BA does not exist.

II. The product ABexists and has dimensions
m ×p

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II

75 |Sequences, Complex numbers, Limits, Stats

USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

50) If w is the complex number shown in the figure above,

which of the following points could be −iw?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E

Math Workbook | 76
SET 5 USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
7) Which of the following numbers belong to the sequence
1, 8, 15, 22…?

(A) 77
(B) 80
(C) 92
(D) 105
(E) 150

10) For positive integers n, the nth term of a given sequence

1
is n2 +2, For what value of n is the value of the nth term
closest to 0.01?

(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 11
(E) 12

21) The graphs below show the scores on a test for five
classes. In which graph does the set of scores have a
standard deviation of 0?

(A)

(B)

(C)

77 |Sequences, Complex numbers, Limits, Stats

USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

(D)

(E)

Math Workbook | 78
25) If today a country’s population is 5.7 million people and
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is growing by roughly 1.5 percent per year, in how
many years will the population first exceed 6 million?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) Five

Questions 27 - 28 refer to the following table and

information

SURVEY RESULTS

h (height W (shoulder 𝑊
(ratio of
in inches) width in ℎ
inches) shoulder width to
height)
68 15.5 0.228
74 18 0.243
66 17.5 0.265
70 19 0.271
75 19 0.253
64.5 16 0.248
70 17 0.243
In order to find realistic proportions for a sketch of a
standing human figure, an art student took a survey,
measuring the height and the shoulder width of seven
people. The results of her survey are shown in the table
𝑊
above, along with the ratio of shoulder width to height ℎ
,
of each person she measured.

W
27) What is the median of the ratios?
h

(A) 0.243
(B) 0.248
(C) 0.250
(D) 0.251
(E) 0.271

79 |Sequences, Complex numbers, Limits, Stats

W
28) If the art student uses the arithmetic mean of the h USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK
ratios to determine realistic proprotions, what would the
art student determine to be the height of a person whose
should width is 48 centimeters?

(A) 11.6 cm
(B) 12.0cm
(C) 191.9cm
(D) 193.5cm
(E) 197.5cm

31) One method of finding a given number in an ordered list

of numbers requires a computer to repeatedly split the
list in half until the number is found. For a list of n
numbers, the maximum number of splits is the least
log 𝑛
integer greater than or equal to . What is the
log 2
maximum number of splits needed to find a given
number of splits needed to find a given number in a list
of 300,000 numbers?

(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 15
(D) 18
(E) 19

Math Workbook | 80
USE THIS SPACE FOR SCRATCHWORK

34) In the figure above, points F and G represent two

complex numbers. Which point represents the sum of
these two numbers?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E

48) On a 20-kilometer trip, Chris averaged 40 kilometers

per hour for the first 10 kilometers and 80 kilometers
per hour for the last 10 kilometers. What was her
average speed, in kilometers per hour, for the 20-
kiometre trip?

(A) 65
1
(B) 63 3
(C) 60
1
(D) 53 3
(E) 50

81 |Sequences, Complex numbers, Limits, Stats