‫أسئلة اختيارات متعددة لمادة الفوترة والترميز‬

Medical Coding Lecture 1

1. What is the primary purpose of medical coding?
o A) To create patient records
o B) To ensure accurate medical documentation
o C) To generate insurance claims
o D) To analyze healthcare data
Answer: B) To ensure accurate medical documentation
2. Which of the following is essential for proper reimbursement in healthcare?
o A) Accurate patient history
o B) Proper use of medical codes
o C) Efficient patient management
o D) Comprehensive insurance policies
Answer: B) Proper use of medical codes
3. What does HIPAA stand for?
o A) Healthcare Information Patient Accountability Act
o B) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
o C) Health Information Privacy and Accountability Act
o D) Healthcare Integrated Protocol and Accountability Act
Answer: B) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
4. What is the role of the resource-based relative value scale (RBRVS) in
healthcare?
o A) To classify diseases
o B) To standardize medical coding
o C) To determine healthcare payments
o D) To manage patient data
Answer: C) To determine healthcare payments
5. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a medical coder?
o A) Assigning proper medical codes
o B) Conducting patient examinations
o C) Reviewing medical histories
o D) Ensuring compliance with regulations
Answer: B) Conducting patient examinations
6. What is the significance of standardized medical coding?
o A) It simplifies the treatment process.

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o B) It helps in efficient patient billing.
o C) It allows for better patient care.
o D) It increases the number of medical codes.
Answer: B) It helps in efficient patient billing.
7. Which coding system is used for classifying diseases?
o A) CPT
o B) HCPCS
o C) ICD-9
o D) RBRVS
Answer: C) ICD-9
8. What can incorrect coding lead to?
o A) Faster reimbursement
o B) Legal issues for healthcare providers
o C) Improved patient trust
o D) Efficient data management
Answer: B) Legal issues for healthcare providers
9. Which of the following best describes the role of a medical coder?
o A) To treat patients directly
o B) To translate medical records into codes
o C) To manage healthcare facilities
o D) To develop medical technologies
Answer: B) To translate medical records into codes
10.What is a common qualification for a medical coder?
o A) A Bachelor's degree in medicine
o B) Certification as a Professional Coder
o C) A Master's degree in healthcare management
o D) A license to practice medicine
Answer: B) Certification as a Professional Coder
11.Which organization establishes guidelines for medical coding compliance?
o A) World Health Organization (WHO)
o B) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
o C) American Medical Association (AMA)
o D) National Institutes of Health (NIH)
Answer: B) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
12.What is the primary focus of Quality Improvement Organizations (QIOs)?
o A) Reducing healthcare costs
o B) Enhancing care quality for Medicare beneficiaries
o C) Increasing the number of medical coders
o D) Managing healthcare facilities
Answer: B) Enhancing care quality for Medicare beneficiaries
13.In which setting can medical coders work?

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o A) Only in hospitals
o B) Exclusively in private practices
o C) In various healthcare settings, including at home
o D) Only in administrative offices
Answer: C) In various healthcare settings, including at home
14.Which of the following skills is essential for a medical coder?
o A) Advanced surgical techniques
o B) Knowledge of clinical anatomy and physiology
o C) Patient communication skills
o D) Financial management
Answer: B) Knowledge of clinical anatomy and physiology
15.What does the acronym HCPCS stand for?
o A) Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System
o B) Health Care Professional Coding System
o C) Health Common Procedure Classification System
o D) Healthcare Code and Practice System
Answer: A) Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System
16.Which of the following is a consequence of failing to adhere to coding
compliance?
o A) Increased patient satisfaction
o B) Enhanced revenue cycle management
o C) Potential audits and fines
o D) Streamlined coding processes
Answer: C) Potential audits and fines
17.What is the primary focus of medical coding in the context of billing?
o A) To provide patient care
o B) To ensure accurate billing statements
o C) To manage healthcare staff
o D) To conduct clinical trials
Answer: B) To ensure accurate billing statements
18.What does the term "medical necessity" refer to?
o A) The requirement for insurance coverage
o B) The justification for a medical procedure
o C) The demand for healthcare services
o D) The urgency of patient care
Answer: B) The justification for a medical procedure
19.Which coding system is primarily used for outpatient services?
o A) ICD-10
o B) CPT
o C) HCPCS Level II

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o D) RBRVS
Answer: B) CPT
20.What is a key benefit of accurate medical coding for healthcare providers?
o A) Higher patient turnover
o B) Reduced administrative costs
o C) Fair compensation for services rendered
o D) Increased government funding
Answer: C) Fair compensation for services rendered
21.In which scenario might a medical coder consult with a specialist?
o A) For routine coding tasks
o B) When coding complex cases involving multiple procedures
o C) For basic patient information
o D) When submitting claims
Answer: B) When coding complex cases involving multiple procedures
22.What is the purpose of the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) coding
system?
o A) To classify diseases
o B) To describe medical procedures and services
o C) To manage patient records
o D) To regulate healthcare policies
Answer: B) To describe medical procedures and services
23.Which of the following areas does a medical coder NOT typically focus on?
o A) Patient diagnosis
o B) Clinical procedures
o C) Financial audits
o D) Medical terminology
Answer: C) Financial audits
24.What role does data collection play in medical coding?
o A) It helps in patient treatment plans.
o B) It supports research and healthcare planning.
o C) It is unnecessary for coding accuracy.
o D) It complicates the billing process.
Answer: B) It supports research and healthcare planning.
25.Which of the following is a common training pathway for aspiring medical
coders?
o A) Medical school
o B) Online certification programs
o C) Nursing programs
o D) Laboratory technician courses
Answer: B) Online certification programs

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26.What is the importance of understanding medical terminology for a medical
coder?
o A) It is not essential for the role.
o B) It helps in effective communication with patients.
o C) It aids in accurately assigning codes.
o D) It simplifies administrative tasks.
Answer: C) It aids in accurately assigning codes.
27.Which of the following describes the relationship between medical coding and
billing?
o A) They are completely separate processes.
o B) Coding is a subset of billing.
o C) Billing is a subset of coding.
o D) They are interchangeable terms.
Answer: B) Coding is a subset of billing.
28.What must medical coders do when they encounter ambiguous documentation?
o A) Make their best guess
o B) Consult with the healthcare provider
o C) Ignore the ambiguity
o D) Reduce the complexity of the case
Answer: B) Consult with the healthcare provider
29.Why is ongoing education important for medical coders?
o A) To maintain patient relationships
o B) To stay updated with coding changes and regulations
o C) To improve patient care skills
o D) To increase administrative responsibilities
Answer: B) To stay updated with coding changes and regulations
30.What is one of the primary roles of the medical coder in relation to audits?
o A) To conduct the audits
o B) To prepare documentation for audits
o C) To avoid audits altogether
o D) To increase the frequency of audits
Answer: B) To prepare documentation for audits

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Medical Coding Lecture 2

1. What system does ICD-9-CM primarily classify?

o A) Surgical procedures
o B) Clinical diagnoses and procedures
o C) Patient demographics
o D) Drug prescriptions
Answer: B) Clinical diagnoses and procedures
2. Who updated and revised the original ICD-9 to the version used globally?
o A) Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
o B) National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS)
o C) World Health Organization (WHO)
o D) American Hospital Association (AHA)
Answer: C) World Health Organization (WHO)
3. What is the maximum number of characters in an ICD-9-CM code?
o A) 3
o B) 4
o C) 5
o D) 7
Answer: C) 5
4. Which act authorized the release of ICD-10 on October 1, 2015?
o A) Affordable Care Act (ACA)
o B) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
o C) Patient Protection Act
o D) Medicare Modernization Act
Answer: B) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
5. How many volumes does ICD-9-CM consist of?
o A) One
o B) Two
o C) Three
o D) Four
Answer: C) Three
6. What is a key feature of ICD-10 codes compared to ICD-9 codes?
o A) Fewer codes
o B) More general descriptions
o C) Increased specificity
o D) Limited character length
Answer: C) Increased specificity
7. Which section of the ICD-10-CM guidelines deals with outpatient services?

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o A) Section I
o B) Section II
o C) Section III
o D) Section IV
Answer: D) Section IV
8. What is the primary purpose of the ICD coding systems?
o A) To classify treatments
o B) To report mortality statistics
o C) To facilitate billing
o D) To track pharmaceutical usage
Answer: B) To report mortality statistics
9. ICD-10 codes can include a placeholder "x." What is its purpose?
o A) To indicate a severe condition
o B) To reserve space for future codes
o C) To identify the primary diagnosis
o D) To represent a secondary condition
Answer: B) To reserve space for future codes
10.Which organization approves the guidelines for ICD-9-CM?
o A) American Medical Association (AMA)
o B) American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA)
o C) National Institutes of Health (NIH)
o D) World Health Organization (WHO)
Answer: B) American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA)
11.What is one of the significant changes from ICD-9 to ICD-10 regarding
laterality?
o A) ICD-9 includes laterality; ICD-10 does not
o B) Both ICD-9 and ICD-10 lack laterality information
o C) ICD-10 specifies right vs. left conditions
o D) ICD-10 only identifies bilateral conditions
Answer: C) ICD-10 specifies right vs. left conditions
12.How many total codes approximately exist in ICD-10 compared to ICD-9?
o A) 13,000 in ICD-9 and 40,000 in ICD-10
o B) 13,000 in ICD-9 and 68,000 in ICD-10
o C) 3,000 in ICD-9 and 87,000 in ICD-10
o D) 5,000 in ICD-9 and 50,000 in ICD-10
Answer: B) 13,000 in ICD-9 and 68,000 in ICD-10
13.Which section of the ICD-9-CM provides guidelines for classifying main
diagnoses in non-outpatient settings?
o A) Section I
o B) Section II
o C) Section III

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o D) Section IV
Answer: B) Section II
14.Which coding system is primarily used in the U.S. for classifying medical visits
and diagnoses?
o A) ICD-9
o B) ICD-10
o C) CPT
o D) HCPCS
Answer: B) ICD-10
15.What character types are used in ICD-10 codes?
o A) Only letters
o B) Only numbers
o C) Letters and numbers
o D) Symbols and numbers
Answer: C) Letters and numbers
16.What is the character length range for ICD-10-CM codes?
o A) 3-5 characters
o B) 3-6 characters
o C) 3-7 characters
o D) 4-8 characters
Answer: C) 3-7 characters
17.Which organization discusses and modifies ICD-9-CM annually?
o A) American Hospital Association (AHA)
o B) Centers for Disease Control (CDC)
o C) National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS)
o D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
18.What does the term "etymology" refer to in the context of ICD-10 codes?
o A) The study of diseases
o B) The cause of diseases
o C) The treatment of diseases
o D) The history of diseases
Answer: B) The cause of diseases
19.Which volume of ICD-9-CM is used for the alphabetical index?
o A) Volume 1
o B) Volume 2
o C) Volume 3
o D) Volume 4
Answer: B) Volume 2
20.In ICD-10, what does the seventh character indicate?
o A) The etiology of the condition

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o B) The location of the injury
o C) The encounter type
o D) The severity of the condition
Answer: C) The encounter type
21.What significant feature does ICD-10-PCS provide compared to ICD-9-PCS?
o A) Fewer codes
o B) More detailed descriptions of procedures
o C) Limited character usage
o D) Simplified coding
Answer: B) More detailed descriptions of procedures
22.What is the primary focus of Section III in the ICD-10-CM guidelines?
o A) General classification guidelines
o B) Differential diagnosis in outpatient settings
o C) Outpatient coding guidelines
o D) Non-outpatient settings
Answer: B) Differential diagnosis in outpatient settings
23.Which chapter of ICD-9 was primarily focused on external causes of injury?
o A) Chapter 1
o B) Chapter 2
o C) Chapter 3
o D) Chapter 17
Answer: D) Chapter 17
24.What is a significant advantage of using ICD-10 over ICD-9 regarding coding?
o A) Easier to use
o B) Better integration with electronic health records
o C) More general codes
o D) Reduced documentation requirements
Answer: B) Better integration with electronic health records
25.What does a "tabular section" in ICD coding systems refer to?
o A) A list of medications
o B) A section listing diseases and codes
o C) A summary of statistics
o D) A guide for billing
Answer: B) A section listing diseases and codes
26.What is the purpose of the ICD-10 placeholder "x"?
o A) To indicate a chronic condition
o B) To indicate a diagnostic code
o C) To fill in gaps for future code expansions
o D) To mark the end of a code
Answer: C) To fill in gaps for future code expansions
27.Which of the following is NOT a part of ICD-10-CM?

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o A) Diagnosis codes
o B) Procedure codes
o C) Symptom codes
o D) Social conditions codes
Answer: B) Procedure codes
28.How often is ICD-9-CM modified?
o A) Every year
o B) Every five years
o C) It has not been modified since its inception
o D) Every two years
Answer: A) Every year
29.What aspect of ICD codes does "laterality" refer to?
o A) The method of treatment
o B) The side of the body affected
o C) The severity of a condition
o D) The duration of symptoms
Answer: B) The side of the body affected
30.Which of the following statements about ICD-9 and ICD-10 is true?
o A) ICD-9 has more codes than ICD-10
o B) ICD-10 codes lack detail compared to ICD-9
o C) ICD-10 codes are more specific than ICD-9 codes
o D) Both systems have the same structure
Answer: C) ICD-10 codes are more specific than ICD-9 codes

Medical Coding Lecture 3

1. 1. * What is the primary purpose of the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT)?

o A) To classify diseases
o B) To unify healthcare information related to procedures
o C) To provide patient care guidelines
o D) To manage health insurance claims
Answer: B) To unify healthcare information related to procedures
2. Which organization developed the CPT coding system?
o A) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
o B) World Health Organization (WHO)
o C) American Medical Association (AMA)

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o D) National Institutes of Health (NIH)
Answer: C) American Medical Association (AMA)
3. How does CPT primarily differ from ICD codes?
o A) CPT codes are for diagnoses, while ICD codes are for procedures.
o B) CPT codes are for procedures and services, while ICD codes are mainly for
diagnoses.
o C) CPT codes are used exclusively in outpatient settings.
o D) There is no difference; they are interchangeable.
Answer: B) CPT codes are for procedures and services, while ICD codes are
mainly for diagnoses.
4. What does HCPCS stand for?
o A) Healthcare Common Procedure Code System
o B) Health Care Patient Code System
o C) Hospital Common Procedure Coding System
o D) Health Care Procedure Common Standards
Answer: A) Healthcare Common Procedure Code System
5. Which level of HCPCS includes the CPT codes?
o A) Level I
o B) Level II
o C) Level III
o D) None of the above
Answer: A) Level I
6. What does the 'S' in SOAP notes stand for?
o A) Summary
o B) Subjective
o C) Systematic
o D) Standard
Answer: B) Subjective
7. Which category of CPT codes includes new technologies and procedures?
o A) Category I
o B) Category II
o C) Category III
o D) None of the above
Answer: C) Category III
8. What is the main purpose of SOAP notes in medical coding?
o A) To classify diseases for insurance claims
o B) To document patient interactions and changes in condition
o C) To provide billing information to insurance companies
o D) To standardize healthcare procedures
Answer: B) To document patient interactions and changes in condition
9. What does the 'O' in SOAP notes represent?

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o A) Observation
o B) Outcome
o C) Objective
o D) Order
Answer: C) Objective
10.In the claims submission process, what must be collected before services are
rendered?
o A) Insurance policy details
o B) A signed acknowledgment from the patient
o C) Payment in advance
o D) Patient's medical history
Answer: B) A signed acknowledgment from the patient
11.What is the purpose of Level II HCPCS codes?
o A) To document inpatient services
o B) To cover additional clinical items and services not included in CPT
o C) To detail surgical procedures
o D) To classify diseases
Answer: B) To cover additional clinical items and services not included in CPT
12.Which of the following is NOT a category of CPT codes?
o A) Category I
o B) Category II
o C) Category III
o D) Category IV
Answer: D) Category IV
13.What is required for electronic claims submissions according to HIPAA?
o A) Paper documentation
o B) Electronic filing requirements
o C) Manual entry
o D) None of the above
Answer: B) Electronic filing requirements
14.What does the 'P' in SOAP notes stand for?
o A) Procedure
o B) Plan
o C) Process
o D) Patient
Answer: B) Plan
15.Which document is considered the standard healthcare claim form used by all
insurance companies?
o A) CMS-1500
o B) HCFA-1500
o C) 1500 Health Insurance Claim Form

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o D) UB-04
Answer: C) 1500 Health Insurance Claim Form
16.What is the primary function of CPT codes in the billing process?
o A) To indicate the patient's diagnosis
o B) To convey the service for which the provider is billing
o C) To classify health insurance claims
o D) To provide patient medical history
Answer: B) To convey the service for which the provider is billing
17.Which category of CPT codes focuses on performance measures and patient
safety?
o A) Category I
o B) Category II
o C) Category III
o D) None of the above
Answer: B) Category II
18.What is the role of the Performance Measures Advisory Group (PMAG)?
o A) To develop ICD codes
o B) To maintain Category II CPT codes
o C) To standardize health insurance policies
o D) To assess healthcare provider performance
Answer: B) To maintain Category II CPT codes
19.Which of the following best describes Level III HCPCS codes?
o A) Codes for procedures performed in hospitals
o B) Local codes for specific programs and areas
o C) Codes for services provided by outpatient facilities
o D) National codes for all healthcare services
Answer: B) Local codes for specific programs and areas
20.What is the significance of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability
Act (HIPAA) in medical coding?
o A) It defines disease classifications.
o B) It mandates electronic coding standards.
o C) It regulates patient treatment procedures.
o D) It outlines billing procedures for insurance claims.
Answer: B) It mandates electronic coding standards.
21.What is typically included in the 'Assessment' section of SOAP notes?
o A) Patient's symptoms and history
o B) Observations made during the examination
o C) Diagnosis and differential diagnosis
o D) Treatment plans and referrals
Answer: C) Diagnosis and differential diagnosis

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22.Under what circumstances would a patient be responsible for payment after a
claim is submitted?
o A) If the claim is denied for lack of coverage
o B) If the claim is submitted electronically
o C) If the healthcare provider offers a discount
o D) If the patient has not met their deductible
Answer: A) If the claim is denied for lack of coverage
23.Which of the following statements about electronic claims is TRUE?
o A) They must always be submitted in paper format.
o B) They require manual entry by the patient.
o C) They must meet specific HIPAA requirements.
o D) They can only be submitted by large healthcare facilities.
Answer: C) They must meet specific HIPAA requirements.
24.What type of information should be included in an insurance claim?
o A) Only the patient's name and diagnosis
o B) All necessary information to facilitate reimbursement
o C) A detailed history of the patient's past illnesses
o D) Only the services rendered without any patient details
Answer: B) All necessary information to facilitate reimbursement
25.In which section of SOAP notes would a healthcare worker document the
patient's complaints?
o A) Subjective
o B) Objective
o C) Assessment
o D) Plan
Answer: A) Subjective
26.What is the primary purpose of maintaining a billing policy in healthcare?
o A) To ensure compliance with medical standards
o B) To inform patients of the procedures and payment methods
o C) To classify diseases for treatment
o D) To standardize healthcare procedures
Answer: B) To inform patients of the procedures and payment methods
27.What does the 'A' in SOAP notes signify?
o A) Action
o B) Assessment
o C) Approach
o D) Agreement
Answer: B) Assessment
28.Which aspect of patient information is essential for claims processing?
o A) Patient's social security number
o B) Signed consent forms

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o C) Patient's insurance policy details
o D) Family medical history
Answer: C) Patient's insurance policy details
29.What is one of the key differences between Level I and Level II HCPCS codes?
o A) Level I codes include surgical procedures, while Level II does not.
o B) Level I codes are numeric, while Level II codes are alphanumeric.
o C) Level II codes are used for inpatient services only.
o D) There are no differences; they serve the same purpose.
Answer: B) Level I codes are numeric, while Level II codes are alphanumeric.
30.What is the significance of a "Paid" stamp on a claim?
o A) It indicates the claim has been denied.
o B) It confirms that payment has been made.
o C) It signifies that the claim is pending review.
o D) It shows that the claim was filed late.
Answer: B) It confirms that payment has been made.

Medical Coding Lecture 4

1. What is the primary responsibility of a medical coder?
o A) To provide medical treatment
o B) To ensure accurate and complete coding for reimbursement
o C) To manage hospital finances
o D) To conduct medical research
Answer: B
2. According to the NHE Projections 2014-2024, health spending is projected to
grow at what average rate annually?
o A) 4.5%
o B) 5.8%
o C) 6.1%
o D) 7.0%
Answer: B
3. What does GDP stand for in the context of health expenditure?
o A) General Domestic Product
o B) Gross Domestic Product
o C) Global Domestic Product
o D) Government Domestic Product
Answer: B

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4. Which of the following elements is NOT included in common reimbursement
requirements?
o A) Date of service
o B) Patient's social security number
o C) Provider's name and address
o D) Declared amount
Answer: B
5. What is the maximum allowed payment for CPT codes?
o A) It is standardized across all services
o B) It is determined by individual payer policies
o C) It is set by the federal government
o D) It varies by geographic location
Answer: B
6. What type of document must a payer complete to request reimbursement?
o A) Medical history report
o B) Medical reimbursement form
o C) Insurance policy document
o D) Patient consent form
Answer: B
7. Which of the following is a major term used to describe the format of the
electronic health record?
o A) Electronic Medical Record (EMR)
o B) Digital Health Record (DHR)
o C) Standardized Health Record (SHR)
o D) Automated Health Record (AHR)
Answer: A
8. How is the Relative Value Unit (RVU) primarily determined?
o A) Based on geographic location
o B) By analyzing the resources necessary for a service
o C) By patient satisfaction ratings
o D) By insurance company policies
Answer: B
9. What is the purpose of the Geographic Practice Cost Index (GPCI)?
o A) To standardize physician salaries
o B) To measure cost differences in various areas for physician payment
o C) To determine patient eligibility for insurance
o D) To assess the quality of healthcare services
Answer: B
10.Which of the following is true regarding surgical modifiers?
o A) They increase the cost of procedures
o B) They are only applicable to outpatient surgeries

‫هنادي الشريف‬
o C) They adjust payments based on specific circumstances
o D) They are not used in Medicare reimbursements
Answer: C
11.What is a significant penalty for breaching the security of medical records?
o A) Suspension of medical license
o B) Fines and legal consequences
o C) Mandatory retraining
o D) Loss of hospital privileges
Answer: B
12.What is the function of Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) in healthcare?
o A) To provide medical information to patients
o B) To facilitate electronic transactions between providers and payers
o C) To store patient records securely
o D) To manage hospital staff schedules
Answer: B
13.In the context of medical coding, what do the codes CPT, ICD-10-CM, and ICD-
10-PCS represent?
o A) Types of insurance plans
o B) Coding systems for diagnoses and procedures
o C) Payment methods for healthcare services
o D) Standards for electronic transactions
Answer: B
14.Under what conditions can services performed in an outpatient hospital
department receive payment discounts?
o A) If the services are deemed unnecessary
o B) If the services are typically performed in office settings
o C) If the patient is over a certain age
o D) If the procedure is experimental
Answer: B
15.Which of the following describes fraud in medical billing?
o A) Accidental billing errors
o B) Intentional deception for unauthorized benefits
o C) Miscommunication between providers
o D) Overcharging for services rendered
Answer: B

‫هنادي الشريف‬
Medical Coding Lecture 5

1. What are the two basic principles of insurance management?

o A) Risk assessment and premium calculation
o B) Transferring risk and sharing losses
o C) Investment and risk management
o D) Coverage and exclusions
Answer: B
2. From an economic perspective, how does health insurance function?
o A) By providing free healthcare services
o B) Through individual contributions to a risk pool
o C) By guaranteeing fixed payouts to policyholders
o D) By reducing healthcare costs for the government
Answer: B
3. In which year was the Council for Cooperative Health Insurance (CCHI)
established in Saudi Arabia?
o A) 1995
o B) 1999
o C) 2002
o D) 2005
Answer: B
4. What is the primary role of the CCHI?
o A) To provide medical services directly to citizens
o B) To introduce, regulate, and supervise health insurance strategies
o C) To manage public health campaigns
o D) To oversee hospital funding
Answer: B
5. Which population group was covered in the first stage of the cooperative health
insurance scheme?
o A) All Saudi citizens
o B) Non-Saudis and Saudis in the private sector
o C) Government employees only
o D) Pilgrims visiting Saudi Arabia
Answer: B
6. As of the last census, what percentage of the Saudi population is made up of
Saudi citizens?
o A) 50%
o B) 63%
o C) 70%

‫هنادي الشريف‬
o D) 75%
Answer: B
7. What is a significant challenge for the Ministry of Health (MOH) in Saudi
Arabia?
o A) Increasing healthcare costs for expatriates
o B) Funding healthcare services amidst rapid population growth
o C) Reducing the number of private hospitals
o D) Implementing technology in all hospitals
Answer: B
8. Which of the following classes is excluded from the cooperative health insurance
coverage?
o A) Non-Saudis working in the private sector
o B) Family dependents of government employees
o C) Saudis working in the private sector
o D) Unemployed persons in the non-government sector
Answer: B
9. What is the purpose of the Saudi Arabian Monetary Agency (SAMA) concerning
health insurance?
o A) To provide direct healthcare services
o B) To supervise the implementation of the insurance control law
o C) To manage health insurance claims
o D) To fund public health initiatives
Answer: B
10.Which coding system is applied by the Ministry of Health (MOH) to improve
health services in Saudi Arabia?
o A) ICD-9
o B) ICD-10-AM
o C) CPT
o D) DRG
Answer: B
11.What does AR-DRG stand for?
o A) Australian Revised Diagnosis Group
o B) Australian Refined Diagnosis Related Groups
o C) Advanced Risk Diagnosis Group
o D) Australian Risk Determination Group
Answer: B
12.What financial model does the DRG payment structure primarily utilize?
o A) Fee-for-service
o B) Capitation
o C) Cost weight multiplied by base rate

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o D) Flat rate per patient
Answer: C
13.Which demographic is expected to reach 39.8 million by 2025 according to UN
projections?
o A) Total expatriate population
o B) Total population of Saudi Arabia
o C) Saudi citizens only
o D) Foreign workers
Answer: B
14.What is one of the main tasks of the CCHI?
o A) Conducting medical research
o B) Certifying cooperative insurance companies
o C) Providing direct healthcare services
o D) Funding private hospitals
Answer: B
15.Which of the following is NOT covered under the cooperative health insurance?
o A) Cosmetic treatments unless for injury
o B) Preventive measures defined by the Ministry of Health
o C) Intentional self-inflicted injuries
o D) General examinations
Answer: C

Medical Coding Lecture 6

1. What is the primary purpose of the ICD-10-CM?

o A) To classify medical procedures
o B) To classify patient morbidity and mortality information
o C) To manage hospital billing
o D) To standardize medical terminology
Answer: B
2. Which organization issued the 10th revision of the International Classification of
Diseases (ICD-10)?
o A) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
o B) National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS)
o C) World Health Organization (WHO)

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o D) American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA)
Answer: C
3. What does the "CM" in ICD-10-CM stand for?
o A) Clinical Manual
o B) Clinical Modification
o C) Common Medical
o D) Comprehensive Model
Answer: B
4. Which coding system is responsible for the procedure classification in the U.S.?
o A) ICD-9
o B) ICD-10-PCS
o C) CPT
o D) DRG
Answer: B
5. What significant improvement was made in ICD-10 compared to ICD-9?
o A) Fewer codes for diseases
o B) Addition of a sixth character
o C) Elimination of injury codes
o D) Simplified coding guidelines
Answer: B
6. Which of the following is NOT a function of ICD-10-CM coding?
o A) Facilitating payment for health services
o B) Evaluating the quality of healthcare
o C) Providing direct medical treatment
o D) Studying healthcare costs
Answer: C
7. What is the purpose of General Equivalence Mappings (GEMs)?
o A) To create new diagnosis codes
o B) To map corresponding diagnosis codes between ICD-9 and ICD-10
o C) To classify medical procedures
o D) To simplify coding guidelines
Answer: B
8. How many chapters are included in the ICD-10-CM manual?
o A) 15
o B) 20
o C) 21
o D) 25
Answer: C
9. In the context of ICD-10-CM, what does a "subcategory" code provide?
o A) Basic condition description
o B) More specific information than a category code

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o C) No additional information
o D) Only administrative details
Answer: B
10.What is the role of the Alphabetic Index in ICD-10-CM?
o A) To list all surgical procedures
o B) To assign diagnosis codes based on medical necessity
o C) To provide an overview of healthcare costs
o D) To substantiate the reason for receiving medical services
Answer: D
11.Which of the following best describes the term "mapping" in ICD coding?
o A) The process of creating new codes
o B) The correlation of codes between different coding systems
o C) The analysis of healthcare trends
o D) The simplification of medical records
Answer: B
12.Which character in a flag designation indicates that a code must be linked to
more than one code in the target system?
o A) 0
o B) 1
o C) 2
o D) 3
Answer: B
13.What type of information does the ICD-10-CM not include?
o A) Diagnosis codes
o B) Procedure classification
o C) Injury codes
o D) Disease classifications
Answer: B
14.Which of the following is a requirement for accurate coding in ICD-10-CM?
o A) Basic knowledge of insurance policies
o B) In-depth knowledge of medical terminology and anatomy
o C) Familiarity with patient demographics
o D) Understanding of hospital management
Answer: B
15.What type of coding format does ICD-10-CM use?
o A) Numeric only
o B) Alphanumeric
o C) Symbolic
o D) Binary
Answer: B

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