12th Physics Question Bank Em
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com
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1. ELECTROSTATICS
BOOK BACK
1. A glass rod rubbed with silk acquires a charge of +8 x 10-12 C, the number of electrons it has
gained or lost
a) 5 x 10-7 (gained) b) 5 x 107 (lost) c) 2 x 10-8 (lost) d) -8 x 10-12 (lost)
2. The electrostatic force between two point charges kept at a distance d apart, in a medium r = 6,
is 0.3 N. The force between them at the same separation in vacuum is
a) 20 N b) 0.5 N c) 1.8 N d) 2 N
-1
3. Electric field intensity is 400 Vm at a distance of 2m from a point of charge. It will be
100 Vm-1 at a distance? (Mar 07, June 12,Oct 12)
a) 50 cm b) 4 cm c) 4 m d) 1.5m
4. Two point charges +4q and +q are placed 30cm apart. At what point on the line joining them the
electric field is zero?
a) 15 cm from the charge q b) 7.5 cm from the charge q
c) 20cm from the charge 4q d) 5 cm from the charge q
5. A dipole is placed in a uniform electric field with its axis parallel to the field. It experiences.
(Mar 06, 07, Oct 07, 08,J-13)
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6.
a) only a net force
c) both a net force and torque
b) only a torque
d) neither a net force nor a torque.
If a point lies at a distance x from the midpoint of the dipole, the electric potential at this point
is proportional to
1 1 1 1
(Mar 11, 14)
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 3 / 2
x x x x
7. Four charges +q, +q, -q and –q respectively are placed at the corners A, B, C and D of a square
of side a. The electric potential at the centre O of the square is (Oct 06)
1 q 1 2q 1 4q
a) b) c) d) zero
4 0 a 4 0 a 4 0 a
8. Electrical potential energy (U) of two point charges is (Mar 09, June 10, 11,O-13)
q1q 2 qq
a) b) 1 2 c) pE cos d) pE sin
4 0 r 2
4 0 r
9. The workdone in moving 500C charge between two point on equipotential surface is
(J- 07, 10 March 08, 10, 12, Oct 11,J-14)
a) zero b) finite c) finite negative d) infinite
10. Which of the following quantities is scalar? (June 06, 08, Mar 09, Oct 10, 11)
a) dipole moment b) electric force c) electric field d) electric potential
11. The unit of permittivity is (Mar 08, Oct 08, June 11,Oct 12,O-13)
a) C2 N-1 m-2 b) Nm2 C-2 c) H m-1 d) N C-2m-2
12. The number of electric lines of force originating from a charge of 1C is
a) 1.129 x 1011 b) 1.6 x 10-19 c) 6.25 x 1018 d) 8.85 x 1012
13. The electric field outside the plates of two oppositely charged plane sheets of charge density is
(M- 08, 11, O- 09, J- 11,M- 13,14,O-14)
a) b) c) d) zero
2 0 2 0 0
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14. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor increases form 5F to 60F when a dielectric is
filled between the plates. The dielectric constant of the dielectric is (J- 08, O-10,J-14,O-14)
a) 65 b) 55 c) 12 d) 10
15. A hollow metal ball carrying an electric charge produces no electric field at points
(M- 10,12,J-13,O-13)
a) outside the sphere b) on its surface c) inside the sphere d) at a distance more than twice
ANSWERS
1.(b) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(c) 5.(d) 6.(a) 7.(d) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10(d) 11(a) 12(a) 13(d) 14(c) 15(c)
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a) 0 b) 90 c) 45 d) 180
4. Potential energy of two equal negative point charges of magnitude 2C placed 1m apart in air is
(June 06)
a) 2 J b) 0.36 J c) 4 J d) 0.036 J
5. A hollow metallic spherical shell carrying an electric charge produces no electric field at points
(June 06, Mar 12)
a) on the surface of the shell b) inside the shell
c) at infinite distance from the centre of the shell d) outside the shell
6. The value of permittivity of free space is (Oct 06)
12 2 -1 -2 8 2 -1 -2
a) 8.854 x 10 C N m b) 9 x 10 C N m
1 1
c) C 2 N 1 m 2 d) C 2 N 1 m 2
9 10 9
4 9 10 9
7. The unit of electric field intensity is (Oct 06, June 08, Mar 09,O-14)
a) NC-2 b) NC c) Vm-1 d) Vm
8. The principle used in lightning conductors (Oct 06)
a) corona discharge b) mutual induction
c) self-induction d) electromagnetic induction
9. The unit of electric dipole moment is (Mar 07)
a) volt / metre (V / m) b) coulomb / metre (C / m)
c) volt metre (V m) d) coulomb metre (C m)
10. Electric potential energy of a electric dipole in an electric field is given as (Mar 07)
a) pE sin b) – pE sin c) – pE cos d) pE cos
11. Which of the following is not a dielectric? (June 07)
a) Ebonite b) Mica c) Oil d) Gold
12. The direction of electric field at a point on the equatorial line due to an electric dipole is
a) along the equatorial line towards the dipole (June 07)
b) along the equatorial line away from the dipole
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c) parallel to the axis of the dipole and opposite to the direction of dipole moment
d) parallel to the axis of the dipole and in the direction of dipole moment
13. In the given circuit, the effective capacitance between A and B will be (June 07)
3F 6F
A B
2F 2F
a) 3 F b) 36 / 13 F c) 13F d) 7F
14. The number of electric lines of force originating from a charge of 1micro coulomb is (Oct 07)
a) 1.129x105 b) 220V c) 50V d) 70.7
15. The equivalent capacitance of two capacitors in series is 1.5F. The capacitance of one of them
is 4F. The value of capacitance of the other is (Oct 07)
a) 2.4F b) 0.24F c) 0.417F d) 4.17F
16. The law that governs the force between electric charges is (Oct 07)
a) Ampere’s law b) Faraday’s law c) Coulomb’s law d) Ohm’s law
17. An electric dipole placed at an angle θ in a non-uniform electric field experiences
a) neither a force nor a torque b) torque only (Mar 08, Oct 08)
c) Both force and torque d) net force only
18. A capacitor of capacitance 6 µF is connected to a 100 V battery. The energy stored in the
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19.
capacitor is
a) 30 J b) 3 J c) 0.03 J d) 0.06 J
When an electric dipole of dipole moment P is aligned parallel to the electric field E
then the potential energy of the dipole is given is
(Mar 08)
(June 08)
a) PE b) Zero c) – PE d) pE / 2
20. Quantisation of electric charge is given by (Oct 08)
a) q = ne b) q = cV c) q = e/n d) q = e/V
21. An example of conductor is (Oct 08)
a) glass b) human body c) dry wood d) ebonite
22. The magnitude of the force acting on a charge of 2 x 10-10 C placed in a uniform electric
field of 10 Vm-1 is (Mar 09)
a) 2 x 10-9 N b) 4 x 10-9 N c) 2 x 10-10 N d) 4 x 10-10 N
23. The torque ( ) experienced by an electric dipole placed in a uniform electric field (E)
at an angle with the field is (Jun 09)
a) PE cos b) - PE cos c) PE sin d) 2PE sin
24. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor increases from 5 µF to 50 µF when a dielectric
is filled between the plates. The permittivity of dielectric is (June 09)
-12 2 -1 2 -11 2 -1 2
a) 8.854 x 10 C N m b) 8.854x10 C N m c) 12 d) 10
25. The negative gradient of potential is (June 09)
a) electric force b)torque c) electric current d) electric field intensity
26. When a point charge of 6C is moved between two points in an electric field, the work done
is 1.8 x 10-5J. The potential difference between the two points is (Oct 09)
a) 1.08 V b) 1.08 V c) 3 V d) 30 V
27. The equivalent capacitance of two capacitors connected in series is 1.5 µF. The capacitance
of one of them is 4 µF. The capacitance of the other is (Oct 09)
a) 2.4 µF b) 2 µF c) 4 d) 6
28. Three capacitors of capacitances 1F, 2 F and 3 F are connected in series. The
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34.
35.
d) independent of both the charge q and potential V
The intensity of the electric field that produces a force of 10-5 N on a charge of 5C is (Mar 11)
a) 5 x 10-11 NC-1 b) 50 NC-1 c) 2NC-1 d) 0.5 NC-1
The unit of the number of electric lines of force passing through a given area is
-1 2 -1
(Mar 11)
a) no unit b) NC c) Nm C d) Nm
36. A dielectric medium is placed in an electric field E0. The field induced inside the medium (J-11)
a) acts in the direction of the electric field b) acts opposite to E0
c) acts perpendicular to E0 d) is zero
37. n capacitors each of capacitance C are connected in series. The effective capacitance is (O-11)
n C
a) b) c) nC d) C
C n
38. A non-polar dielectric is placed in an electric field (E). Its induced dipole moment (Oct 11)
a) is zero b) acts in the direction of E
c) acts opposite to the direction of E d) acts perpendicular to E
39. The value of relative permittivity of air is (Mar 12)
-12 2 -1 2 9 2 -1 -2
a) 8.854 x 10 c N m b) 9 x 10 c N m
c) 1 d) 8.854 x 1012
40. When the charge given to a capacitor is doubled its capacitance is (M- 12,O-15)
a) increases twice b) decreases twice
c) increases four times d) does not change
41. The work done in moving 50C change between two points on equipotential surface is (J- 12)
a) zero b) finite positive c) finite negative d) infinite
42. The electric field intensity at a short distance r from uniformly charged infinite plane sheet of
charge is (June 12)
1 1
a) proportional to r b) proportional to c) proportional to 2 d) independent of r
r r
43. The unit of relative permittivity is (June 12)
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52.
a) in the direction of ⃗
c) perpendicular to the direction of
The principle of vande graf generator
⃗
b) opposite to the direction of ⃗
d) random
(J-14)
(J-14)
a) electromagnetic induction and action of points b) electrostatic induction and action of points
c) electrostatic induction only d) action of points only
53. For which of the following medium, the value of relative Permitivity =1 (O-14)
a) Mica b) Air c) Glass d) Water
54. The unit of molecular polarisability is (M-15)
a) C2N-1m c)Nm2C-1 c) N-1m-2C2 d) C-1 m2 V
55. Point charge +q ,+ q ,-q and ,-q are placed at the corners A,B,C and D respectively of a square .
O is the pont of intersection of the diagonals AC and BD .The resultant electric field intensity at
the point O (M-15)
a) acts in a direction parallel to AB b) acts in a direction parallel to BC
c) acts in a direction parallel to CD d) is zero
56. Two point charges +q1 and +q2 are placed in air at a distance of 2m apart.One of the charges is
moved towards the other through a distance of 1m .The workdone is (J-15)
a) b) c) d)
57. Two capacitances 0.5µF and 0.75µF are connected in parallel.Calculate the effective
capacitance of the capacitor (O-15)
a) 0.80 µF b) 0.70 µF c) 0.25 µF d) 1.25 µF
58. The equipotential surface of an electric dipole is (M-16)
a) a sphere whose centre coincides with the centre of the electric dipole
b) a plane surface inclined at an angle of 45º with the axis of the electric dipole
c) a plane surface passing through the centre of the electric dipole and perpendicular to the axis
of the electric dipole
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61. The force between two charges situated in a medium of permittivity ‘ ′ is (J-16)
x
a) b) 9 x 109 c) 9 x 109 d)
62. The work done in moving 6 µC charge between two points is 1.2x10-5 J. Find the
potential difference between two points : (O -16)
a) 6V b) 2V c) 12 V d) 72 V
63. Point charges q1 and q2 are placed in air at a distance ‘r’.The ratio of the force on charge q1 by
charge q2 and force on charge q2 by charge q1 is : (M-17)
a) b) c) 1 d) [ ]
64. The electric field at a point 2cm from an infinite line charge of linear charge density 10-7 Cm-1 is
a) 4.5 x 104 NC-1 b) 9 x 104 NC-1 c) 9 x 102 NC-1 d) 18 x 104 NC-1 (M-17)
ANSWERS
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1.(a)
13.(a)
25.(d)
2.(a)
14.(a)
26.(c)
3.(b)
15.(a)
27.(a)
4.(d)
16.(c)
28.(c)
5.(b)
17.(c)
29.(d)
6.(d)
18.(c)
30.(b)
7.(c)
19.(c)
31.(d)
8.(a)
20.(a)
32.(d)
9.(d)
21.(b)
33.(d)
10.(c)
22.(a)
34.(c)
11.(d)
23.(c)
35.(c)
12.(c)
24.(b)
36.(b)
37.(b) 38.(b) 39.(c) 40.(d) 41.(a) 42.(d) 43.(c) 44.(c) 45.(b)4 46.(d) 47.(c) 48.(c)
49.(a) 50.(b) 51.(a) 52.(b) 53.(b) 54.(a) 55.(b) 56.(c) 57.(d) 58.(c) 59.(b) 60.(b)
61.(d) 62.(b) 63.(c) 64.(b)
3 MARKS
1. Define ‘Coulomb’ on the basis of coulomb’s law. pg no.4 (M-06,J-07,S-10,J-10,S-11,M-13)
2. Why is it safer to be inside a car than standing under a tree during lightning
pg no.21(M-07,S-08,09,J-14,15,M-17)
3. What is meant by electric polarization OR dielectric polarisastion? 25 (S-06,S-09,S-11,J-14)
4. Define electric potential at a point pg 12 (M-07,J-13,O-13)
5. What is a polar molecule? Give any two examples pg no.24 (M-07, J -11,M-13,J-16)
6. What is corona discharge? What are its advantages? Or Action of points pg 30(J-7,O-8,14,15)
7. Write the applications of capacitor. pg no.27 (O-07,M-11,M-12,O-16)
-7
8. Calculate the potential at a point due to a charge of 4 x 10 C located at 0.09m away from it.
(M-12,14)
9. Three capacitors each of capacitance 9 pF are connected in series. What is the total
capacitance of the combination? pg no.48 (M-08,J-16)
10. State Gauss’ law in electrostatics. pg .17,18 (J-6, O-6,M -09,M-11,-15M-16)
11. Define electric flux. Give its unit. pg no.17 (M-08)
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12. Explain the working of a microwave oven.Or principle of microwave oven pg 12 (Jun 8,14)
13. What is electrostatic shielding? pg no.21 (M-08)
14. What is a capacitor? Define its capacitance. pg no.22 (M-09)
15. Mention any three properties of electric lines of force. pg no.7 (J-10,M-16)
16. What are non polar molecules? Give examples. pg 24 (O-10,13)
17. State Coulomb’s law in electrostatics pg no.3 (J-07,M-15)
18. Calculate the effective capacitance of the combination shown in figure ( O-08,J-13)
19. What is an electric dipole.Define electric dipole moment.Give its unit. Pg no 8 (M-14,17)
20. A sample of HCl gas is placed in an electric field of 2.5 x 104 N C-1. The dipole moment of each
HCl molecule is 3.4 x 10-30 C m. Find the maximum torque that can act on a molecule. (M-15)
21. A point charge causes an electric flux of –6 x 103 Nm2 C-1 to pass through a spherical Gaussian
surface of 10 cm radius centred on the charge. (i) If the radius of the Gaussian surface is
doubled, how much flux will pass through the surface? (ii) What is the value of charge? (O-15)
22. An infinite line charge produces a field of 9 x 104 NC-1 at a distance of 2 cm. Calculate the
linear charge density. (O-16)
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1.
2.
3.
4.
What do you mean by “additive nature of charge”? Give an example.
What are conductors and insulators?
What are relative permittivity and permitivity? How they are related ?
What is electric field?
pg no.3 (Oct 7)
page no.2
page no.4
page no.5
5. Define electric field intensity.Give its unit. page no.6
6. What is electric lines of force? page no.7
7. What is microwave oven? page no.12
8. Define volt. page no.12
9. What is equipotential surface? page no.16
10. What is electrostatic induction ? page no.21
11. What is dielectric ?Give examples. page no.24
12. What is meant by molecular polarisability? page no.25
13. Define potential difference.Give its unit. page no.12
14. What is meant by quantization of electric charge? page no.2
5 MARKS
1. Write the properties of electric lines of force. (M-07,S-07,M-08,M-10,M-11,S-11,J-12,M-13,15)
2. Two capacitors of unknown capacitances are connected in series, and parallel. If the net
capacitances in the two combinations are 6F and 25F respectively, find their capacitances.(O-08)
3. Three capacitors each of capacitance 9 pf are connected in series. (i) What is the total capacitance
of the combination? (ii)What is the potential difference across each capacitor if the combination
is connected to 120V supply? (J-06,O-06,J-11)
2
4. A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area 200 cm and separation between the plates is
1mm. calculate (i) the potential difference between the plates if 1 nC charge is given to the
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capacitor.(ii) with the same charge (1nC) if the plate separation is increased to 2mm, what
is the new potential difference and (iii) the electric field between the plates? (M-06)
5. Two capacitors of capacitances 0.5 F and 0.75 F are connected in parallel and the
combination to a 110V battery. Calculate the charge from the source and charge on each
capacitor. [or] (J-07)
A square of side 1.3 m has charges +12nC, -24nC, +31nC and +17nC at its corners.
Calculate the electric potential at the centre of the square. (J-07)
6. Two positive charges of 12C and 8C respectively are 10cm apart. Find the work done
in bringing them 4 cm closer, so that the are 6 cm apart. (J-08)
7. Define electric potential at a point. Obtain an expression for electric potential due to a
point charge. (M-09,O-16)
2
8. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor have an area of 90 cm each and are separated by
2.5mm.The capacitor is charged by connecting it to a 400V supply. How much
electrostatic energy is stored by the capacitor? (J-09,O-13,M-16)
9. Deduce an expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. (J-09,13,15,M-17)
10. What is electrostatic potential energy of a system of two point charges?.Deduce an
expression for it? (O-09)
11. Derive an expression for the torque experienced by an electric dipole when placed in
a uniform electric field. (O-10,12,14,J-16)
-9 -9 -9
12. Three charges -2 x 10 C, +3 X 10 C and -4 X 10 C are placed at the vertices of an
equilateral triangle ABC of side 20cm.Calculate the workdone in shifting the charges from
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13.
A,B and C to A1,B1 and C1 respectively.Which are the mid-points of the triangle? (J-11)
14. Deduce an expression for the effective capacitance of capacitors of capacitances C1,C2and C3
connected in series. (M-14)
15. What is a capacitor ? Explain the principle of capacitor (J-14)
16. Three charges + 1 C + 3 C and -5C are kept at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of sides
60 cm. Find the electrostatic potential energy of the system of charges. (M-16)
10 MARKS
1. What is an electric dipole? Derive an expression for the electric field due to an electric
dipole at a point on its axial line. (M - 06, J - 06, M - 09, J - 10, O -10, M – 11,J-14,M-16)
2. Derive an expression for electric potential due at a point to an electric dipole.
Discus the special cases. (O - 06, M - 08, J - 08, M - 10, O – 11,M-13,15)
3. Deduce an expression for equivalent capacitance of capacitors connected (i) parallel (ii)series.
(J - 07, O - 07)
4. Principle, construction and working of Van de Graaff generator. What is its use?
(O - 08, O - 09, O – 12,M-14,O-15,M-17)
5. What is an electric dipole? Derive an expression for electric field due to an electric dipole at a
point along the equatorial line. (M - 07, J – 09, O-13,J-15)
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6. State Gauss’s law. Applying this calculate electric field due to (i) an infinitely long
straight charged with uniform charge density. (J - 11, M – 12,J-13)
7. Explain the principle of a capacitor. Deduce an expression for the capacitance of a parallel
plate capacitor. ( J -12,O-14)
8. What is dielectric? Explain the effect of introducing a dielectric slab between the plates
of a parallel plate capacitor.Write its applications (J-16)
9. Using Gauss’ law Explain electric field due to uniformly charged spherical shell
2. CURRENT ELECTRICITY
1. A charge of 60C passes through an electric lamp in 2 minutes. Then the current in the lamp is
a) 30 A b) 1 A c) 0.5 A d) 5 A
2. The material through which electric charge can flow easily is (Oct 07,14)
a) quartz b) mica c) germanium d) copper
3. The current flowing in a conductor is proportional to
a) drift velocity b) 1 / area of cross section
c) 1 / no. of electrons d) square of area of cross section
4. A toaster operating at 240V has a resistance of 120. The power is (June 10)
a) 400 W b) 2 W c) 480 W d) 240 W
5. If the length of a copper wire has a certain resistance R then on doubling the length its specific
resistance (Oct 06, 09, 11 June 08, Mar 10, 11)
a) will be doubled b) will become ¼th
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6.
7.
c) will become 4 times
a) decreases b) increases
c) 1
d) will remain the same
When two 2 resistances are in parallel, the effective resistance is
a) 2 b) 4
In the case of insulators, as the temperature decreases, resistivity
d) 0.5
(Oct 08, June 11)
ANSWERS
1.c) 2.(d) 3.(a) 4.(c) 5.(d) 6.(c) 7.(b) 8.(d) 9.(d) 10.(d)
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13.
current through the conductor along the Y-axis .The slope of the straight line gives (M-15)
a) resistance b) conductance
(M-16)
a) 36 x 105 J b) 36 x 104 J c) 3600 J d) 3600Js-1
14. The effective resistance between A and B in the given network (O-16)
2Ω 3Ω
A B
5Ω
ANSWERS
1.(d) 2.b) 3.(a) 4.(d) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7.(b) 8.(b) 9.(c) 10.(c) 11.(b)
12.(b) 13.(c) 14.(a) 15.(c)
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2. State Kirchhoff’s (i) current law, (ii) voltage law. pg no.55,56 (J-6,M-7,8,9,J-11,M-12,14,O-15)
3. Write any three application of superconductors. pg no.51 (J-06,O-06,J-07,O-07,J-13,M-15)
4. A manganin wire of length 2m has a dimeter of 0.4mm with a resistance of 70 . Find the
reisistivity of a material. pg no76. (J-06)
5. What are the changes observed at transition temperature when the conductor becomes a
superconductor? pg no.51 (J-11,M-14)
6. Define transition temperature pg no.51(M-12,J-16)
7. What is electrical resistivity or Define resistivity of a material. pg no.49 (O-12,M-15)
8. What are the applications of secondary cells? pg no.68 (O-08,11,M-12)
9. Two wires of same material and length have resistances. 5 and 10 respectively. Find the
ratio of radii of the two wires. pg no.70 (M-09)
10. Distinguish between electromotive force and potential difference
pg no 62.(M-J-07,O-08,J-11,12,M-13,15)
11. The resistance of a Nichrome wire at 0C is 10. If its temperature co-efficient of
resistance is 0.004/C, find its resistance at boiling point of water. Comment on the result.
pg no 77 (J-07,O-08,M-08,J-09,O-10,O-11,O-12,13,J-15)
12. The resistance of platinum wire at 0C is 4. What will be the resistance of the wire at 100C
if the temperatures coefficient of resistance of platinum is 0.0038/C?pg77 (M-07,J-10,16,O-16)
13. From the following network, find the effective resistance between A and B
R1 = 15 pg no73 (J-12)
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A B
R2 =15
14. State Faraday’s laws of electrolysis. pg no.63 (M-06,J-10,O-10,J-13,15,M-17)
15. Define drift velocity pg 47 (M-07,O-08,J-09,O-09,M-10,O-10,M-11,O-11,J-13,15)
16. Distinguish between electric power and electric energy pg no.62 (J-08,09,O-13,J-14,O-14)
17. If 6.25 x 1018 electrons flow through a given cross- section of a conductor in unit time,
find the current. [ Given: Charge of an electron is 1.6 x 10 -19 C] pg no69 (M-10,J-11)
18. In the following circuit, calculate the current through the circuit. Mention its direction. (O-14)
A B
5 10V 10
D C
20V 5
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22. An incandescent lamp is operated at 240 V and the current is 0.5 A.What is the resistance of the
lamp ? pg no.69( M-14 )
23. 1.5 V carbon-zinc dry cell is connected across a load of 1000Ω.Calculate current and power
supplied to it. (J-14 )
24. A cell has a potential difference of 6 V in an open circuit, but it falls to 4 V when a current of
2A is drawn from it. Find the internal resistance of the cell. (O-15)
25. A 10Ω resistance is connected in series with a cell of emf 10 V.A voltmeter is connected in
parallel to a cell, and it reads 9.9 V.Find the internal resistance of the cell. (M-16)
26. Define current density. Give its unit page no 47(O-16)
27. Difference between primary and secondary cell pg 66 (O-16)
28. How much time 1020 electrons will take to flow through a point, so that the current is
200 mA? (e = 1.6 x 10-19 C) pg 85 (M-17)
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6.
7.
8.
9.
What is electrical conductivity? Give its unit.
What is known as transition temperature or critical temperature?
What is known as the internal resistance of the cell?
Why copper wire is not suitable for a potentiometer?
page no.49
page no.51
page no.54
5 marks
1. Write any five applications of superconductors. (O-8,M-9,J-11,O-12,M-13,J-14,O-14,M-16)
2. Explain the action of a lead-acid accumulator. (O-07,15)
3. How will you compare the e.m.f.s of two cells using a potentiometer? (M-7,O-10,11,M-12,14,17)
4. If two or more resistors are connected in parallel, derive an expression for the effective
resistance. (O-06,15)
5. Define mobility. Establish a relation between drift velocity and current. (M-6,O-14,J-16)
6. Obtain the condition for bridge balance in wheatstone bridge.(M-6,J-6,O-6,M-8,J-9,M-10,15,17)
7. Explain the construction and working of Daniel cell. (O-08,J-09,10,M-11,14)
8. Explain the working of a Lechlanche cell with a diagram. (J-07,O-12,13)
9. State Faraday’s second law of electrolysis. How is it verified experimentally?
(J-06,M-08,11,O-13,16)
10. Explain the determination of the internal resistance of a cell using voltmeter
(J-08,O-09,J-11,M-13,J-13,15)
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11. In the given network, calculate the effective resistance between the points A and B. (M-07)
10
10 10
5 5 5
A B
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(or)
What is the drift velocity of an electron in a copper conductor having are 10 x 10-6m2,
carrying a current of 2A . Assume that there are 10 x 1028 electrons/m3. (J-10)
16. State and explain kirchoff’s Voltage law for electrical network. (J-07,O-16)
17. State Faraday’s first law of electrolysis and describe the experimental verification.
(J-08,O-09,M-16)
18. Find the current flowing across three resistors 3Ω,5Ω and 2Ω connected in parallel to 15 V
supply. Also find the effective resistance and total current drawn from the supply. (O-10)
19. In a metre bridge,the balancing length for a 10Ω resistance in left gap is 51.8cm.Find the
unknown resistance and specific resistance of a wire of length 108 cm and radius 0.2mm
(O-10,J-12)
20. An iron box of 400W power is used daily for 30 minutes. If the cost per unit is 75 paise.
Find the weekly expense on using the iron box. (J-12)
21. Discuss the variation of resistance with temperature with an expression and a graph. (J-12)
22. Derive an expression of resistance in series and resistance in parallel.
23. Explain the construction and working of Voltaic cell.
24. The resistance of a field coil measures 50 at 20°C and 60 at 70°C.Find the temperature
coefficient of resistance (J-13)
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8.
rotated through 900. Now, for the same current, the deflection will be
a) 300 b) 600 c) 900 d) 00
The period of revolution of a charged particle inside a cyclotron does not depend on (M- 11,13)
a) the magnetic induction b) the charge of the particle
(J- 07,O-13)
ANSWERS
1.(c) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6.(d) 7.(d) 8.(c) 9.(a) 10.(d) 11.(c) 12.(c) 13.(d)
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10.
11.
a) Lead and Tin
Thermopile is used to
a) measure temperature
c) detect thermal radiation
b) Tin and Copper c) Lead and Copper d) Lead and Iron
b) measure current
d) measure pressure
The resistance of the filament of a 110 W, 220 V electric bulb is
(O- 08)
(M-09)
a) 440 b) 220 c) 484 d) 848
12. The magnitude and direction of the magnetic Lorentz force is given by (J- 09)
⃗⃗⃗
a) = ( × ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
b) = q/( × ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
c) = q( × ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
d) = v( × ⃗
13. Unit of Peltier co-efficient is (O- 09)
a) ohm b) mho c) volt d) ampere
14. For a given thermocouple the neutral temperature (J- 10)
a) depends upon the temperature of cold junction
b) depends upon the temperature of hot junction
c) is a constant
d) depends upon the temperature of cold junction and the temperature of hot junction
15. When the number of turns (n) in a galvanometer is doubled, current sensitivity (O- 10,15)
a) remains constant b) decreases twice
c) increases twice d) increases four times
16. An electron is moving with a velocity of 3x106ms-1 perpendicular to a uniform magnetic
field of induction 0.5 T. The force experienced by the electron is (M- 11)
a) 2.4x10-13N b) 13.6x10-27N c) 13.6x10-11N d) zero
17. Fuse wire (O- 11)
a) is an alloy of lead and copper b) has low resistance
c) has high resistance d) has high melting point
18. In a thermocouple the temperature of cold junction is – 300C and the neutral temperature
is 2700C. The inversion of temperature is (O- 11)
a) 5200C b) 5400C c) 5000C d) 5700C
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19. Which of the following produces large joule heating effect? (M- 12)
a) 1A current through 2 resistor for 3 seconds
b) 1A current through 3 resistor for 2 seconds
c) 2A current through 1 resistor for 2 seconds
d) 3A current through 1 resistor for 1 seconds
20 In the experiment to verify Joule’s law when the current passed through the circuit is doubled
keeping resistance (R) and time of passage of current(t) constant,temperature of the liquid (O-12)
a)increase twice b)increase four times
c)increase sixteen times d)decrease four times
21. Which of the following devices has a source of emf inside it? (M-13)
a)Voltmeter b)Ammeter c)Ohmmeter d)Rectifier
22. AB is a rod of lead. The end A is heated, A current I is allowed to flow along AB,Now due
to Thomson effect,in rod AB: (J-13)
a)heat is absorbed b)heat is liberated
c)heat is neither absorbed nor liberated d)heat is first absorbed and then liberated
23. Consider a circular coil of radius 10cm in air medium. If 5A current passes through it,what
would be the magnetic induction at its centre ? (M-14)
a) x 10-5 T b) x 10 5 T c) x 10-15 T d) x 10 - 6 T
24. In Joule’s calorimeter experiment,when a current of 1 ampere is passed through a coil for a
known interval of time ‘t’ , the temperature of water increases from 30° C to 33° C .When a
current of 2A is passed through the same coil placed in the same quantity of water and for the
same time,the temperature of water increases from 30 °C to (M-15)
a) 33° C b) 36° C c) 39° C d) 42° C
25. A proton and an α particle are projected with the same velocity normal to a uniform magnetic
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26.
field.The ratio of the magnetic Lorentz force experienced by the proton and the α particle is
A wire of length 1m is made into a circular loop and it carries a current of 3.14 A.The magnetic
dipole moment of the current loop ( in A m2 ) (M-16)
a) 1 b) 0.5 c) 0.25 d) 0.314
27. In a thermocouple, when the temperature of cold iunction is increased( but less than
neutral temperature) the temperature of inversion is (O-16)
a) Increases b) decreases c) does not change d) 1stincreases and then decreases
ANSWERS
1.(c) 2.(c) 3.(a) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6.(d) 7.(d) 8.(c) 9.(a) 10.(c) 11.(a)
12.(c) 13.(c) 14.(c) 15.(c) 16.(a) 17.(c) 18.(d) 19.(d) 20.(b) 21.(c) 22.(c)
23.(a) 24.(d) 25.(b) 26.(c) 27.(a)
3 MARKS ( 1 X 3 = 3 )
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OTHER IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1. State Joule’s law page no.79
2. What is peltier effect? page no.82
3. How does an electric bulb works? page no.81
4. What do you mean by fuse wire? page no.81
5. What is temperature of inversion? page no.83
6. What is Thomson effect? page no.84
7. What is thermopile? page no.85
8. State Maxwell’s right hand cork screw rule. page no.87
9. State Biot –savart law. page no.88
10. State End rule. page no.95
11. How is galvanometer is converted into voltmeter ? pg no. 108
5 MARKS
1. A rectangular coil of 500 turns and of area 6x 10-4 m2 is suspended inside a radial magnetic
field of induction 10-4 T by a suspension wire of torsional constant 5x 10-10 Nm per degree.
Calculate the current required to produce deflection of 10 . (J-06,O-09,M-13,O-15)
2. A moving coil galvanometer of resistance 20 produces full scale deflection for a current
of 50mA. How will you convert the galvanometer into (i) an ammeter of range 20A and
(ii) a voltmeter of range 120 volt? (M-07, 09, J-13,M-15)
3. A circular coil of radius 20 cm has 100 turns of wire and it carries a current of 5A. Find
the magnetic induction at a point along its axis at a distance of 20 cm from the centre
of the coil. (M-06,O-06,M-09,J-15,M-17)
4. Explain the conversion of a galvanometer into an ammeter. (M-08,J-12,O-13)
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30 cm.If the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic induction is 4 x 10-5 T,find the
deflection produced in the coil (Given = × −
Hm-1 ) (M-14 )
16. A rectangular coil of area 20 cm x 10 cm with 100 turns of wire is suspended in a radial
magnetic field of induction 5 x 10-3 T.If the galvanometer shows an angular deflection of 15°
for a current of 1mA,find the torsional constant of the suspension wire. (J-14)
17. In a tangent galvanometer, a current of 1A produces a deflection of 30. Find the current
required to produce a deflection of 60. (O-14)
18. A stream of deutrons is projected with a velocity of 104 ms-1 in XY – plane. A uniform magnetic
field of induction field of induction 10-3 T acts along the Z – axis. Find the radius of the circular
path of the particle. (Mass of deuteron is 3.32 x 10-27 kg and charge of deuteron is 1.6 x 10-19C)
(M-17)
10 MARKS
1. Discuss the motion of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field.
Define magnetic Lorentz force. (J – 10,M-13,J-14,O-15)
2. Explain the principle, construction, working and limitations of a cyclotron with a neat
diagram. (M - 07, O-10, O -11, J-13,15,M-16)
3. Obtain an expression for the torque experienced by a current loop in a uniform magneticfield
4. Obtain expression for a magnetic induction due at a point to infinitely long straight
conductor carrying current. (J - 06, O - 09, M – 10, O-13,M-15.17)
5. Apply Biot – Savart law, obtain an expression for the magnetic induction at a point due
to infinitely long straight conductor carrying current. (M - 06)
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6. Define ampere’s circuit law. Applying it find the magnetic induction at a point due to a
long solenoid carrying current. (O - 06, J - 09)
7. State Joule’s law. Explain Joule’s calorimeter experiment to verify Joule’s law of heating.
(J - 07, J - 12)
8. Deduce the relation for the magnetic induction, at a point along the axis of a circular coil
carrying current. (O - 07, M – 08, M – 12,O-14)
9. State Tangent law. Explain in detail the principle, construction and theory of a tangent
galvanometer. (J - 08)
10. Deduce expression for the force on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field.
Find the magnitude of the force. (O - 08, M - 09, J - 11, O -12,M-14)
11. Obtain an expression for the force between two long parallel current carrying conductors.
Hence define “ampere ’’. (M – 11,J-16)
1. Electromagnetic induction is not used in (M- 06, 08, 12, J- 07, 08, 09, 12, O- 08, 11,M-14)
a) transformer b) room heater c) AC generator d) choke coil
2
2. A coil of area of cross section 0.5 m with 10 turns is in a plane which is pendendicular to an
uniform magnetic field of 0.2 Wb/m2. The flux through the coil is (June 09)
a) 100 Wb b) 10 Wb c) 1 Wb d) zero
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3.
4.
Lenz’s law is in accordance with the law of
a) conservation of charges
c) conservation of momentum
a) zero b) infinity
(Mar 07, 08, 11, 12, June 12,O-13)
b) conservation of flux
d) conservation of energy
The self-inductance of a straight conductor is (M- 07, 09, J- 10, O- 11, J- 12,M- 13,J-13,M-15)
c) very large d) very small
5. The unit henry can also be written as (June 06, 11, Oct 11,J-14)
-1 -1
a) Vs A b) Wb A c) s d) all
6. An emf of 12 V is induced when the current in the coil changes at the rate of 40 A s-1.The
coefficient of self induction of the coil is (Oct 09, 10, Mar 11)
a) 0.3 H b) 0.003 H c) 30 H d) 4.8 H
7. A DC of 5 A produces the same heating effect as an AC of (Oct 08, Mar 09,J-13)
a) 50 A rms current b) 5 A peak current
c) 5 A rms current d) none of these
8. Transformer works on (Mar 07, 11, Oct 07, June 10,M-14,O-14)
a) AC only b) DC only
c) both AC and DC d) AC more effectively than DC
9. The part of the AC generator that passes the current from the coil to the external circuit is
a) field magnet b) split rings c)slip rings d)brushes (M-10,Oct-12,13,J-14)
10. In an AC circuit the applied emf e = E0 sin (t + /2) leads the current I = I0 sin (t – /2) by
(Oct 06)
a) / 2 b) / 4 c) d) 0
11. Which of the following cannot be stepped up in a transformer? (J- 08, Oct 09,J-14)
a) input current b) input voltage c) input power d) all
12. The power loss is less in transmission lines when (Oct 06,Mar 13)
a) voltage is less but current is more b) both voltage and current are more
c) voltage is more but current is less d) both voltage and current are less
13. Which of the following devices does not allow d.c. to pass through?
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ANSWERS
1.(b) 2.(c) 3.(d) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6.(a) 7.(c) 8.(a) 9.(d) 10.(c) 11.(c) 12.(c) 13.(b) 14.(a)
2. The angle between the area vector ⃗⃗⃗ and the plane of the coil of magnetic induction B is
(M- 06, J- 09)
a) b) 2 c) d) zero
2
3. If the flux associated with a coil varies at the rate of 1 wb / minute then the induced emf is (M-06)
a) 1 V b) 1/60V c) 60V d) 0.60V
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4.
5.
An emf of 12V is induced when the current in the coil changes from 2A to 6A is 0.5s. The
coefficient of self-induction of the coil is
a) 1.5H b) 6H
In an a.c. circuit with an inductor
a) voltage lags current by /2
c) 0.3H d) 30H
(J- 06)
6. In LCR series a.c. circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is 30. The reactance
of the circuit is 17.32. The value of resistance is (J- 06, M- 07,O-13)
a) 30 b) 10 c) 17.32 d) 1.732
7. The generator rule is (O- 06, J- 07)
a) Fleming’s left hand rule b) Fleming’s right hand rule
c) Maxwell’s right hand cork screw rule d) right hand palm rule
8. In LCR circuit, when XL = Xc, the current is (M- 07,O-15)
a) 0 b) is in phase with the voltage c) leads the voltage d) lags the voltage
9. In a series LCR circuit, at resonance (O- 10)
a) XL = Xc b) XL > Xc c) XL < Xc d) = 1/LC
10. In an AC circuit with capacitor only, if the frequency of the signal is zero, then the
capacitive reactance is (J- 07)
a) infinity b) zero c) finite maximum d) finite minimum
11. In step-up transformer the output voltage is 11kV and the input voltage is 220V. The ratio
of number of turns of secondary to primary is (J- 07)
a) 20 : 1 b) 22 : 1 c) 50 : 1 d) 1 : 50
12. The reactance offered by 300 mH inductor to an AC supply of frequency 50Hz is (O- 07)
a) 1046 b) 94.2 c) 9420 d) 104.6
13. The r.m.s value of an a.c. voltage with a peak value of 311V is (O- 07,15)
a) 110 V b) 220V c) 50V d) 70.7V
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22. In LCR series circuit, at resonance
a) impedance (Z) is maximum
c) impedance (Z) is equal to R
b) current is minimum
d)
I
LC
(O- 09)
23. A coil of area of cross section 0.5 m2 with 10 turns is in a plane which is parallel to an uniform
magnetic field of 0.2 Wb/m2. The flux through the coil is (M- 10)
a) 100 Wb b) 10 Wb c) 1 Wb d) zero
24. The part of the AC generator that passes the current from the coil to the external circuit is
a) field magnet b) split rings c) slip rings d) brushes (M-10)
25. The r.m.s. value of the alternating current (AC) flowing through a resistor is 5 A. Its peak value is
a) 3.536 A b) 70.7 A c) 7.07 A d)7A (M- 10)
26. In an A.C. circuit average power consumed is 200 W and the apparent power is 300 W.
The power factor is (J-10)
a) 1.5 b) 0.66 c) 0.33 d) 1
27. The effective value of alternating current is (J-10)
I I
a) 0 b) 0 c) I 0 2 d) 2 I 0
2 2
28. A rectangular coil is uniformly rotated in a uniform magnetic field such that the axis of rotation
is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field. When the plane of the coil is
perpendicular to the magnetic field (O-10)
a) (i) magnetic flux is zero, (ii) induced e.m.f is zero
b) (i) magnetic flux is maximum, (ii) induced e.m.f. is maximum
c) (i) magnetic flux is maximum, (ii) induced e.m.f. is zero
d) (i) magnetic flux is zero, (ii) induced e.m.f. is maximum.
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29. In an a.c. circuit, the voltage leads the current by a phase of , then the circuit has (M-11)
2
a) only an inductor (L) b) only a capacitor (C)
c) only a resistor ( R) d) L,C and R is series
30. The resonant frequency of RLC circuit is . The inductance is doubled. The capacitance is
also doubled. Now the resonant frequency of the circuit is (J- 11)
a) 2 b) c) d)
2 4 2
31. When the frequency of an a.c. circuit increases, the capacitive reactance offered by capacitor
connected in the circuit (J- 11)
a) increases b) decreases c) remains the same d) becomes zero
32. The coefficient of self –induction of a solenoid is independent of (O-12)
a)the number of turns in coil b)the area of cross-section of the coil
c)the length of the coil d)the current passing through the coil
33. The direction of force on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is given by
a)Fleming’s Left Hand Rule b)Fleming’s Right Hand Rule (M- 13)
c)End Rule d)Right Hand Palm Rule
34. In a series RLC a.c.circuit,the instantaneous values of current and emf are i=I0 sin (𝜔 − ) and
e = E0 sin𝜔 respectively.The phase difference between current and voltage is: (J-13)
a)zero b)180° c)60° d)45°
35. An emf of 25V is induced when the current in the coil changes at the rate of 100A s-1.The
coefficient of self induction of the coil is
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( Mar 14)
a) 0.3 H b) 0.25 H c) 2.5H d) 0.25 H
36. In LCR series a.c. circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is 60. The reactance
of the circuit is 17.32. The value of resistance is (O-14)
a) 30 b) 17.32 c)10 d) 1.732
37. In an AC circuit,the instantaneous value of emf and current are respectively (M-15)
e = 200 sin (𝜔 − ) ; I = 10 (𝜔 + ) The phase relation between current and voltage is
a) voltage lags behind current by a phase angle of
b) current leads voltage by a phase angle of
c) current leads voltage by a phase angle of
d) voltage leads current by a phase angle of
38. If the frequency of AC circuit connected with an inductor of inductance 0.03 H only is
50Hz,then inductive reactance is (J-15)
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24 MJK
ANSWERS
1.(b) 2.(c) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6.(a) 7.(b) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(a) 11.(c) 12.(b)
13.(b) 14.(a) 15.(b) 16.(a) 17.(b) 18.(c) 19.(d) 20.(c) 21.(d) 22.(c) 23.(d) 24.(d)
25.(c) 26.(b) 27.(b) 28.(c) 29.(a) 30.(b) 31.(b) 32.(d) 33.(a) 34.(c) 35.(b) 36.(c)
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37.(c) 38.(b) 39.(c) 40.(c) 41.(a) 42.(b) 43.(a) 44.(b) 45.(c)
3 MARKS (2 X 3 =6 )
1. Calculate the mutual inductance between two coils when a current of 4A changing to
8A in 0.5 s in one coil, induces an e.m.f. of 50 mV in the other coil pg 152(M-06,J-15)
2. Mention the methods of producing induced e.m.f. pg no.131 (M-06,O-10,M-11,M-12,16,J-16)
3. State Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction. pg no.124 (J-06,O-13,14)
4. An aircraft having a wing span of 20.48 m flies due north at a speed of 40 ms-1. Component
of earth’s magnetic field at the place is 2x 10-5 T; calculate the e.m.f. induced between
the ends of the wings. pg no151 (J-06,M-08,O-10,M-11,M-16)
5. Define quality factor. pg no. 148 (O-06,J-11,12,O-12,J-13,M-15)
6. The wings of an aeroplane are 10 m apart. The plane is moving horizontally towards
the north at a place where the vertical component of earth’s magntic field is 3x10-5 T.
Calculate the induced e.m.f. set up between the tips of the wings if the velocity of the
aeroplane is 720 km/hr. (O-06)
7. State Fleming’s right hand rule. pg no. 125 (M-07,O-09,M-10,J-11,M-17)
2
8. A coil of area of cross-section 0.5m with 10 turns is in a plane perpendicular to a uniform
magnetic field of 0.2 Wb/m2. Calculate the flux though the coil. (M-07)
9. Define r.m.s. value of alternating current. pg no. 141 (J-07,O-09,M-13,J-14)
10. Why can a d.c. ammeter not read a.c.? (O-07)
11. What is electromagnetic induction? pg no. 122 (J-07,O-07,M-08,O-16)
12. Give the differences between AF choke and RF choke. pg no. 151 (J-08,M-09)
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13. A capacitor of capacitance 2F is in a.c. circuit of frequency 1000 Hz. If the r.m.s value
of the applied e.m.f is 10 V , find the effective current flowing in the circuit.
pg 153 (J-08,09, O-13)
14. State Lenz’s law in electromagnetic induction. pg no. 124 (O-08,J-10,M-14)
15. An ideal transformer has transformation ratio 1:20. If the input power and primary voltage
are 600 mW and 6V respectively, find the primary and secondary currents. (O-08,M-09)
16. Define coefficient of self induction. pg no. 126(J-09,O-15)
17. Calculate the capacitive reactance of a capacitor of capacitance 2F in an A.C. circuit of
frequency 1000HZ. (J-09,O-15)
18. An e.m.f. of 5V is induced when the current in the coil changes at the rate of 100 As-1.
Find the coefficient of self-induction of the coil. (M-10)
19. Define magnetic flux.Give its unit. pg no.122
20. Write the equation of a 25 cycle current sine wave having rms value of 30 A (O-11,M-12,J-13)
21. What is capacitive reactance? pg no.145 (O-11)
22. Define unit of self inductance.or One henry pg no.138 (J-12)
23. Define efficiency of transformer. pg no.138 (O-12,J-15,16)
24. A solenoid of length 1m and 0.05 m diameter has 500 turns.If a current of 2A passes through
the coil,calculate the coefficient of self induction of the coil. pg no151 (M-13)
25. Magnetic field through a coil having 200 turns and cross sectional area 0.04 m2 changes from
0.1wbm-2 to 0.04 wbm-2 in 0.02 sec .Find the induced emf. pg no151 (M -14 )
26. 11K W power is transmitted at 22000 V through a wire of resistance 2Ω .Calculate power loss.
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27.
(J-14)
Two rails of a railway track insulated from each other and the ground are connected to a milli
voltmeter. The train runs at a speed of 180 Km/hr. Vertical component of earth’s magnetic field
is 0.2 x 10-4 Wb/m2 and the rails are separated by 1m. Find the reading of the voltmeter. (O-14)
28. An a.c generator consists of a coil 10,000 turns and of area 100 cm2. The coil rotates at an
angular speed of 140 rpm in a uniform magnetic field 3.6 x 10-2 T.
Find the maximum value of the emf induced. (M-15,17)
29. Calculate the power loss in the form of heat when a power of 11,000 W is transrnitted
at 220 V (O-16)
OTHER IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1. Define self-induction. Give its unit page no.125
2. Define coefficient of mutual induction. page no.128
3. What is a poly phase AC generator? page no. 135
4. What is inductive reactance? page no.144
5. Mention the difference between a step up and step down transformer.
6. What is resonant frequency in LCR circuit. page no.148
7. Define power factor. page no.150
8. Capacitor blocks d.c but allows a.c. Explain. Pg 145,146
9. What happens to the value of current in RLC series circuit, if frequency of the source
is increased? page no 147
10. Differentiate between self-inductance and mutual inductance.
11. Define mutual induction. page no128
12. What are eddy currents? page no136
13. Define alternating current and give its expression pg 141(I=IO sin𝝎t )
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5 MARKS
1. State Faraday’s laws and lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction. (J-11)
2. What are the reasons for various energy losses in a transformer? Explain how they can be
minimized. (J-06,O-06,09,10,J-10,M-11,13,O-14,M-15)
3. Explain how an e.m.f. can be induced by changing the area enclosed by the coil in a
uniform magnetic field. (J-07,O-07,08,M-09,O-12,J-13,15,O-15)
4. Explain the mutual induction between two long solenoids. Obtain an expression for the
mutual inductance of two long solenoids. (J-08,M-12,O-16)
5. Give the applications of eddy currents.or Explain any two applications of eddy current.
(M-07,10,J-14)
2
6. An a.c. generator consists of a coil of 10,000 turns and of area 100 cm . The coil rotates
at an angular speed of 140 r.p.m. in a uniform magnetic field of 3.6 x 10-2 T. Find the
maximum value of the e.m.f. induced. (J-09)
7. Obtain the phase relation between current and voltage in an a.c. circuit with an inductor
only(graph not necessary) (M-06,08)
8. Obtain an expression for the current flowing in a circuit containing resistance only
to which alternating emf is applied.Find the phase relationship between voltage
and current. (O-11,J-12,M-16)
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9.
10.
11.
Obtain expression for self inductance of a long solenoid.
Explain the construction and working of a choke coil.
Obtain an expression for Energy associated with an inductor.
(M-14,J-16,M-17)
(J-07,M-09,O-13)
10MARKS
1. Principle, construction, theory of working of transformer of a transformer.
Define its efficiency. Mention the energy losses. (M - 06, M – 12,O-13)
2. Describe principle, construction, and working of a single phase Alternating Current generator.
(M - 07, M - 08, J - 07, O - 07 O - 10, J - 11, M -11, J – 12, J-13,M-14,16)
3. Discuss with theory the method of inducing e.m.f in a coil by changing its orientation with
respect to the direction of the magnetic field. (J - 8, O- 9, J -10, O -11, M – 11,M-13,O-14,M-15)
4. Obtain the phase relation between voltage and current in an A.C circuit containing a pure
inductance. Draw the necessary graph. (O – 08,16)
5. What are eddy current? Explain their applications. How are they minimized? (M - 09)
6. In an ac circuit containing a capacitor, the instantaneous emf is e=Eosinωt. Obtain the
expression for instantaneous current. Explain the phase relation between emf and current by
graph. (O - 06)
7. Explain the mutual induction between two long solenoids. Obtain an expression for the
mutual inductance.
8. A source of alternating emf is connected to a series combination of a resistor R,
Inductor L, Capacitor C. Calculate the current, resultant voltage and the phase angle
between the current and the voltage. (J - 06, J – 09, O -12, J-14,15,O-15,J-16,M-17)
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7. A beam of monochromatic light enters from vacuum into a medium of refractive index . The
ratio of the wavelengths of the incident and refracted waves is
a) : 1 b) 1 : c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 2
8. If the wavelength of the light is reduced to one fourth, then the amount of scattering is
(June 09, Mar 10)
a) increased by 16 times b) decreased by 16 times
c) increased by 256 times d) decreased by 256 times
9. In Newton’s ring experiment the radii of the mth and (m + 4)th dark rings are respectively
5 mm and 7 mm. What is the value of m? (Oct 09,J-14)
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 10
10. The path difference between two monochromatic light waves of wavelength 4000 Å is
2 x 10-7m. The phase difference between them is (Mar 12,J-13)
a) b) 2 c) 3 /2 d) /2
11. In Young’s experiment the third bright band for wavelength of light 6000Å coincides with
the fourth bright band for another source in the same arrangement. The wavelength of the
another source is (Oct 10)
a) 4500 Å b) 6000 Å c) 5000 Å d) 4000 Å
12. A light of wavelength 6000 Å is incident normally on a grating 0.005 m wide with 2500
lines. Then the maximum order is (Mar 08,Mar 13,O-13)
a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 4
13. A diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of red light. What happens if the red light is
replaced by blue light? (June 07, 08, Mar 11, 12 Oct 11)
a) bands disappear b) no change
c) diffraction pattern becomes narrower and crowded together
d) diffraction pattern becomes broader and farther apart
14. The refractive index of the medium, for the polarising angle 60 is (O- 08, M-10,J-13)
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ANSWERS
1(b) 2(a) 3(d) 4(d) 5(a) 6(a) 7(a) 8(c) 9(d) 10(a) 11(a) 12(a) 13(c) 14(a)
1. The existence of electromagnetic waves was confirmed experimentally by (Mar 06, Oct 11)
a) Hertz b) Maxwell c) Huygens d) Planck
2. When a ray of light is incident on a glass surface at polarising angle of 57.5o. The angle between
the incident ray and the reflected ray is (Mar 06, 08, June 06, 11)
0 0 0
a) 57.5 b) 32.5 c) 115 d) 900
3. Unpolarised light passes through a tourmaline crystal. The emergent light is analysed by an
analyzer. When the analyzer is rotated through 900, the intensity of light
a) remains uniformly bright b) remains uniformly dark (Mar 06)
c) varies between maximum and minimum d) varies between maximum and zero
4. Velocity of the electromagnetic wave through vacuum is (June 06)
1 0 0
a) 0 0 b) c) d)
0 0 0 0
5. In a plane diffraction grating, the unit of grating element is (June 06,J-13,O-16)
-1
a) no unit b) metre c) metre d) degree
6. Which one of the following is not an electromagnetic wave? (Oct 06)
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7.
a) x-rays b) -rays c) u-V rays d) -rays
If C is the velocity of light in vacuum, the velocity of light in a medium with refractive index
is
a) C b) C/ c) /C d) 1/C
(Oct 06)
8. A ray of light passes from a denser medium into a rarer medium. For an angle of incidence of
45, the refracted ray grazes the surface of separation of the two media. The refractive index of
the denser medium is (Oct 06)
a) 3/2 b) 1 / 2 c) 2 d) 2
9. Of the following, which one is a uniaxial crystal? (Oct 06)
a) Mica b) Aragonite c) Topaz d) Quartz
10. The radiations used in physiotherapy are (Mar 07)
a) ultraviolet b) infrared c) radiowaves d) microwaves
11. In Newton’s rings experiment, light of wavelength 5890 Å is used. The order of dark ring
produced where the thickness of air film is 0.589 µm is (Mar 07)
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
12. Of the following, optically active material is (Mar 07)
a) sodium chloride b) calcium chloride c) sodium d) chlorine
13. Electric filament lamp gives rise to (June 07)
a) line spectrum b) continuous spectrum
c) continuous absorption spectrum d) line absorption spectrum
14. In Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the slit is halved, and the distance
between the slits and the screen is double. Then the fringe width is (J- 07)
a) unchanged b) halved c) doubled d) quardrupled
15. The phenomenon of light used in the formation of Newton’s ring is (O- 07)
a) diffraction b) interference c) refraction d) polarization
16. An example for uniaxial crystal is (O- 07,14)
a) tourmaline b) mica c) topaz d) selenite
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17. In Raman effect, the spectral line with lower frequency than the incident frequency is (O-07)
a) Fraunhofer line b) Rayleigh line c) Stokes line d) Anti-stokes line
18. The optical rotation does not depend on (O- 07)
a) concentration of the solution b) frequency of the light used
c) the temperature of the solution d) intensity of the light used
19. Which of the following gives rise to continuous emission spectrum? (M- 08)
a) Electric filament lamp b) Sodium vapour lamp
c) Gases in the discharge tube d) Calcium salt in Bunsen flame
20. The transverse nature of light waves is demonstrated only by the phenomenon of (M-08, J-10)
a) Interference b) Diffraction c) Polarisation d) Reflection
8 -1
21. If the velocity of light in a medium is 2.25 x 10 ms , then the refractive index of the medium
will be (J-08)
a) 1.5 b) 0.5 c) 1.33 d) 1.73
22. The polarising angle for water is 534. If the light is incident at this angle on the surface of
water, the angle of refraction in water (J- 08,M- 13)
a) 534 b) 2630 c) 304 d) 3656
23. In Raman effect, if the scattered photon gains energy, it gives rise to (O-08,O-13)
a) Stoke’s line b) Anti-stoke’s line
c) Stoke’s and anti-Stoke’s lines d) Rayleigh line
24. In case of Fraunhofer diffraction, the wavefront undergoing diffraction is (O- 08)
a) spherical wavefront b) cylindrical wavefront
c) elliptical wavefront d) plane wavefront
25. A ray of light is incident on a glass surface such that the reflected ray is completely plane
polarized. The angle between the reflected ray and the refracted ray is (M- 09)
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26.
a) a) 57.50 b) 32.50 c) 900
Soap bubbles exhibit brilliant colours in sunlight due to
a) scattering of light
c) polarization of light
b) diffraction of light
d) interference of light
d) 1150
(M- 09)
27. The radii of Newton’s dark rings are in the ratio (M- 09)
a) 1 : 2 : 3 b) 1 : 2 : 3 :..... c) 1 : 3 : 5 :..... d) 1 : 4 : 9 : . . .
28. In the grating formula sin = Nm , the unit N is (J- 09, 10)
a) metre b) meter-1 c) no unit d) (meter)2
29. The ratio of the radii of the 4th and 9th dark rings in Newton’s rings experiment is (J- 09)
a) 4 : 9 b) 2 : 3 c) 16 : 81 d) 2 : 3.
30. Which of the following is not an optically active material? (O- 09)
a) Quartz b) Sugar crystals c) Turpentine oil d) Calcium chloride
31. In Raman effect, the incident photon makes collision with an excited molecule of
the substance. The scattered photon gives rise to (M-10)
a) Stokes’ line b) anti-Stokes line c) Rayleigh line d) Zeeman line
32. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. The velocity of light in glass is (M-10)
a) 2x108ms-1 b) 4.5x108ms-1 c) 3x108ms-1 d) 1.33x108ms-1
33. The dark lines found in the solar spectrum are called (O- 10)
a) Raman line b) Fraunhofer lines c) Stokes lines d) Anti-Stokes lines
34. A ray of light traveling in a rarer medium and reflected at the surface of denser
medium automatically undergoes a (Mar 11)
a) phase change of b) phase change of 2
2
c) phase difference of d) path difference of
2
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35. Waves from two coherent sources interfere with each other. At a point where the trough
of one wave superposes with the trough of the other wave, the intensity of light is (M- 11)
a) maximum b) minimum c) zero d) no change
36. The nature of the wavefront corresponding to extraordinary ray inside a calcite crystal is
a) plane b) spherical c) elliptical d) cylindrical (J- 11)
37. A ray of light is incident on a plane glass surface at an angle of 57 030’. The angle between the
reflected ray and the refracted ray is (J- 11)
a) 32030’ b) 900 c) 1150 d) 57030’
38. In a pile of plates arrangement, the angle between the incident light and the reflected plane
polarized light is (O- 11,J-14)
0 0 0 0
a) 32.5 b) 57.5 c) 90 d) 115
39. An example for uniaxial crystal is (Oct 11)
a) Selenite b) Mica c) Topaz d) Calcite
40. Angle between the electric component and magnetic component of electromagnetic wave is
a) 0 b) c) d) (M-12)
4 2
41. If i is the angle of incidence, the angle between the incident wave front and the normal to the
reflecting surface is (M- 12)
a) i b) 900 – i c) 900 + 1 d) i - 900
42. In a Nicol Prism, the ordinary ray is prevented from coming out of canada balsam by the
phenomenon of (J-12)
a) reflection b) polarization c) diffraction d) total internal reflection
43. Refractive index of a material for a polarising angle of 550 is (J-12)
a) 1.4281 b) 1.7321 c) 1.4141 d) 1.5051
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44.
45.
In a plane transmission grating the width of a ruling is 12000Å and the width of a slit is
8000 Å.The grating element is
a)20 b)2 c)1
Which of the following is used to study crystal structure?
d)10
(O- 12,M-15)
(Oct 12)
a)Microwave b)Infrared rays c)Ultra violet rays d)X-rays
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53. A wave of length ‘ ′ corresponds to a phase of 2π .Calculate the phase when a distance of ‘ ’ corresponds to a
Phase of (O-15)
π λ π π
a) = x b) = x c) = x d) = x
54. A ray of light travelling in air is incident on a denser surface at an angle of 60º .If the velocity of light in the
denser medium is 2 x 108 ms-1 the angle of refraction inside the denser medium is: (M-16)
-1 -1 -1
a) 30º b)sin (0.75) c) sin ( ) d) sin (0.6666)
√
55. A ray of light is incident normally on a glass surface of refractive index 1.5.The angle of refraction is
a) 30º b)sin-1 (0.6666) c) sin-1 ( ) d) sin-1 (0.75) (J-16)
√
56. In Newton ‘s ring experiment,when a wavelength of light and a pano convex lens of radius
of curvature 50 cm is used,the radius of the 10th dark ring is √ mm.Then with the same
wavelength,a plano convex lens of radius of curvature 2m is used,the radius of the 10th dark ring is
a)3mm b) 2√ mm c) 3 √ mm d) 4√ mm (J-16)
57. Which one of the following is not an electronagnetic wave ? (O-16)
a) X – rays b) rays c) Ultra Violet rays (UV) d) - rays
58. In Raman effect, wavelength of incident light is 5890Å. The wavelength of stokes lines and
antistokes lines are respectively : (O-16)
a) 5885Å and 5880Å b) 5895Å and 5990Å
c) 5885Å and 5895Å d) 5895Å and 5885Å
59. In Raman effect, wavelength of incident light is 5890Å. The wavelength of stokes lines and
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60.
antistokes lines are respectively : (M - 17)
a) 5880Å and 5900Å
c) 5900Å and 5910Å
b) 5900Å and 5880Å
d) 5870Å and 5880Å
Light from a source is analysed by an analyser.When the analyser is rotated,the intensity of the
emergent light (M - 17)
a) Does not vary b) Remains uniformly dark
c) Varies between maximum and zero d) Varies between maximum and minimum
ANSWERS
1.(a) 2.(c) 3.(d) 4.(b) 5.(b) 6.(d) 7.(b) 8.(c) 9.(d) 10.(b) 11.(a) 12.(a)
13.(b) 14.(d) 15.(b) 16.(a) 17.(c) 18.(d) 19.(a) 20.(c) 21.(c) 22.(d) 23.(b) 24.(d)
25.(c) 26.(d) 27.(b) 28.(b) 29.(b) 30.(d) 31.(b) 32.(a) 33.(b) 34.(d) 35.(a) 36.(c)
37.(b) 38.(d) 39.(d) 40.(c) 41.(b) 42.(d) 43.(a) 44.(b) 45.(d) 46.(d) 47.(a) 48.(a)
49.(d) 50(d) 51.(a) 52.(c) 53.(a) 54.(c) 55.(b) 56.(b) 57.(d) 58.(c) 58.(d) 59.(b)
60.(a)
3MARKS (2 X 3 =6)
1. What are emission and absorption spectra? pg no.167,168 (M-06,O-16)
2. A 300 m long tube containing 60 c.c. of sugar solution produces a rotation of 9 when
placed in a polarimeter. It the specific rotation is 60, calculate the quantity of sugar
contained in the solution. pg no. 205 (M-06,09,J-15,M-17)
3. Why does the sky appear blue in colour? pg no.173 (J-06,O-13,J-14)
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4. In Young’s experiment, the width of the fringe obtained with light of wavelength
6000 Å is 2mm. calculate the fringe width if the entire apparatus is immersed in a
liquid of refractive index 1.33. pg no 203(J-06,M-11,O-14)
5. What is band emission spectrum?Give an example. pg no. 168(O-06)
6. What is Tyndall scattering? pgno.173 (M-07,J-09,10,O-10,12,J-13)
7. In Newton’s rings experiment the diameter of certain order of dark ring is measured to be
double that of second ring. What is the order of the ring? pg no 204 (M-07,J-07,O-11)
8. Define optic axis of a crystal. pg no. 199(J-07,10)
9. Distinguish between interference and diffraction fringes. pg no. 194(O-07,10,M-16)
10. A light of wavelength 5890Å falls normally on a thin air film. 6 dark fringes are seen
between two points. Calculate the thickness of the air film. pg no.209 (O-07)
11. Two slits 0.3 mm apart are illuminated by light of wavelength 4500Å. The screen is placed
at 1m distance from the slits. Find the separation between the second bright fringe
on both sides of the central maximum. page no. 204(M-08)
12. Define specific rotation. Pg no.202 (M-08,10,O-13,J-14)
13. On what factors does the amount of optical rotation depend? pg no.202 (J-08,11,M-15)
14. A light of wavelength 6000Å falls normally on a thin air film. 6 dark fringes are seen between
two points. Calculate the thickness of the air film. pg no. 209(O-06,J-08,09,J-11)
15. Write any three uses of infrared radiations. pg no.167 (O-08,M-17)
16. Write the conditions for total internal reflection to take place. pg no.179 (O-08,M-14)
17. Why is the centre of the Newton’s ring dark?
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pg no.187 (M-09,J-13,O-16)
18. Distinguish between Fresnel and Fraunhofer diffractions. pg no. 190,191 (M-10,J-12)
19. An LC resonant circuit contains a capacitor 400pF and an inductor 100µH .It is set into
oscillations coupled to an antenna.Calculate the wavelength of the radiated electromagnetic
wave. pg no. 209(M-13)
20. What are Franhofer lines. pg no. 169 (M-13)
21. State Huygen’s principle pg no.176 (0-9,M-12,O-15)
22. A plano – convex lens of radius 3 m is placed on an optically flat glass plate and is illuminated
by monochromatic light. The radius of the 8th dark ring is 3.6 mm. Calculate the wavelength of
light used. pg no.204 (M-15)
23. Mention any 3 characteristics of electromagnetic waves. pg no. 163 (J-15)
24. What are uniaxial and bi-axial crystals ? Give examples . pg no. 199 (O-15)
25. Give any three uses of UV rays? page no.167 ( M-14,J-16)
26. Give the conditions of sustained interference? page no.182 (O-14)
27. Give 3 uses of polaroids. page no.20 (M-16)
28. The refractive index of the medium is 3 . Calculate the angle of refraction if the unpolarised
light is incident on it at the polarizing angle of the medium. page no.209 (J-16)
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5. A soap film of refractive index 1.33, is illuminated by white light incident at an angle 30
The reflected light is examined by a spectroscope in which dark band corresponding to the
wavelength 6000Å is found. Calculate the smallest thickness of the film.
14
(O-07,08,13)
(or) In Young’s experiment a light of frequency 6 x10 Hz is used. Distance between
the centres of adjacent fringes is 0.75 mm .Calculate the distance between the slits, if the screen
is 1.5 m away. (O-14,J-15)
6. A monochromatic light of wavelength 5890 Å is incident on a water surface of refractive
index 1.33. Find the velocity, frequency and wavelength of light in water. (O-07,M-11)
7. In a Newton’s rings experiment the diameter of the 20th dark ring was found to be 5.82mm
and that of the 10th ring 3.36mm. If the radius of the plano-convex lens is 1m, calculate
the wavelength of light used. (M-10,14,O-15)
8. Distinguish between interference and diffraction fringes. (O-10)
th
9. Obtain the expressions for the radius of the n dark ring in Newton’s rings experiment.
(J-11.M-12)
10. A plan convex lens of radius 3 m is placed on an optically flat glass plate and is
illuminated by monochromatic light. The radius of the 8 th dark ring is 3.6 mm.
Calculate the wavelength of light used. (M-11)
-4
11. A soap film of refaction 4/3 and thickness 1.5 x 10 cm is illuminated by light at an
angle 60° The reflected light is examined by a spectroscope in which dark band
corresponds to a wave length of 5000Å.Calculate the order of the dark band.
12. A plane transmission grating has 5000 lines/cm.Calculate the angular separation in second
order spectrum of red line 7070Å and blue line 5000Å (J-13)
or
A 300mm long tube containing 60cc of sugar solution produces a rotation of 9° when
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34 MJK
placed in a Polarimeter.If the specific rotation is 60° ,calculate the quantity of sugar
contained in the solution
13. In Newton’s rings experiment the diameter of certain order of dark ring is measured to be
double that of second ring. What is the order of the ring? pg no 204 (J-14)
14. Mention the characteristics of electromagnetic waves.
15. Give the uses of EM spectrum.
16. Give an account of corpuscular theory and wave theory.
17. Describe Young’s double slit experiment.
18. State and explain Huygen’s principle.
19. Give the uses of polaroids. (J-16)
20. Describe Hertz experiment
21. In young’s double slit experiment two coherent sources of intensity ratio of 64: 1, produce
interference fringes. Calculate the ratio of maximum and minimum intensities. (O-14,M-16)
22. In Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity ratio of two coherent sources are 81 : 1.
Calculate the maximum and minimum intensities. (O-16 )
10 MARKS
1. Explain Raman scattering of light with the help of energy level diagram.
(M - 07, O – 07, M - 08, J – 11, M-13,O-14,15,M-16,J-16)
2. On the basis of wave theory, explain total internal reflection. Write the conditions for the
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3.
total internal reflection to take place. ( M - 06, J – 06, O-13,16)
4. What is emission and absorption spectra. Explain the different types of emission and
absorption Spectra with examples. (J - 09, M – 10, M - 12, J - 12, O -12, J-13,M-15)
5. State Huygens’s principle on the basis of wave theory. Prove the laws of reflection.(O- 08)
6. Explain theory of interference in thin transparent film due to reflected light and obtain the
condition for the intensity to be maximum and minimum. (J - 08, O - 09)
7. What are called Newton’s rings? Explain the experiment and theory of formation of the
Newton’s ring.
8. Discuss the theory of plane transmission grating.
9. State Huygen’s principle.On the basis of wave theory prove the laws of reflection. (J-15)
6. ATOMIC PHYSICS
1. The cathode rays are (Mar 11,14)
a) a stream of electrons b) a stream of positive ions
c) a stream of uncharged particles d) the same as canal rays
2. A narrow electron beam passes undeviated through an electric field E = 3 x 104 V/m and an
overlapping magnetic field B = 2 x 10-3 Wb m2. The electron motion, electric field and magnetic
field are mutually perpendicular. The speed of the electron is (Oct 12)
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a) 60 ms-1 b) 10.3 x 107 ms-1 c) 1.5 x 107 ms-1 d) 0.67 x 10-7 ms-1
3. According to Bohr’s postulates, which of the following quantities take discrete values?
(Mar 07,Jun 07,Oct 07,08,09,Jun 12)
a) kinetic energy b) potential energy c) angular momentum d) momentum
4. The ratio of the radii of the first three Bohr orbit is (Jun 07,Mar 08,Oct 11)
a) 1 : 1/2 : 1/3 b) 1 : 2 : 3 c) 1 : 4 : 9 d) 1 : 8 : 27
5. The first excitation potential energy or the minimum energy required to excite the atom from
ground state of hydrogen atom is, (Mar 08,Oct 10,12,13,M-14)
a) 13.6 eV b) 10.2 eV c) 3.4 eV d) 1.89 eV
6. According to Rutherford atom model, the spectral lines emitted by an atom is (Oct 11,Mar 13)
a) line spectrum b) continious spectrum
c) continuous absorption spectrum d) band spectrum
7. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom correspond to increasing values of energy (i.e.,)
EA < EB < Ee. If A1, A2, A3 are the wavelengths of radiations corresponding to the transitions
C to B, B to A and C to A respectively, which of the following statements is incorrect.
12
a) 3 1 2 b) 3 c) 1 2 3 0 d) 32 12 22
1 2
8. The elliptical orbits of electron in the atom were proposed by (Mar 13,O-14)
a) J.J. Thomson b) Bohr c) Sommerfeld d) de Broglie.
9. X-rays is (Mar 07,Mar 13,J-14)
a) phenomenon of conversion of kinetic energy into radiation.
b) conservation of momentum
c) conversion of energy into mass. d) principle of conservation of charge
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10.
11.
In an X-ray tube, the intensity of the emitted X – ray beam is increased by
a) Increasing the filament current
c) Increasing the target potential
b) decreasing the filament current
d) decreasing the target potential
The energy of a photon of characteristic X – ray from a coolidge tube comes from
(J-06,J-13)
a) the kinetic energy of the free electrons of the target b)the kinetic energy of ions of the target
c) the kinetic energy of the striking electron d)an atomic transition in the target
12. A Coolidge tube operates at 24800 V.The maximum frequency of X-radiation emitted
from Coolidge tube is (O-14)
18 18 8 8
a)6 x 10 Hz b) 3 x 10 Hz c) 6 x 10 Hz d) 3x 10 Hz
13. In hydrogen atom, which of the following transition produces spectral line of maximum wavelength?
a) 2 1 b) 4 1 c) 6 5 d) 5 2 (Oct 06)
14. In hydrogen atom, which of the following transition produces spectral line of maximum frequency?
a) 2 1 b) 6 2 c) 4 3 d) 5 2
15. After pumping process in laser, (O-13,14)
a)the number of atoms in the ground state is greater than the number of atom s in the excited state
b)the number of atoms in the excited state is greater than the number of atoms in the ground state.
c) the number of atoms in the ground state is equal to the number of atoms in the excited state.
d)No atoms are available in the excited state.
16. The chromium ions doped in the ruby rod (M-06,J-06,08,M-09,10,J-10,M-12,J-13,M-14)
a)absorbs red light b) absorbs green light c) absorbs blue light d)emit green light
ANSWERS
1(a) 2(c) 3(c) 4(c) 5(b) 6(b) 7(b) 8(c) 9(a) 10(a) 11(d) 12(a) 13(c) 14(a) 15(b) 16(b)
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1. The wavelength of D1 and D2 lines emitted by sodium vapour lamp is (Mar 06)
a) 589.6 nm, 589 nm b) 589 nm, 589.6 nm c) 589.3 nm, 589 nm d) 589 nm, 589.3 nm
2. If the minimum wavelength of X-rays produced in a Coolidge tube is 0.62 Å, the
operating potential is (Mar 06)
a) 20 kV b) 0.2kV c) 2 kV d) 10 kV
3. Wave number is defined as the number of waves (Mar 06)
a) produced in one second b) in a distance of one meter
c) in a distance of 3 x 108 meter d) in a distance of meter
4. The energy of the electron in the first orbit of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. Its potential
energy is (June 06,M-17)
a) – 13.6 eV b) 13.6 eV c) – 27.2 eV d) 27.2 eV
5. If R is Rydberg constant, the shortest wavelength of Paschen series is (June 10,O-14)
R 9 16 25
a) b) c) d)
9 R R R
6. The ionization power is maximum for (Oct 10)
a) neutron b) -particles c) -rays d) -particles
7. In Sommerfield atom model, for a given value of n, the number of values l can take is
a) n b) n + 1 c) n – 1 d) 2n + 1 (Oct 06)
8. The ratio of areas enclosed by first three Bohr orbits of hydrogen atom is (Oct 06)
a) 1:2:3 b) 1:8:27 c) 1:4:9 d) 1:16:81
9. In hydrogen atom, which of the following transition produces spectral line of maximum
wavelength?
a) 2 1 b) 3 2 c) 4 3 d) 5 4
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(Oct 06)
10. In holography, which of the following is (are) recorded on the photographic film?
(O-06,J-07,12,O-12,M-14,O-16)
a) Frequency and amplitude b) Phase and frequency
c) Phase and amplitude d) Frequency only
11. If a and b are semi major and semi minor axes of the ellipse respectively and l (Mar 07)
is the orbital quantum number, then the expression to find the possible elliptical orbit is
b l 1 b l 1 a l 1 a l 1
a) b) c) d)
a n a n b n b n
12. A crystal diffracts monochromatic X-rays, if the angle of diffraction for the second order
is 90 than that for the first order will be (Mar 07)
a) 60 b) 45 c) 30 d) 15
13. If R is Rydberg’s constant, the minimum wavelength of hydrogen spectrum is (June 07)
a) 1 / R b) R / 4 c) 4 / R d) R
14. The unit of Rydberg constant is (Oct 07)
a) m b) no unit c) m-2 d) m-1
15. For the first order X-ray diffraction, the wavelength of the X-ray is equal to the lattice
spacing at a glancing angle of (Oct 07)
a) 15 b) 60 c) 45 d) 30
16. If the minimum wavelength of X-rays produced from a Coolidge tube is 0.062 nm. Then
the potential difference between the cathode and target material is (Mar 08)
5 3
a) 2000 V b) 20,000V c) 2 x 10 V d) 6.2 x 10 V
17. The spectral series of hydrogen atom in UV region are called (June 08)
a) Balmer series b) Lyman series c) Paschen series d) Pfund series
18. Maser materials are (June 08,O-13,15)
a) diamagnetic ions b) Paramagnetic ions c) ferromagnetic ions d) non-magnetic ions
19. Number of waves per unit length is known as (Oct 08)
a) wavelength b) wave number c) bandwidth d) frequency
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25. When an electric field is applied to an atom each of the spectral lines split into several
lines. This effect is known as (June 09)
a) Zeeman effect b) Stark effect c) Raman effect d) Seebeck effect
26. The direction of viscous force in Millikan’s oil drop experiment is (Oct 09)
a) always downwards b) always upwards
c) opposite to the direction of motion of the oil drop d) either upwards of downwards
27. In Sommerfeld atom model, for Principal quantum number n = 3, which of the
following sub shells represents circular orbit? (Mar 10)
a) 3s b) 3p c) 3d d) None of these
28. In Millikan’s experiment, the plates are kept at a distance of 16 mm and are maintained
at a potential difference of 10000 V. The electric intensity is (June 10)
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29.
a) 62.5 V/m
e
m
of cathode ray particle
5
b) 6.25 x 10 V/m 3
c) 6.25 x 10 V/m 5
d) 1.6 x 10 V/m
(June 10,Mar 13,J-13)
a) depends upon the nature of the cathode b) depends upon the nature of the anode
c) depends upon the nature of the gas atoms present inside the discharge tube
d) is independent of all these
30. The wave number of a spectral line of hydrogen atom is equal to Rydberg’s constant.
The line is (Mar 11)
a) first line of Lyman series b) series limit of Lyman series
c) first line of Pfund series d) series limit of Pfund series
31. In Millikan’s oil drop experiment, charged oil drop is balanced between the two plates.
Now the viscous force (June 11,14)
a) acts downwards b) acts upwards
c) is zero d) acts either upwards or downwards
32. If is the frequency of characteristic X-ray line emitted by a target element of atomic
number Z, then Moseley’s law is (Oct 11)
a) Z b) Z c) Z 2
d) Z 3
33. When an electron jumps from M shell to the K shell it gives (Mar 12)
a) line b) line c) line d) line
34. Arrange the spectral lines H , H , H , H in the increasing order of their wavelength
a) H , H , H , H b) H , H , H , H (June12)
c) H , H , H , H d) H , H , H , H
35. A narrow electron beam passes undeviated through an electric field E=3 x 104 V/m
-3 2
and an overlapping magnetic field B= 2X10 Wb/m .The electron motion, electric field
and magnetic field are mutually perpendicular. The speed of the electron is (Oct 12)
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a)60ms-1 b)10.3 x 107 ms-1 c)1.5 x 107 ms-1 d)0.67 x 107 ms-1
36. In hydrogen atom which of the following transitions produces a spectral line of
maximum frequency?
a) 2 1 b) 6 2 c) 4 3 d) 5 1 (Oct 12)
37. In hydrogen atom, which of the following transition produces spectral line of minimum
wavelength?
a) 2 1 b) 4 3 c) 6 5 d) 5 2 (J-13,14)
38. An electron is moving with a velocity of 3 x 106 ms-1 perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field
of induction 0.5 T.The force experienced by the electron is (M-11)
a) 2.4 x 10-13 N b) 13.6 x 10-27 N c) 13.6 x 10-11 N d) zero
39. According to Bohr’s postulates, which of the following quantities take discrete values?
a) kinetic energy b) potential energy c) angular momentum d) momentum
40. A Coolidge tube operates at 18600 V.The maximum frequency of X-radiation emitted from it
is (O- 07)
a) 4.5 x 1018 HZ b) 45 x 1018 HZ c) 4.05 x 1018 HZ d) 45.5 x 1018 HZ
41. If c is the velocity , the frequency and ,the wavelength of a radiation,then its frequency is
defined as (O- 10,J-16)
a) the number of waves in a distance of one metre
b) the number of waves in a distance
c) the number of waves in a distance c
d) the number of waves produced in a period of T second
42. In Millikan’s oil drop experiment,charged oil drop moves under the influence of electric field.Now
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43.
the viscous force :
a) is zero b) acts downwards c) acts upwards d) acts first upwards and then downwards
(O-13)
In Thomson’s experiment,cathode rays moving with a velocity ‘v’ enter perpendicular to an electric
field of intensity ‘E’ .The deflection produced by the cathode rays is directly proportional to : (J-14)
a) v b) v-1 c) v2 d) v-2
44. The direction of the electric field in Millikan’s oil drop experiment acts : (M-15)
a) downwards b) upwards
c) first upwards then downwards d) first downwards then upwards
45. The longest wavelength that can be analyzed by a rock crystal of spacing d= 2.82 Å in the first
order is (O-15)
a) 2.82Å b)5.64Å c)11.28Å d) 21.76Å
46. A beam of cathode rays moves from left to right in a plane of the paper and it enters into a
uniform magnetic field acting perpendicular to the plane of the paper and inwards.Now,the
cathode rays are deflected (M-16)
a) downwards b) upwards
c) in a direction perpendicular to the plane of the paper and inwards
d) in a direction perpendicular to the plane of the paper and outwards
47. The colour of light emitted by ruby laser (J-16)
a) Green light b) red light c) yellow light d) violet light
ANSWERS
1.(a) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7.(a) 8.(d) 9.(d) 10.(c) 11.(a)
12.(c) 13.(a) 14.(d) 15.(d) 16.(b) 17.(b) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20.(b) 21.(c) 22.(a)
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23.(c) 24.(c) 25.(b) 26.(c) 27.(c) 28.(b) 29.(d) 30.(b) 31.(c) 32.(c) 33.(b)
34.(b) 35.(c) 36.(d) 37.(a) 38.(a) 39.(c) 40.(a) 41.(d) 42.(b) 43.(d) 44.(a)
45.(b) 46.(a) 47.(b)
3 MARKS (2 X 3 = 6)
1. How much should be the voltage of an X-ray tube so that the electrons emitted from
the cathode may give an X-ray of wavelength 1Å after striking the target? 50 (J-07,M-13)
2. Calculate the longest wavelength that can be analysed by a rock salt crystal of spacing
d= 2.82 Å in the first order. pg no. 44 (J-06,O-08,M-09,J-10,O-10,M-11,J-12,16)
3. Write the conditions to achieve laser action. pg no. 36(M-06,J-07,O-13,J-14,16)
4 An X-ray diffraction of a crystal gave the first line at a glancing angle of 6 27’. If the
wavelength of x-ray is 0.58 Å, find the distance between the two cleavage planes.
Pg no.50(M-06,O-13,14,15)
5. What are the characteristics of Laser? pg no.35 (O-06,J-09,M-10,J-10,12,O-12)
6. Rydberg constant for hydrogen atom is 1.097x107 m-1 . Calculate the shortest wavelength
of the spectral line of its Lyman series. pg no. 43(O-06,09,M-15,17)
7. State Moseley’s law. Write its equation pg no.33 (M-07,08,09,11,J-14,M-16)
8. Write the principle of Millikan’s oil drop experiment. pg no. 5(J-06,M-12,J-15)
9. What are the drawbacks of sommerfeld atom model? pg no. 24,25(O-11)
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10.
11.
12.
13.
Write the applications of Mosley’s law.
What is hologram?
Write any three medical applications of laser.
Write any three applications of laser in industry.
pg no. 33(O-12,J-13,O-14,J-15)
pg no.46 (O-07)
pg no. 39(M-08,O-09,J-11,O-11,16,M-17)
pg no.39 (J-08)
14. Explain any one of the drawbacks of Rutherford atom model. pg no. 12(O-08)
15. Define ionization potential energy. pg no. 20,21 (M-07,J-09,O-10)
16. Find the minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by an X-ray tube operating at 1000kV.
(M-10,J-13)
7 -1
17. A beam of electron moving with a uniform speed of 4 x 10 ms is projected normal to the
uniform magnetic field where B= 10-3 Wb/m2 .What is the path of the beam in magnetic field ?
pg no.41 (M-12)
18. Write down the two important facts of the Laue experiment on X-ray diffraction.
pg no. 29(O-07,J-08,M-13)
19. An electron beam passes through a transverse magnetic field of 2 x 10-3 tesla and electric field
E of 3.4 x 104 V/m acting simultaneously.If the path of the electrons remain
undeviated,calculate the speed of the electrons. page no.54( M-14 )
20. Distinguish between soft X rays and hard X rays. pg no.26(M-14 )
21. What is ionization potential of atom ? pg no. 20,21 (M-15)
22. Write 3 properties of cathode rays Pg.no 2(O-15)
23. In Millikan’s experiment,an oil drop of mass 4.9 x 10-14 kg is balanced by applying a potential
differernce of 9.8 kV between the two plates which are 12.8mm apart.Calculate the number of
elementary charges on the drop. (M-16)
24. A Coolidge tube operates at 24,800 V. what is the maximum frequency of X radiation
Emitted from coolidge tube ? (O-16)
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5 MARKS
1.
2.
State and obtain Bragg’s law.
Describe Laue experiment. What are the facts established by it?
(J-08,O-09,11,J-15)
(O-06,15)
−
3. Prove that the energy of an electron for hydrogen atom in the nth orbit is En =
ℎ
(O-07)
4. Mention any five properties of x-rays. (J-06,M-11,O-13,M-15)
5. Explain the spectral series of hydrogen atom without diagram.
(M-06,10,J-10,M-12,M-13,J-14,16,O-16)
6. In Bragg’s spectrometer, the glancing angle for first order spectrum was observed to be 8.
Calculate the wavelength of X-rays, if d = 2.82 x 10 -10m . At what angle will the second
maximum occur? (M-07,J-07)
7. An particle is projected with an energy of 4MeV directly towards a gold nucleus.
Calculate the distance of its closest approach. Given Atomic number of gold= 79,
Atomic number of particle=2 (M-08)
8. Write any five properties of cathode rays. (O-08,J-09,O-14,M-17)
9. Explain the origin of characteristic X-rays. (M-09,J-11,12,O-12)
-3
10. An electron beam passes through a transverse magnetic field of 2 x 10 tesla and an electric
field E of 3.4 x 104 V/m acting simultaneously.If the path of the electrons remains
undeviated.Calculate the speed of electrons.If the electric field is removed ,what will be the
radius of the electron path? (O-10)
11. Describe Rutherford -particles scattering experiment.and discuss it results.
12. Explain about distances of closest approach.
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10 MARKS
1. State Bohr’s postulates. Obtain an expression for the radius of nth orbit of hydrogen atom
based on the Bohr’s Theory. (M - 06 , M - 08, J - 09, M -12,M-14,O-15)
2. Describe the J.J Thomson method for determine the specific charge of an electron.
(O - 09, M - 10, J - 10, O - 10, O – 11, J – 12,O-13,14,M-16,J-16,O-16)
3. Explain the working ruby laser with the help of energy level diagram.
(O - 06, J - 07, M - 09, J -11,O -12,M-13,15,17)
4. How will you determine the wavelength of x-rays using Bragg’s spectrometer.
Write any five properties of x-rays. (M - 07)
5. Derive Bragg’s law. Explain how a Bragg’s spectrometer can be used to determine the
wavelength of x-rays. (J – 07,14)
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6.
7.
Draw a neat diagram of the He-Ne laser and explain its working with the help of
energy level diagram. (J - 06, M – 11, J-13,15)
Describe Millikan’s oil drop experiment to determine the charge of an electron.
(J - 08, O - 08)
8. Explain Sommerfeld atom model.
1. A photon of frequency is incident on a metal surface of threshold frequency 0. The kinetic
energy of the emitted photoelectron is
a) h ( - 0) b) h c) h0 d) h ( + 0)
2. The work function of a photoelectric material is 3.3 eV. The threshold frequency will be equal
to (M - 08, J-11,J-13,O-13)
a) 8 x 1014 Hz b) 8 x 1010 Hz c) 5 x 1020 Hz d) 4 x 1014 Hz
3. The stopping potential of a metal surface is independent of
a) frequency of incident radiation b) intensity of incident radiation
c) the nature of metal surface d) velocity of electrons emitted.
4. At the threshold frequency, the velocity of the electron is (M-14)
a) zero b) maximum c) minimum d) infinite
5. The photoelectric effect can be explained on the basis of (O-14)
a) corpuscular theory of light b) wave theory of light
c) electromagnetic theory of light d) quantum theory of light
6. The wavelength of the matter wave is independent of (J-13)
a) mass b) momentum c) velocity d) charge
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7. If the kinetic energy of the moving particle is E, then the De Bogie wavelength is (M-14)
h 2mE h
a) b) c) h 2mE d)
2mE h E 2m
9. According to relativity, the length of a rod in motion (J - 06, 07, 08, 10,O-13,14)
a) is same as its rest length b) is more than its rest length
c) is less than its rest length
d) may be more or less than or equal to rest length depending on the speed of the rod.
10. If 1kg of a substance is fully converted into energy, then the energy produced is (J-14)
16 24 8
a) 9 x 10 J b) 9 x 10 J c) 1J d) 3 x 10 J
ANSWERS
1.(a) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6.(d) 7.(a) 8.(c) 9.(c) 10.(a)
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2.
3.
a) r/3
frequency is
a) maximum
b) 3r
b) zero
c) 2r/3
c) minimum
d) 3(2r)
The value of stopping potential when the frequency of light is equal to the threshold
d) infinity
Two photons, each of energy 2.5 eV are simultaneously incident on the metal surface. If the
(Mar 06)
work function of the metal is 4.5eV then from the surface of the metal (June 06)
a) one electron will be emitted b) two electrons will be emitted
c) more than two electrons will be emitted d) not a single electron will be emitted
4. According to special theory of relativity the only constant in all frames is (Oct 06)
a) mass b) length c) time d) velocity of light
5. The work function of a metal is 6.626 x 10-19J. The threshold frequency is (M- 07,J-16)
15 -19 -15 19
a) 1 x 10 Hz b) 10 x 10 Hz c) 1 x 10 Hz d) 10 x 10 Hz
6. When a material particle of rest mass ‘mo’ attains the velocity of light, its mass becomes
a) 0 b) 2m2 c) 4mo d) infinity (O 07,M-15)
7. The particle which has zero mass but has energy, is (Mar 08)
a) Electron b) Photon c) Proton d) Neutron
8. An electron of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘e’ accelerated form rest through a potential of V volt, then
its final velocity is (June 08)
a) Ve / m b) Ve / 2m c) 2Ve / m d) 2 Ve / m
9. Photon has (June 08)
a) energy but zero mass b) mass but zero energy
c) zero mass and zero energy d) infinite mass and energy
10. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is (June 09)
1 1
a) W + h v = mv2max b) mv2max = W
2 2
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43 MJK
1 1
c) h v + mv2max= W d) W + mv2max= h v
2 2
11. Electron microscope works on the principle of (Mar 10,O-15)
a) photoelectric effect b) Particle nature of electron
c) wave nature of moving electron d) dual nature of matter
12. If c is the velocity, the frequency and , the wavelength of a radiation, then its frequency is
defined as (Oct 10)
a) the number of waves in a distance of one meter b) the number of waves in a distance of
c) the number of waves in a distance of c
d) the number of waves produced in a period of T second.
13. The de Broglie wavelength of electron accelerated with a potential v is (O- 10)
h h h h
a) = b) = c) = d) =
vem 2Vem m 2vem Ve
m
m
14. If 1 kg of substance is fully converted into energy, the energy produced is (O- 10)
16 24 8
a) 9x10 J b) 9x10 J c) 1J d) 3x10 J
15. A graph is drawn taking frequency of incident radiation (v) along the x-axis and its stopping
potential (Vo) along the y-axis. The nature of the graph is (M- 11,J-14)
a) a straight line b) a parabola c) an ellipse d) a circle
16. A photon of energy 2E is incident of a photosensitive surface of photoelectric work function E.
The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron emitted is (J- 11)
a) E b) 2E c) 3E d) 4E
17. If the kinetic energy of the moving particle is E, then the De-broglie wavelength is (M- 12)
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18.
a) =
h
2mE
b) =
2mE
h
c) = h 2mE d) =
E 2m
h
In the photoelectric effect phenomenon if the ratio of the frequency of incident radiation
incident on a photosensitive surface is 1:2:3 the ratio of the photoelectric current is
a) 1:2:3 b) 1: 2 : 3 c) 1:4:9 d) 1:1:1 (M - 12)
19. When the momentum of a particle increases, its de Broglie wavelength (J- 12)
a) increases b) decreases c) does not change d) infinity
20. When an electron is accelerated with potential difference V,its de Broglie wavelength is directly
proportional to (Oct 12)
-1
a)V b)V c)𝑉 d) 𝑉 −
th
21. The number of de Broglie waves of an electron in the n orbit of an atom is: (M- 13)
a) n b) n-1 c) n+1 d) 2n
22. In photoelectric effect graph is drawn taking the frequency of incident radiation along x-axis
And corresponding stopping potential along y-axis.The nature of the graph is (J-14)
a) a straight line passing through origin
b) a straight line having positive y-intercept
c) straight line having negative y-intercept
d) parabola
23. The length of the rod placed inside a rocket is measured as 1m by an observer inside the rocket
which is ar rest.When the rocket moves with a speed of 36 x 106 km/hr the length of the rod as
measured by the same observer is (M-16)
a) 0.997m b) 1.003 m c) 1m d) 1.006m
24. The threshold frequency of a photosensitive surface is 5 x 1014 Hz .Then which of the
following will produce photoelectric effect from the same surface ? (M-17)
a) Sodium vapour lamp b) Ruby laser c) He-Ne laser d) Both (b) and (c)
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ANSWERS
1.(c) 2.(b) 3.(d) 4.(d) 5.(a) 6.(d) 7.(b) 8.(c) 9.(a) 10.(d) 11.(c) 12.(d)
13.(b) 14.(a) 15.(a) 16.(a) 17.(a) 18.(d) 19.(b) 20.(d) 21.(a) 22.(c) 23.(c) 24.(a)
3MARKS (1X 3 = 3 )
1. State the postulates of special theory of relativity. pg no.64(O-07,J-09,M-11,M-13,17)
2. Define stopping potential. pg no.53 (O-09,12,O-13)
3. Mention the uses of electron microscope. pg no.62 (M-07,O-15,M-16,O-16)
4 What are the limitations of electron microscope? pg no.62 (M-06,09,12,J-15)
5. What is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron of kinetic energy 120 eV?
Pg.69(J-07,08,O-12)
6. Write any three uses of photoelectric cells. Pg no.57 (J-06,M-10,O-10,J-12,M-14,J-14)
7. What are inertial and non-inertial frames? pg no. 63 (O-06,M-08,O-11)
8. Find de Broglie wavelength of electron in the fourth orbit of hydrogen atom. pg no.69 (J-11)
9. Calculate the threshold wavelength of certain metal of work function 1.8 eV. pg 62 (O-08)
10. According to classical mechanics, what is the concept of time? pg no.63 (J-10)
11. Define threshold frequency. pg 54(J-13,M-15)
12. What are photo cells ?What are its types ? pg no 57 (O-14,J-16)
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OTHER IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1.
2.
3.
What is photoelectric effect?
Define work function.
How does a burglar alarm work?
page no.51
page no.56
page no.58
4. What are matter waves? page no.58
5. What is an electron microscope? page no.60
6. What are the concepts of space in classical mechanics? page no.63
7. Define frame of reference. page no.63
8. What is time dilation? page no.65
5 MARKS
1. Obtain Einstein’s photoelectric equation. (M-06,J-06,O-09,M-10,J-10,O-12,M-14,J-14)
2. Explain FitzGerald-Lorentz contraction with an example. or Explain length contraction
on the basis of special theory of relativity. (M-06,08,10,O-10,11,J-13,M-15,O-15)
3. Explain the wave mechanical concept of atom. (O-07,M-09)
4. Write any five application of photoelectric cells. (O-6,J-07,M-8,J-8,9,M-12,J-13,O-16,M-17)
5. Derive an expression for de-Broglie wavelength of matter waves.
(O-06,M-07,J-10,O-10,J-11,12,M-13,15,17)
6. Define work function. State the laws of photo-electric emission. (M-07,09,11,O-11,J-15)
7. Explain time-dilation with an example. (J-06,08,O-13,M-16)
8. Obtain Einstein’s mass-energy equivalence. (M-07)
9. How fast would a rocket have to go relative to an observer for its length to be corrected
to 99% of its length at rest? (O-07,J-11,M-12,J-14)
10. Explain the construction and working of a photo-emissive cell with diagram. (O-08,13)
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11. A metallic surface when illuminated with light of wavelength 3333Å emits electrons
electrons with energies upto 0.6eV. Calculate the work fuction of the metal. (M-13,O-16)
12. At what speed is a particle moving if the mass is equal to three times its rest mass?
(O-8,14,J-15,16)
13. What is photoelectric effect? State the laws of photoelectric emission. (M-16)
14. Calculate the kinetic energy of a proton moving with velocity 0.900 times the velocity
of light. (M-11)
-8
15. The time interval measured by an observer at rest is 2.5 x 10 s. What is the time interval
as measured by an observer moving with a velocity = 0.73C? (J-09,O-16)
[or]
The work function of iron is 4.7 eV. Calculate the cut-off frequency and the corresponding
cut-off wavelength for this metal. (J-09,M-12)
16. List the uses and limitations of electron microscope (M-14,J-16)
-31
17. The rest mass of an electron is 9.1 x 10 kg .What will be its mass if it moves with 4/5 th of
the speed of light ? (J-14)
18. Derive an expression for the de Broglie wavelength of electron (O-14)
5 -1
19. Calculate the de Broglie wave length of an electron, if the speed is 10 ms . (O-15)
8. NUCLEAR PHYSICS
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1.
2.
The nuclear radius of 4Be8 nucleus is
a) 1.3 x 10-15m b) 2.6 x 10-15m
The nuclei 13Al27 and 14Si28 are example of
a) isotopes b) isobars
c) 1.3 x 10-13 m
c) isotones
d) 2.6 x 10-13 m
d) isomers
(J-14)
(M-14)
3. The mass defect of a certain nucleus is found to be 0.03 amu. Its binding energy is
a) 27.93 eV b) 27.93 keV c) 27.93 MeV d) 27.93 GeV
4. Nuclear fission can be explained by (J-13)
a) shell model b) liquid drop model c) quark model d) Bohr atom model
5. The nucleons in a nucleus are attracted by
a) gravitational force b) electrostatic force c) nuclear force d) magnetic force
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ANSWERS
1.(b) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(b) 5.(c) 6.(b) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(b) 10.(a) 11.(c)
12.(c) 13.(d) 14.(c) 15.(b) 16.(d) 17.(c) 18.(c) 19.(c)
1. The nuclear force is due to the continuous exchange of particle called (M- 06)
a) leptons b) mesons c) hyperons d) photons
2. In the following nuclear reaction 7N14 + 0n1 X + 1H1. The element X is (M- 06)
14 14 14 13
a) 6N b) 6C c) 6O d) 7C
3. Which of the following particles is a lepton? (M- 06,15)
a) Electron b) Proton c) Neutron d) -meson
4. One amu is equal to (O- 08)
-27
a) 931 eV b) mass of carbon atom c) 1.66 x 10 kg d) mass of oxygen atom
5. The time taken by a radioactive element to reduce to e –1/2 times its original amount is its
a) half-life period b) half life period / 2 (J- 06)
c) mean – life period d) mean life period/2
6. In the following nuclear reaction, 13Al27 + 2He4 X + 0n1 the element X is (O- 06)
32 30 30 29
a) 15P b) 15P c) 15S d) 15Si
7. The moderator used in nuclear reactor is (M-07)
a) Cadmium b) Boron carbide c) Heavy water d) Uranium (92U235)
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8. The numbers of and particles emitted when an isotope 92U238 undergoes and decays to
form 82Pb206 are respectively (M- 07)
a) 6, 8 b) 4, 3 c) 8, 6 d) 3, 4
9. The particles with exchange between the nucleons and responsible for the origin of the nuclear
force are (J- 07)
a) photons b) leptons c) mesons d) baryons
10. Which of the following is not a moderator? (J-07)
a) Liquid sodium b) Ordinary water c) Graphite d) Heavy water
11. An element ZXA successively undergoes three -decays and four -decays and gets converted to
an element Y. The mass number and atomic number of the element Y are respectively. (J-07)
a) A – 12, Z – 2 b) A – 12, Z + 2 c) A – 12, Z + 4 d) Z – 8, Z + 2
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16.
17.
18.
Which of the following is used to detect the presence of block in blood vessels? (Mar 08,14)
a) 15P31
a) 2
b) 15P32
b) 4
Slow neutrons having energies between
c) 26Fe59
If the nuclear radius is 2.6 x 10-15 m, the mass number will be
c) 8
d) 11Na24
d) 16
(June 08)
(June 08)
a) 1000 eV to 2000 eV b) 2000 eV to 0.5 eV
c) 0 eV to 1000 eV d) 0.5 ev to 10 mev
19. Particle that has no charge and no rest mass but travels with velocity of light is (Oct 08)
a) baryon b) meson c) lepton d) photon
20. The half-life of a radioactive element is 300 days. The disintegration constant of the
radioactive element is (Mar 09)
a) 0.00231 day b) 0.00231 / day c) 0.0231 / day d) 0.0231 day
21. The explosion of atom bomb is based on the principle of (Mar 10)
a) uncontrolled fission reaction b) controlled fission reaction
c) fusion reaction d) thermonuclear reaction
22. The mean life of radon is 5.5 days. Its half-life is
a) 8 days b) 2.8 days c) 0.38 days d) 3.8 days.
23. The energy equivalent to 1amu is (June 09,M-14,O-14)
a) 931 MeV b) 931 meV c) 931 eV d) 913 MeV
24. The nuclear force existing between any two nucleons is due to the continuous
exchange of particles called (Oct 09)
a) leptons b) mesons c) hyperons d) photons.
25. In the nuclear reaction 4Be9 + X 6C12 + 0n1, X stands for (Mar 10)
a) Proton b) -particles (Alpha particle) c) Electron d) Deuteron
26. Which of the following belongs to Baryon group? (Mar 10)
a) Photon b) Electron c) Pion d) Proton
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-1
a) no unit b) second c) second d) curie
37. The explosion of hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of (Mar 12)
a) un controlled fission reaction b) nuclear fusion reaction
c) controlled fission reaction d) photo electric effect
38. Positive rays of the same element produce two different in Bainbridge mass
spectrometer. The positive ions have (Mar 12,O-14)
a) same mass with different velocities b) same mass with same velocity
c) different masses with same velocity d) different masses with different velocity
39. The mass defect of certain nucleus is 0.03 amu. Then its binding energy is (June 12)
a) 27.93 eV b) 27.93 KeV c) 27.93 GeV d) 27.93 MeV
40. The nucleons in a nucleus attracted by (June 12)
a) gravitational force b) electrostatic force
c) nuclear force d) magnetic force
41. Which of the following is massless and changeless but carrier of energy and spin (June 12)
a) Neutrino b) muon c) Pion d) Kaon
42. The radius of a nucleus is 5.2F.The number of nucleons in the nucleus is (Oct 12)
a)52 b)104 c)64 d)128
43. In proton-proton cycle four protons fuse together to give (Oct 12)
a)an paticle,two electrons,two neutrinos and energy of 26.7Mev
b)an paticle,two positrons,two neutrinos and energy of 26.7Mev
c) a helium atom,two positrons,two neutrinos and energy of 26.7ev
d) an paticle,two positrons,two antineutrinos and energy of 26.7Mev
44. 1 Curie is (Mar 13)
a)activity of 1g of uranium b)1 disintegration/second
10 12
c)3.7 x 10 becquerel d)1.6 x 10 disintegration /second
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49. The half life period of N 13 is 10.1 minute. Its mean life is (M-16)
10.1
a) 5.05 minutes b) 20.2 minutes c) minutes d) infinity
0.6931
50. The radius of the nucleus which contains 64 nucleons is (J-16)
a) 2.6 F b) 5.2 F c) 10.4F d) 7.8 F
51. The decay constant of free neutron is (O-16)
a) 0.013 minute -1 b) 0.053 minute -1 c) 3 minutes d) 0.069 minute -1
52. Arrange electron (e),proton(p), and deuteron(d) in the increasing order of their specific charge:
a) e,p,d b) d,p,e c) p,e,d d) d,e,p (M-17)
53. In a Bainbridge mass spectrometer positive rays of the same element produce different
traces.The traces correspond to (M-17)
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ANSWERS
a) isotopes b) isobars c) isotones d) none
1.(b) 2.(b) 3.(a) 4.(c) 5.(d) 6.(b) 7.(c) 8.(c) 9.(c) 10.(a) 11.(a) 12.(b)
13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(c) 16.(d) 17.(c) 18.(c) 19.(d) 20.(b) 21.(a) 22.(d) 23.(a) 24.(b)
25.(b) 26.(d) 27.(b) 28.(c) 29.(c) 30.(d) 31.(c) 32.(c) 33.(b) 34.(c) 35.(b) 36.(c)
37.(b) 38.(c) 39.(d) 40.(c) 41.(a) 42.(c) 43.(b) 44.(c) 45.(d) 46.(b) 47.(b) 48.(c)
49.(c) 50.(b) 51.(b) 52.(b) 53.(a)
3 MARKS ( 2 X 3 =6 )
1. What is pair production and annihilation of matter? pg no.107(M-06,J-06,M-07,14)
2. Write any three properties of neutron. pg no.89(J-06,M-08,J-11,O-11,M-14,17)
3. What is - decay? Give example. pg no.85 (M-06,M-13)
4. Write any three conclusions obtained from Binding energy curve. pg no.80( O-06,M-07)
5. Define Curie. pg no. 88(O-06,M-08,10,O-10,J-13,O-13,M-15,17)
6. The half-life of radon is 3.8 days. Calculate its mean life. pg no. 120(O-09,J-10)
7. Define roentgen. pg no.92(J-07,08)
8. Write a note on Leptons. pg no.107 (J-07,M-12,O-15)
218
9. The half-life of 84Po is 3 minutes. What percentage of the sample has decayed in 15 minutes?
pg no. 119(O-07,J-13)
10. What is the use of control rod in the reactor? Mention any two control rods. pg no.100(O-07)
11. What are cosmic rays? pg no.105 (J-08,10,O-14)
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pg no.90 (J-14)
29. What are the precautions to be taken by the people who are working in radiation laboratories ? 93 (M-15)
30. Write a note on decay. Give example age no.85 (M-16)
31. Write any 3 properties of rays page no.84 (J-16)
32. Write 3 properties of rays page no.84 (O-16)
OTHER IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1. Differentiate between atom bomb and hydrogen bomb pg no.97,103
2. What are isotopes,isobars,isotones? Pg no.76,77
3. Define atomic mass unit? page no.78
4. Calculate the energy equivalence of 1 atomic mass unit. page no.78
5. What is the principle of Bainbridge spectrometer? page no.80
6. What are nuclear forces? page no.82
7. Define radioactivity. page no.83
8. Write a note on decay.Give example page no.85
9. State the radioactive law of disintegration. page no.86
10. Define Half life period. page no.87
11. Define mean life period. page no.88
12. What is meant by artificial transmutations? page no.93
13. Write the uses of radio isotopes in medical field. page no.91
14. What is radio carbon dating? page no.92
15. Distinguish between natural and artificial radio activity.
16. What is particle accelerator? page no.93
17. What are synchronous accelerators? page no.94
18. Define nuclear fission? Give example. page no.95
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5 MARKS
1. Show that the mass of radium (88Ra226) with an activity of 1 curie is almost a gram.
(Give T1/2 =1600 yrs. Curie=3.7x1010 disintegrations per second) (O-06,08,M-12)
[or]
Calculate the mass of coal required to produce the same energy as that produced by the
fission of 1 kg of U235. [Given: Heat of combustion of coal = 33.6 x 106 Jkg-1. Energy per
fission of U235 = 200 Mev. leV = 1.6 x 10 -19 J. Avogadro number N = 6.023 x 10 23].
(J-08)
2. A piece of bone from an archaeological site is found to give a count rate of 15 counts
per minute.A similar sample of fresh bone gives a count rate of 19 counts per minute.
Calculate the age of specimen.( Given T1/2 = 5570 years) (M-06,O-11,M-14,J-16)
[or]
Calculate the energy released when 1kg of 92U235 undergoes nuclear fission. Assume,
energy per fission is 200 MeV. Avogadro Number = 6.023x1023 . Express your answer in
kilowatt hour also. (M-06,O-13)
2 4
3. Find the energy released when two 1H nuclei fuse together to form single 2He nucleus.
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Give the binding energies per nucleon of 1H2 and 2He4 are 1.1 MeV. and 7.0 Mev
respectively. [or] (J-06,O-12)
A reactor is developing energy at the rate of 32 MW . Calculate the required number
of fissions per second of 92U235. Assume that energy per fission is 200 MeV.
(J-06,08,O-09,J-11,M-14,17)
4. Explain how a cosmic ray shower is formed. (M-07,J-12)
5. If the mass defect of the nucleus 6C12 is 0.098 amu, then calculate the binding energy
per nucleon. (J-07)
6. Explain the latitude effect of cosmic rays. (J-07,O-07,J-09)
7. Calculate the time required for 60% of a sample of radon to undergo decay.
Atomic number of particle =2. (Given T1/2 of radon =3.8 days) (M-08,M-13)
8. Write a note on the biological hazards of nuclear radiations. (O-08)
12 13
9. The binding energy per nucleon for 6C nucleus is 7.68 MeV and that for 6C is 7.47 MeV.
Calculate the energy required to remove a neutron from 6C13 nucleus. (M-07,15)
10. The disintegration constant of a radioactive element is 0.00231 per day. Calculate its
half-life and mean life. (M-10)
11. Give an explanation for the binding energy curve. (Graph not necessary) (J-10,O-16)
12. Write the properties of rays. (O-10,J-15,O-15)
13. Calculate the energy released in the following equation:
6 1 4 3
3Li + 0n → 2He + 1H (O-11,M-16)
14. Explain soddy-Fajan’s radioactive displacement laws. (M-11)
15. Calculate the energy released in the following equation:
27 2 25 4
13Al + 1H → 12Mg + 2He (O-12)
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14
16. A carbon specimen found in a cave contained a fraction of 1/8 th of C to that present in a
Living system.Calculate the approximate age of the specimen.Given T1/2 for 6C12=5560 years (O-13)
17. Explain artificial radioactivity.
18. Explain chain reaction.
19. Write the properties of neutrons. (J-13)
20. Write the principle and working of on atom bomb. (J-14)
21. Explain how carbon-nitrogen cycle can account for the Production of stellar energy. (O-14)
22. Calculate the binding energy and binding energy per nucleon of 20Ca40 nucleus. Given, mass of
1 proton = 1.007825 amu ; mass of 1 neutron = 1.008665 amu; mass of
40
20Ca nucleus = 39.96259 amu (J-16)
10 MARKS
1. Describe the principle and action of a Bainbridge Mass spectrometer in determining
the isotopic masses.Mention its use
(J - 6, J - 7, J - 8, O - 6, M - 9, J - 10, O -10, J -11, O -12,0-13,M-14,16)
2. Explain the construction and working of a Geiger Muller counter.
(M - 07, O - 07, J - 09, M -11,M-13,J-14,O-15,M-17)
3. What are cosmic rays? Explain the latitude effect and altitude effect regarding
cosmic rays (M – 08,M – 10, J-13,M-15)
4. Obtain an expression for the amount of the radioactive substance present at any moment.
Obtain the relation between half life period and decay constant.
(O - 08, O – 09, O -11, M – 12, J – 12,15)
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5. What is the nuclear reactor? Explain the function of (i) moderator (ii) control rod
(iii) neutron reflector. Mention the uses of nuclear reactor.(diagram not necessary)
(M-06J-16,O-16)
6. Describe the discovery of neutrons. Mention the properties of neutrons (O-14)
1. The electrons in the atom of an element which determine its chemical and electrical
properties are called
a) valance electrons b) revolving electron c) excess electrons d) active electrons
2. In an N-type semiconductor, there are
a) immobile negative ions b) no minority carriers
c) immobile positive ions d) holes as majority carriers
3. The reverse saturation Current in PN junction diode is only due to (J-14)
a) majority carriers b) minority carriers c) acceptor ions d) donar ions
4. In the forward bias characteristic curve, a diode appears as (J-13)
a) a high resistance b) a capacitor c) an OFF switch d) an ON switch
5. Avalanche break down is primarily dependent on the phenomenon of (O-14)
a) collision b) ionization c) doping d) recombination.
6. The colour of light emitted by a LED depends on (M-14)
a) its reverse bias b) the amount of forward current
c) its forward bias d) type of semiconductor material
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7. The emitter base junction of a given transistor is forward biased and its collector-base
junction is reverse biased. If the base current is increased, then its
a) VCE will increase b) IC will decrease
c) IC will increase d) VCC will increase
8. Improper biasing of a transistor circuit produces (O-13)
a) heavy loading of emitter current b) distortion in the output signal
c) excessive heat at collector terminal d) faulty location of load line
9. An Oscillator is
a) an amplifier with feedback b) a converter of AC to DC energy
c) nothing but an amplifier d) an amplifier without feedback.
10. In a Colpitt’s oscillator circuit
a) capacitive feedback is used b) tapped coil is used
c) no tuned LC circuit is used d) no capacitor is used
11. since the input Impedance of an ideal operational amplifier is infinite.
a) its input current in zero b) its output resistance is high
c) its output voltage becomes independent of load resistance
d) it becomes a current controlled device
12. The following arrangement performs the logic function of (J-13)
A
B Y
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C
Y
a) 0, 1, 0 b) 1, 0, 0 c) 1, 0, 1 d) 1, 1, 0
14. According to the laws of Boolean algebra, the expression (A + AB) is equal to
a) A b) AB c) B d) A
1. The forbidden energy gap for germanium is of the order of (Oct 06)
a) 1.1 eV b) 0.7 eV c) 0.3 eV d) 10 eV
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5. Find the voltage across resistor as shown in the figure (silicon diode is used) (M- 07,14)
2.7V
D
180
a) 2.4V b) 2.0V c) 1.8V d) 0.7V
a) A + B b) A . B c) A B d) A B
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9. The output of the given operational amplifier is
100 K
(June 07)
10k
-
V out
V in = 0.2 sin t
+
a) b) c) d)
11. The logic gate for which there is ‘Low’ output only when both the inputs are ‘High’ is (June 07)
a) AND b) NAND c) NOR d) EXOR
12. The output voltage of the operational amplifier (Op-Amp) given below is (Oct 07)
R R
+2 V
-3 V R V out
a) – 1 V b) 1 V c) +5 V d) –5 V
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13. In a junction transistor the emitter region is heavily doped since emitter has to supply to the base
a) minority carriers b) majority carriers c) acceptor ions d) donor ions (Oct 07)
14. A logic gate which has an output ‘1’, when the inputs are complement to each other is (O-7,M-15)
a) AND b) NAND c) NOR d) EXOR
15. The forbidden energy gap of silicon is of the order of (Mar 08)
a) 0.1 eV b) 0.3 eV c) 0.7 eV d) 1.1 eV
16. Of the following, the donor atoms are (Mar 08)
a) Silicon and germanium b) Aluminium and gallium
c) Bismuth and antimony d) Boron and indium
17. In common emitter (CE) amplifier, the phase reversal between input and output voltage is
a) 0 b) 90 c) 270 d) 180 (June 08)
18. In common emitter transistor circuit, the base current (Ib) of the transistor is 50A and the
collector current (Ic) is 25 mA. Then the current gain is (Oct 08)
a) 50 b) 500 c) 20 d) 200
19. An example for non-sinusoidal oscillator is (Mar 09)
a) Multivibrator b) RC oscillator c) Colpit oscillator d) Crystal oscillator
20. In the pin configuration of IC 741, pin 3 represents (Mar 10,O-14)
a) inverting input b) non-inverting input c) Vcc d) output.
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23.
a)
a) NAND
b)
b) NOR
c)
d) 1
A logic gate for which there is an output only when both the inputs are zero is (June 11,0-16)
c) EXOR d) AND
24. In the forward bias characteristics curve,a diode appears as (Jun 11,Oct 12 )
a) a high resistance b)a capacitor c)an OFF switch d)an ON switch
25. The phase reversal between the input and output voltage is single stage CE amplifier is (Oct 12)
3
a) b) 2 c) d)
2 2
26. In a PN Junction diode on the side of N but very close to the Junction there are (Jun 12)
a) donor atoms b) acceptor atoms
c) immovable positive ions d) immovable negative ions
27. In N type semiconductor donor level lies (Oct 12)
a)just below the conduction band b)just above the conduction band
c)just below the valence band d)just above the valence band
28. For a transistor connected in common emmiter mode (CE)the slope of the input characteristic
curve gives: (Mar 13)
a)input impedance b)current gain c)reciprocal of input impedance d)voltage gain
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30. The following arangement performs the logic function (M- 12)
A
a) AND b) OR c) NAND d) EX – OR
31. In CE single stage amplifier if the voltage gain at mid-frequency is AM,then the voltage gain at
lower cut off frequency is : (O-13,J-15)
√
a) b) √ AM c) d)
√
32. The following arangement performs the logic function of (O-13)
A
Y
B
a) NOT b) EX – OR c) OR d) AND
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33.
34.
According to the laws of Boolean algebra, the expression (A+AB) is equal to :
a) A b) AB c) B d) A
The forbidden energy gap for germanium and silicon is of the order of
(J-14)
(J-14)
a) 1.1 eV and 0.7 eV b) 0.7 eVand 1.1 eV c) 4 eV and 0.7eV d) 1.1 eV and 7 eV
35. The potential barrier of germanium PN junction diode is approximately (O-15)
a) 0.7V b) 0.5V c) 0.3V d) 0.2V
36. A( ̅ + B) = ? (M-16)
a) A b) B c) AB d) A+B
37. The voltage at B in the figure is (Germanium diode is used) (M-16)
+6V
B
2k
a) 5.3V b) 5.7V c) 6.3V d) 6V
38. In a multimeter, when the current scale shows full scale deflection,the ohmmeter scale reads
a)Maximum but not infinity b) infinity c) zero d) minimum but not zero (J-16)
ANSWERS
1.(b) 2.(b) 3.(b) 4.(d) 5.(b) 6.(a) 7.(c) 8.(a) 9.(a) 10.(c) 11.(b)
12.(b) 13.(b) 14.(d) 15.(d) 16.(c) 17.(d) 18.(b) 19.(a) 20.(b) 21.(c) 22.(d)
23.(b) 24.(d) 25.(c) 26.(c) 27.(a) 28.(c) 29.(a) 30.(b) 31.(d) 32.(c) 33.(a)
34.(b) 35.(c) 36.(c) 37.(b) 37.(c) 38.(c)
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3 MARKS (4 X 3 =12)
1. Draw summing amplifier circuit using operational amplifier pg.167 (M-09, M-13,J-13,M-17)
2. When the negative feedback is applied to an amplifier of gain 50, the gain falls to 25,
Calculate the feedback ratio. pg no.173 (J-06,O-09,M-10,O-10,J-14,M-16)
3. Draw the circuit diagram for OR gate using diodes. pg no.157 (J-06)
4. What is an extrinsic semiconductor? pg no.126(J-06,08,O-10,M-11,O-13,J-14)
5. What is an intrinsic semiconductor? Give two examples. pg no.125 (M-06,O-15,M-17)
6. The gain of a amplifier without feedback is 100 and gain with positive feedback is 200
calculate the feedback fraction. (M-06)
7. What is a light emitting diode? Give any one of its uses pg no.136,137(M-07,J-15,O-15)
8. Define bandwith of an amplifier pg no.147(M-07,O-11,J-12,O-12,16)
9. When there is no feedback the gain of the amplifier is 100. if 5% of the output voltage is fed
back into the input through a negative feedback network, find out the voltage gain after
feedback. pg no.178 (M-07)
10. What are the advantages of negative feedback? pg 150 (J-7,O-7,J-8,M-11,12,M-13,J-15,16)
11. Find the output of the given circuit. pg no.179 (J-09,16)
5k
10k
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V1
V2 10k
+
Vo
12. Draw the circuit diagram of AND gate using diodes and resistor. pg no.158 (J-07,M-15)
13. Give the Barkhausen criteria for oscillations. pg no.150 (O-7,08,J-09,M-10,O-15,J-16,O-16)
14. Draw the circuit diagram for NPN transistor in Common Emitter(CE)mode. 139 (M-06,O-06)
15. Mention any three advantages of integrated circuit IC pg 154 (M-06,O-6,J-08,J-10,11,M-16)
16. What is Zener breakdown? pg.135 (O-06,J-07,M-08,J-12,13,16)
17. The voltage gain of an amplifier without feedback is 100. I negative feedback is applied with
a feedback fraction =0.1, Calculate the voltage gain after feedback. (O-06,11)
18. For Transistor to work how is the biasing provided? (J-12)
19. What is rectification? pg no.132 (M-07,09,O-14)
20. Give the important parameters (Characteristics) of an operational amplifier pg no. 164(O-07)
21. The output of two NOT gates are NOR, as shown in the figure, what is the logical operation
performed? pg no.173 (O-07)
A
Y
B
22. Draw the circuit configuration of NPN transistor in common collector (C.C) mode
pg no.139(M-08)
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23. A transistor is connected in CE configuration. The voltage drop across the load resistance
(Rc) 3 k is 6 V. Find the base current. The current gain of the transistor is 0.97
pg 172.(M-08,J-10)
24. What is an integrated circuit? pg no. 154(J-08,09,O-12,M-14,O-14)
25. Find the output of the ideal operational amplifier shown in the figure for the input
of Vin=120mV direct current. pg no. 174(June 08,09,M-12,15)
39 K
15k
Vin -
V out
+
A
B
C Y
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30.
31.
D
Draw energy band diagrams of N-type semiconductor and P- type semiconductor. 127(M-10)
What are universal gates?Why are they called so? pg no.161 (J-12,O-13,M-16)
32. Distinguish between Avalanche breakdown and zener breakdown. pg no.134,135( M-12)
33. Draw the circuit for inverting amplifier using Op-amp. pg no.165(M-11)
34. Find the Mention any three uses of Cathode Ray Oscilloscope (CRO). pg no.170(J-09,O-14)
35. Find the output Y of the logical cicuit given below pg no.179 (O-08,M-14)
A
B
F
A
C
36. Define input impedance of a transistor connected in common emitter mode. pg 141 (J-06,11)
37. Prove the Boolean identity: (A+B)(A+C) = A+ BC pg no.179 (M-11,O-12,14)
38. Draw difference amplifier circuit using OP-Amp. pg no.168(J-11)
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39. What is the Boolean expression for the logic diagram shown in figure. Evaluate its output if
A =1, B=1, and C=1. pg no.179 (M-10,O-16)
A
B
Y
C
40. What are the essential components of an LC oscillator? Draw its block diagram
Pg no 152 (O-10,M-14)
41. Draw NOT gate using transistor pg no. 158(J-10,O-11,13,J-15)
42. The base current of a transistor is 50A and collector current is 25A. Find the value of
current gain . pg no.178 (J-10,O-12,M-13,O-15)
43. What are the different methods of doping a semiconductor? pg no.126 (J-13)
44. In a common base transistor circuit IC =0.97mA and IB = 30A.Calculate the value
of ( ) the current gain. (J-13)
45. Prove the following expression ( ̅ +B) (A+B) = B (O-13)
46. Find the voltage at the point B as shown in the figure (silicon diode is used) (J-14)
5V
D
1K
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47.
48.
49.
Differentiate analog and digital signals (J-14)
The base current of a transistor is 30A and collector current is 15A. Find the value of
current gain α.
Draw the circuit diagram of a voltage regulator using diode.
(J-15)
(M-16)
50. What is LED .Give its symbol (O-16)
51. A galvanometer of resistance 100Ω which can measure a maximum current of 1mA is converted into
an ohmmeter by connecting a battery of emf 1V and a fixed resitance of 900Ω inseries.When an external
resistance is measured the current reading is 0.1mA .Calculatethe value of resistance. (M-17)
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14. Define lower cut-off frequency and upper cut off frequency. page no.147
15. What is known as feedback?Name the two types. page no.148
16. Distinguish between positive and negative feedback. page no.148
17. What is an oscillator? How they are classified? page no.150
18. What is an OP AMP? page no.164
19. What is a cathode ray oscilloscope? page no.169
20. What is a multimeter? page no.170
5 MARKS
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10.
11.
12
13.
Explain how multimeter is used as ohm-meter.(Multimeter diagram is not necessary) (M-11,O-15)
Explaint the functions of an operational amplifier as a summing amplifier.
Describe about N-type semi conductor.
Describe P- type semi conductor.
(J-12)
10 MARKS
1. With the circuit diagram, explain the working of a Bridge rectifier. Draw its input and
output signals. (M - 06, J - 07 ,M -10, J -10, O - 11, J – 12,M-14,J-16)
2. Explain with neat circuit diagram, the working of single stage CE amplifier.
Draw the frequency response curve and discuss the result. (J - 08, M- 11 M-13,O-16)
3. Sketch the circuit of a Colpitt’s oscillator and explain its working.
(J - 06, O - 06, M - 08, J - 09, J - 11, M – 12,J-14,O-15)
4. What is an operational amplifier ?With a circuit diagram, explain the working of an operational
amplifier as a summing amplifier. (M - 07, J – 12,15)
5. Explain the action of an operational amplifier as difference amplifier. (O - 07)
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6. What meant by feed back? Derive an expression for voltage gain of an amplifier with
negative feedback. (M – 09,J-13,M-15,17)
7. What is operational amplifier? Explain its action as (i) inverting amplifier
(ii) non-inverting amplifier. (O – 09, 13,M-16)
8. With the help of neat circuit diagram, explain the output characteristic of an NPN transistor
in CE mode and methods of finding the parameters. (J - 08, O -10, O -12)
9. With the help of neat circuit diagram, explain the input characteristic of an NPN transistor
in CE mode (O-14)
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4.
5.
In amplitude modulation, the band width is
a) equal to the signal frequency
c) thrice the signal frequency
In phase modulation
b) twice the signal frequency
(M-14,J-14,O-14)
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ANSWERS
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8.
c) 20 Hz to 200000 Hz
Skip distance is the shortest distance between
d) 20 Hz to 20000 Hz
c) the transmitter and the target d) the receiver and the target
9. An FM signal has a resting frequency of 105 MHz and highest frequency of 105.03 MHz,
when modulated by a signal. Then the carrier swing is (Mar 09)
a) 0.03 MHz b) 0.06 MHz c) 0.03 kHz d) 60 MHz
10. In an AM receiver, the local oscillator frequency is 2750 KHz. The tuned in station frequency
is (June 06)
a) 2905 kHz b) 2295 kHz c) 3055 kHz d) 2250 kHz
11. The principle used for transmission of light signals through optical fibre is
a) refraction b) diffraction
c) polarization d) total internal reflection (Mar 10, Oct 12)
12. For FM receivers, the intermediate frequency is (Oct 10,June 12)
a) 455 kHz b) 455 MHz c) 10.7 kHz d) 10.7 MHz
13. The intermediate frequency of the superheterodyne AM receiver is (June 11)
a) 455 kHz b) 10.7 MHz c) 455 Hz d) 455 MHz
14. In amplitude modulation (Oct 12)
a)the amplitude of the carrier wave varies in accordance with the amplitude of the modulating
signal b)the amplitude of the carrier wave remains constant
c) the amplitude of the carrier wave varies in accordance with the frequency of the modulating
signal d)modulating frequency lies in the audio range
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ANSWERS
1.(c) 2.(b) 3.(b) 4.(b) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7.(d) 8.(a) 9.(b) 10.(b) 11.(d) 12.(d) 13.(a)
14.(a) 15.(a) 16.(d) 17.(c) 18.(c)
3MARKS (1 X 3 =3 )
1. What are the advantages of digital communication? pg no.209 (M-07,J-10,M-13)
2. Define modulation factor in Amplitude Modulation.pg186 (M-6, J-8, O-9,M-10,J-11,13,M-15)
3. Write any three applications of RADAR. pg no.207 (J-06)
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4.
5.
6.
7.
What is meant by skip distance? pg184(J-7,M-8,J-9,O-10,M-11,J-12,O-13,M-14,O-15,M-16)
What is Fax? Mention its use.
What is the necessity of modulation?
Mention the advantages of frequency modulation.
pg no.210(O-06,14)
pg no.185(0 -08)
pg no.190(M-09)
8. Mention any three advantages of Fibre Optic Communication System. pg 212 (O-08,J-15)
9. What are the different types of radio wave propagation? pg no.181 (O-11,M-17)
10. What is amplitude modulation? pg no.186(M-12)
11. What is interlaced scanning? pg no.200 (O-12)
12. What is a Skip zone? page no.185(J-14)
13. Give 3 merits of the satellite communication. page no.213(J-16,O-16)
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5 MARKS
1. Mention the principle of RADAR and write its applications. (M-07, 10, 12, 13)
2. What is an optical fibre? Mention the advantages of fibre optical communication system.
OR Write a short note on fibre optical communication and mention its advantages.
(J-07,M-08,O-11,M-16)
3. What are the advantages and disadvantages of digital communication? (M-06, J-06, 08, 09, 12)
4. Explain space wave propagation of radiowaves. (O-06)
5. Draw the block diagram of AM radio transmitter. (O-07,10,M-14,O-15)
6. Mention the merits and demerits of satellite communication. (J-09,13,O-13,J-15)
7. Explain with the help of block diagram, the function of FM radio transmitter.
(O-08,09,10,J-11,O-12,J-14,16)
8. With the help of block diagram, explain the operation of an FM superheterodyne receiver.
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(M-09,15)
9. A 10 MHz sinusoidal carrier wave of amplitude 10mV is modulated by a 5kHz sinusoidal
audio signal wave of amplitude 6Mv.Find the frequency components of the resultant
modulated wave and their amplitudes. (M-11,17)
10. Write a note on modem.
11. What are the advantages and disadvantages of Frequency modulation. (O-16)
12. What are the different types of wire and cable used for telecommunication system
13. Draw.the block diagram of a simple RADAR system. (O-14)
10 MARKS
1. Make the analysis of amplitude modulated wave. Plot and explain frequency spectrum
(J - 06, O - 06, M - 08, M - 09, J - 10, O - 10,J – 12,M-13,J-14,16)
2. With the help of a functional block diagram. Explain the operation of a super heterodyne
AM receiver. (J - 07, M - 11, M -12,O-13,16)
3. With the help of a functional block diagram, explain the function of a monochrome
TV receiver. (M - 06, M - 07, M -10, J – 11,J-13,O-14,15)
4. With the help of block diagram, explain the function of various units in the
monochrome television transmitter (J - 08, O - 08, O – 09,J-15,M-16)
5. Explain the construction and working of a vidicon camera tube with neat diagram.
(J – 09,M-14)
6. With the help of block diagram, explain the function of radar system.(O -7,O -11,O–12,M-15,17)
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MCQ
1.ELECTROSTATICS
1. If the capacitances of the capacitors are 5 F and 30 F in air and dielectric filled capacitors,
then the relative permittivity of the medium is…………………………
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 4
2. When the distance between the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor is halved its capacitance
value is ……………………………..
(a) halved (b) doubled(c) the same (d) increased by four times
3. If the dimension of the charged body is small in comparison with the distance from the point of
consideration then the charged body is called as…………
(a)point charge (b)unit charge (c) in finite charge (d)small charge
4. The effective capacitance of two capacitors C1and C2 in parallel is …………
1 cc
(a) C1 C2 (b) (c) C1 +C2 (d) 1 2
c1 c2 c1 c2
5. The equivalent capacitance of n 1 identical capacitors connected in series is
1 (n 1) C
(a) n 1 C (b) (c) (d)
n 1 C C n 1
6. The induced dipole moment is given as ……………….
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7.
8.
(a) P=E
(a) 0
(b) P = / E
The dielectric constant of vacuum is ………….
(b) 1
(c) P = E
(c) 2
Vande Graf generator can produce voltage up to……………….
(d) P =
(d) 3
(a)107 volts (b) 5 105 volts (c) 6 106 volts (d) 1000 volts
9. The space between two charged metallic plates is filled partly by air and partly by fibre sheet of
r =5. The electric intensity in fibre sheet is ……………. times greater than that in air.
(a) 5 (b) 25 (c) 1/25 (d) 1/5
10. The angle between the direction of electric field and an equipotential surface is…………
(a) zero (b) 90O (c) 180O (d) 60O
11. If the potential difference between two points 2 cm apart in an electric field is 20 V, the electric
field intensity between these points will be around …………………
(a) 20 V/m (b) 40 V/m (c) 10 V/m (d) 10 V/cm
12. The work done in moving a unit positive charge from a point where the potential V1 to another
of V2 is …………….
(a) V1-V2 (b) V2-V1 (c) V1V2 (d) zero
13. The electric potential at infinity from a point charge q is ……………
(a) zero (b) infinity (c) 2q (d) q/2
14. The potential at a point near an isolated positive charge is ………….
(a) positive (b) negative (c) zero (d) either positive or negative
15. The potential energy of a system of charges 3C and 3C separated by a distance of 9 m is
(a) 3 109 Joules (b) 9 109 Joules (c) 27 109 Joules (d) 1/9 109 Joules
16. The electric potential at a point due to a charge of 100 micro coulomb at a distance of 9 metres
is ……………..
(a) 9V (b) 100 V (c) 100 micro volt (d) 105V
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17. Which law relates the flux through any closed surface and the net charge enclosed within the
surface ?
(a) Ampere’s law (b) Coulomb’s law (c) Gauss’s law (d) Maxwell’s law
18. A positive charge is brought nearer to the end of an insulated conductor. Now that end is
(a) + vely charged (b) negatively charged (c) neutral (d) charged by both +ve and –ve
19. In which of the following shapes of a conductor the electrical charge is distributed uniformly
throughout the surface…………
(a)dumb-bell (b)cone (c) sphere (d) ellipsoid
20. The direction of electric field due to dipole along its axial line is ……..
(a) from –q to +q (b) from +q to –q
(c) inclined to the axial line (d) perpendicular to the axial line
21. Two equal and similar charges of 1 C separated by a distance of 2 m in air experiences
(a) attractive force of 9 X 109N (b) repulsive force of 2.25 X 109N
9
(c) attractive force of 4.5 X 10 N (d) repulsive force of 9 X 10 9N
22. If the distance between two charges is doubled the electrostatic force between the charges will
be (a) four times more (b) four times less
(c) increased two times (d) decreased two times
24.
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The force between two charges in a medium of permittivity is ……….
(a) F
1 q1q2
4 r 2
(b) F
1 q1q2
4 0 r 2
qq
(c) F 0 1 2 2
4 r
(d) F
q1q2
4 r 2
25. +1 coulomb is placed at a distance of 1 metre from another +1 coulomb charge. The repulsive
force between them is ……………
(a) 2 107 N (b) 9 109 N (c) 9 109 N (d) 4 107 N
ANSWERS
1.(a) 2.(b) 3.(a) 4.(c) 5.(d) 6.(c) 7.(b) 8.(a) 9.(d) 10(b) 11(d) 12(b) 13(a) 14(b) 15(b)
16(d) 17(c) 18(b) 19(c) 20(a) 21(b) 22(b) 23(a) 24(a) 25(c)
2.CURRENT ELECTRICITY
1. The resistances of a conducting wire is 10 . Thr resistance of another wire whose length is
halved and the area is doubled made up of same material is…..
(a) 10 (b) 40 (c) 2.5 (d) 25
2. The value of the carbon resistor whose colours are red, green, yellow is …….
(a) 250 (b) 230 (c) 230 K (d) 250 K
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3. Two wires each of length 1.3m and 2.6m which are having 0.32mm and 0.16mm as radii
respectively made up of the same material. The ratio of resistances of the wire is ……………..
(a) 8 : 1 (b) 1: 8 (c) 1:4 (d) 4:1
4. When the diameter of the conductor is doubled ,its resistance
a) decreases twice b) decreases four times
c) decreases sixteen times d) increases four times
5. Ohm’s law is true only when ………………………….
(a) temperature increases (b) temperature decreases
(c) temperature neither increases not decreases (d) temperature increases and decreases
9. The principle of potentiometer is that the emf or potential difference connected in the secondary
is directly proportional to …………………..
(a) its balancing length (b) square of its balancing length
(c) reciprocal of its balancing length (d) reciprocal of square of its balancing length
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10.
11.
Mass of substance liberated at an electrode during electrolysis is …………….
(a) m zi 2t (b) m z 2i t
(a) Zinc rod (b) copper rod (c) copper vessel (d) glass vessel
13. The name of the key used in comparison of emfs using a potentiometer is ……
(a) six way key (b) jockey (c) pluck key (d) DPDT switch
1 1 1 1
(a) RP R1 R2 R3 (b)
RP R1 R2 R3
1 1 1 1
(c) R1 R2 R3 (d) RP
RP R1 R2 R3
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20. The formula to calculate the resistivity of the material of a wire is ……….
Pr 2 P r P r2 Pr
(a) (b) (c) (d)
L L L L
21. The drift velocity does not depend on
a) the mass of the electron b) the average relaxation time
c) the charge of the electron d) the magnetic field
22. Superconductivity was first noticed in
a) aluminium b) mercury c) copper d) lead
23. The direction of the conventional current is
a) opposite to the direction of flow of electrons
b) opposite to the direction of flow of positive ions
c) along the direction of flow of electrons
d) perpendicular to the direction of flow of electrons
24. Resistance of a metal wire of length 10cm is 2Ω .If the wire is stretched uniformly to 50 cm,the
resistance is
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25.
a) 20Ω b) 25Ω c) 30Ω d) 50Ω
The cells from which the electric energy is derived by irreversible chemical reactions are called
a) primary cell b) secondary cell c) voltaic cell d) none
ANSWERS
1.(c) 2.(d) 3.(c) 4.(b) 5.(c) 6.(a) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10(c) 11(a) 12(b) 13(d) 14(b) 15(c)
16(d) 17(b) 18(d) 19(c) 20(c) 21(d) 22(b) 23(a) 24(d) 25(a)
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14. If the number of turns in a galvanometer is doubled ……………………
(a) the current sensitivity is halved
(c) the voltage sensitivity is doubled
(b) the voltage sensitivity is halved
(d) the voltage sensitivity remain uncharged
15. Phosphor – bronze wire is used as suspension wire in a galvanometer because ………………
(a) it is able to withstand more weight (b) it has large couple per unit twist
(c) it has small couple per unit twist (d) its elasticity is very low
16. A water heater is marked 1500 W ,220V .If the voltage drops to180 V ,Calculate the power
consumed by the heater
a) 1004W b) 1500W c) 2kW d) 500W
17. Thermo emf does not depend on
a) the material of the two conductors b) temperature of hot junction
c) temperature of cold junction d) length of the conductors
18. Two parallel wires carrying same current in same direction will experience
a) no force b) attractive force c) repulsive force d) magnetic Lorenz force
19. Peltier coefficient at a junction of a thermo couple depend on
a) the current in the thermocouple b) time for which current flows
c) temperature of junction d) charge that passes through the thermocouple
20. Heating elements have
a) low specific resistance b) low melting point
c) low resistance d) high specific resistance
21. When the charge moves perpendicular to the field the magnetic Lorenz force experienced is
a) maximum b) minimum c) zero d) infinity
22. The force experienced by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is
a) along the axis of the conductor b) perpendicular to the conductor
c) in the direction of the current d) opposite to the direction of current
23. For a given thermocouple,the neutral temperature is
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ANSWERS
1.(a) 2.(d) 3.(c) 4.(c) 5.(b) 6.(d) 7.(b) 8.(a) 9.(b) 10(c) 11(d) 12(c) 13(d) 14(d) 15(c)
16(a) 17(d) 18(b) 19(c) 20(d) 21(b) 22(b) 23(c) 24(d) 25(b)
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5.
(a)
Weber ampere
turns
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13. A transformer has 550 turns on the primary and operates on 220V mains. To get an output
voltage of 10V , the number of turns in the secondary must be ……….
(a) 4 (b) 100 (c) 50 (d) 25
14. In a step up transformer the transformer ratio (k) …………….
(a) K = 0 (b) K > 1 (c) K< 2 (d) K< 1
15. In an ideal transformer …………….
(a) Input power = output power (b) Input power output power
(c) Input power > output power (d) Input power < out put power
16. Power over a complete cycle of an inductor circuit is given as ……………
2 2
E0 I 0 E0 I 0
(a) P
2 0
sin tdt (b) P
2 0
sin 2tdt
2 2
EI EI
(c) P 0 0 sin 2tdt (d) P 0 0 cos 2tdt
2 0 2 0
17. When the plane of the coil is at right angles to B the induced emf is
(a) zero (b) maximum (c) minimum (d) infinity
18. When the plane of the coil is parallel to B the induced emf is ………….
(a) zero (b) maximum (c) minimum (d) infinity
19. The frequency of current produced by an AC generator is equal to …….
(a) number of rotations of armature in one minute
(b) number of rotations of armature in one second
(c) 1/60th rotations of armature in one hour
(d) 1/100th rotations of armature in one hour
20. The motion of the coil in a galvanometer is damped because of the ………
21.
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(a) suspension head
(c) formation of eddy currents
ANSWERS
1.(d) 2.(a) 3.(c) 4.(b) 5.(d) 6.(d) 7.(a) 8.(d) 9.(c) 10(c) 11(a) 12(c) 13(d) 14(b) 15(a)
16(d) 17(a) 18(b) 19(b) 20(c) 21(b) 22(c) 23(a) 24(b) 25(d)
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8.
(c) less than 10 sec
9. In an electromagnetic wave the angle between the direction of propagation of the wave and the
magnetic component is ………………..
(a) 0o (b) 30o (c) 45o (d) 90o
10. In corpuscular theory when corpuscles approach a surface between two media they are
attracted. This explains ………………
(a) Refraction (b) Reflection (c) Diffraction (d) Polarisation
11. Light waves pass through vacuum because they are …………………
(a) longitudinal in nature (b) transverse in nature
(c) electromagnetic in nature (d) mechanical waves in nature
12. If an ink dot marked on a sheet of paper is viewed through calcite while rotating the
crystal……………………………
(a) both the images are stationary
(b) the ordinary image is stationary and the extra ordinary image revolves
(c) the extraordinary image is stationary and the ordinary image revolves
(d) both the images revolve.
13. In Raman spectrum stoke’s lines are lines of………………………
(a) same wavelength as that of incident radiation (b) greater wavelengths
(c) shorter wavelengths (d) particular wavelengths
14. The dark lines found in the solar spectrum are useful to ……………….
(a) determine the temperature of the sun (b) to study the sun’s surface
(c) to identify the elements in the sun’s atmosphere (d) to study about the planets.
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17. A pure green glass when placed in the path of white light gives………….
(a) continuous emission spectrum (b) continuous absorption spectrum
(c) Line emission spectrum (d) Line absorption spectrum
18. Along the optic axis the refractive index of a calcite crystal for extraordinary ray
is…………….
(a) 1.486 (b) 1.532 (c) 1.615 (d) 1.658
19. The polarizing angle of water is ……………………………..
(a) 52.50 (b) 530 4’ (c) 57.50 (d) 47.50
20. The expression for the radius of the 4 th dark Newton’s ring is………….
(a) rn R (b) rn nR (c) rn (n 1) R (d) rn R
21. In an electromagnetic wave the angle between electric component and magnetic component is
(a) 900 (b) 600 (c) 450 (d) 300
22. According to Huygens the light waves …………
a) are longitudinal b) are transverse c)electromagnetic d) longitudinal & transverse
23. The refractive index of calcite crystal for sodium light corresponding to the extraordinary
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24.
ray…..
(a) varies from 1.486 to 1.658 (b) 1.658 (c)1.568
When white light is passed through dilute solution of blood …………. is produced
a) line absorption spectrum
c) band spectrum
b) band absorption spectrum
d) continuous spectrum
(d)1.868
ANSWERS
1.(c) 2.(c) 3.(a) 4.(b) 5.(a) 6.(b) 7.(c) 8.(c) 9.(d) 10(a) 11(b) 12(b) 13(b) 14(c) 15(b)
16(c) 17(b) 18(a) 19(b) 20(b) 21(a) 22(a) 23(a) 24(b) 25(d)
6 . ATOMIC PHYSICS
1. The specific charge of proton (e/mp) is 9.6 x 107 C/kg. Then the specific charge of alpha
particle (e/m) is……………………
(a) 1.92x108 C/kg (b) 4.8x107 C/kg (c) 2.4x107 C/kg (d) 3.84x 108 C/kg
2. According to J.J Thomson the body of the atom without electrons is ………
(a) positively charged sphere (b) positively charges cube
(c) negatively charged sphere (d) negatively charged cube
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13.
(a) normal pressure (b) very low pressure (c) very high pressure (d) none of the above.
Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Cathode rays are not deflected by magnetic field
(b) Cathode rays are not deflected by electric field
(c) Cathode rays travel with the velocity of canal rays
(d) Cathode rays possess momentum and kinetic energy
14. By stoke’s law the viscous force on the oil drop due to air is ………
(a) 6 a (b) 6 V (c) 6 V (d) 6 aV
15. The nucleus of an atom is ………………..
(a) positively charged (b) negatively charged
(c) neutral (d) positively and negatively charged
16. The wave number of the first line of Lyman series is equal to ………….
(a) 3R / 4 (b) 3R / 16 (c) 3R / 36 (d) 5R / 36
17. Which one of the following is elliptical in shape ?
(a) 1s (b) 2s (c) 2p (d) 3d
18. The kinetic energy of an electron in the nth orbit is given by …………..
Z 2 me4 Zme4 Z 2 me4 Z 2 me4
(a) Ek (b) Ek 2 2 (c) Ek 2 2 2 (d) Ek 2 2 2
8 0 n 2 h 2 8 0 n h 8 0 n h 8 0 n h
19. X – rays are not deflected by electric field. The reason is that they are ……
(a) not charged particles (b) charged particles
(c) traveling with very high velocity (d) high frequency
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21. The angle of deflection of particle coming closer to the nucleus of atom is ……..
(a) 0 (b) 90O (c) 180 O (d) 45 O
ANSWERS
1.(b) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(a) 6.(b) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(b) 10(c) 11(b) 12(b) 13(b) 14(d) 15(a)
16(a) 17(b) 18(c) 19(a) 20(a) 21(c) 22(d) 23(c) 24(b) 25(c)
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19.
20.
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c) velocity of e- emitted
The workfuction of caesium oxide is
a) high
d) wavelength of incident radiation
b) low
The stopping potential does not depend on
a)the intensity of incident light
c) zero d)infinity
25. The velocity ratio of proton and α –particle when they are accelerated by the same potential ‘V’
is
a)1:1 b) √ :1 c) 1:2 d) 2:1
ANSWERS
1.(b) 2.(b) 3.(a) 4.(a) 5.(b) 6.(c) 7.(a) 8.(a) 9.(d) 10(b) 11(c) 12(a) 13(b) 14(a) 15(c)
16(a) 17(b) 18(b) 19(b) 20(a) 21(a) 22(d) 23(b) 24(a) 25(d)
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8. NUCLEAR PHYSICS
1. The half life period of a radioactive element is 15 hours. At the end of 30 hours the fraction of
the radioactive element remaining is……………….
(a) 0 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/4
2. If 15/16 of an artificial radioactive element decays in 176 seconds, Its half life is ………
(a) 44s (b) 42 s (c) 40 s (d) 45 s
3. The power of radiation which produces death immediately is ……………
(a) 250 mR (b) 100 R (c) 600 R (d) 1000 R
4. The percentage of initial quantity of a radioactive element remaining un decayed after six half
life periods is……………….
(a) 1.5 % (b) 3 % (c) 6.25 % (d) 1 %
5. 1 Curie is equal to activity of 1 gram of…………………….
(a) Uranium (b) Radium (c) thorium (d) Polonium
6. Radio isotope used to diagnose anemia is………………….
(a) I131 (b) Co60 (c) Na24 (d) Fe59
7. Maximum mass of leptons is…………………..
(a) 207 times Me (b) 270 times Me (c) 250 times Me (d) 273 times Me
8. Muons belong to………………………
(a) photons (b) leptons (c) baryons (d) mesons
9. Breeder reactor is one in which ………………
(a) no conversion takes place (b) both 92U 235 and 92U 238 are fissionable
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10.
(c) 92 U 235 is converted into
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21. Which one of the following is not deviated in its path when it goes through a magnetic field ?
(a) rays (b) rays (c) rays (d) Cathode rays
22. Which one of the following travel with velocity equal to that of light ?
(a) rays (b) rays (c) rays (d) Cathode rays
23. The secondary cosmic rays are produced as a result of reaction of primary cosmic rays with
nuclei of ……………………….
(a) O2 and N2 (b) O2 and H2 (c) O2 and C (d) N2 and C
24. A chain reaction is possible only when the mass of the fissionable material is…………………..
(a) infinity (b) equal to a critical mass
(c) less than the critical mass (d) greater than the critical mass
25. The cosmic ray intensity is minimum at the equator because of …………..
(a) magnetic field of earth (b) gravitational field
(c) rotation of earth (d) orientation of earth
1.(d) 2.(a) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(b) 6.(d) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(d) 10(d) 11(b) 12(a) 13(c) 14(a) 15(a)
16(d) 17(c) 18(a) 19(d) 20(b) 21(c) 22(c) 23(d) 24(d) 25(a)
2.
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(c) Tuned collector oscillator (d) Multivibrator
Since the input impedance of an ideal operational amplifier is infinite,
(a) its input current is zero
(b) its output resistance is high
(c) its output voltage becomes independent of load resistance
(d) it becomes a current controlled device
3. The specific resistance of a semi-conductor lies between ……………….
(a) 10-8 to 10-2 m (b) 10-2 m to 104 m (c) 104 to 108 m (d) 0 and
4. The resistance of a semiconductor …………….. with increase in temperature.
(a) remains constant (b) increases (c) decreases (d) increase and decrease
5. In the negative feed back amplifier …………….
(a) AF is always equal to A (b) AF is always less than A
(c) AF is always greater than A (d) AF is always greater than 2A
6. Which one of the following is not a semiconductor ?
(a) Ge (b) Si (c) In (d) Sb
7. In a positive logic 0 represents …………….
(a) ON (b) high voltage (c) true statement (d) OFF
8. The forbidden energy gap in insulator is ………..
(a) more than 3 eV (b) less than 3 eV (c) equal to 3 eV (d)
9. The forbidden energy gap in glass is of the order of ……….
(a) 3 eV (b) 5 ev (c) 7 eV (d) 10 eV
10. The vacancy for an electron is called ………
(a) hole (b) proton (c) positive vacancy (d) negative vacancy
11. The impurity added in the process of doping is in the order of ……..
(a) 1000 ppm (b) 10 ppm(c) 100 ppm (d) 10000 ppm
12. The potential barrier of a germanium diode is ……..
(a) 0.3 V (b) 3 V (c) 7 V (d) 2 V
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13. In forward biased PN junction diode the internal potential barrier is ……..
(a) opposite to the applied voltage (b) in the same direction of the applied voltage
(c) having no relation with applied voltage (d) zero
14. For proper working of a transistor, the required biasing is ……………..
(a) emitter base junction and collector base junction forward biased
(b) emitter base junction forward biased and collector base junction reverse biased
(c) emitter base junction reverse biased and collector base junction forward biased
(d) emitter base junction and collector base junction reverse biased
15. The NOR gate is represented by the Boolean equation ……………….
(a) A.B = C (b) A+B=C (c) B = A (d) A B C
16. In regenerative feedback amplifiers the overall gain ………………..
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) constant (d) decreases and increases
17. In a diode at forward bias the voltage at which the current starts to increase rapidly is…………
(a) cut off voltage (b) stopping potential (c) knee voltage (d) critical voltage
18. In diode forward bias current is in the order of ……….
(a) ampere (b) milli ampere (c) micro ampere (d) few ampere
19. In half wave rectifier ………… number of diodes are used.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
20. The load voltage in bridge rectifier is …………
(a) same as that of full wave rectifier (b) half of that of full wave rectifier
(c) twice that of full wave rectifier (d) four times that of full wave rectifier
21. In PN junction diode reverse current depends on ………..
(a) potential barrier (b) junction current (c) forward current
(d) junction temperature
22.
23.
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In negative feed back the phase difference between input signal and feed back signal is ..………
(a) 00
(a) NPN
(b) 450 (c) 900
(b) PNP
(d) 1800
If the middle layer is P and the other two layers N type then the transistor is known as
(c) PNN (d) NNP
24. Which one of the following is not an active component ?
(a) Capacitor (b) Transistor (c)Diode (d) IC
ANSWERS
1.(d) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(b) 6.(d) 7.(d) 8.(a) 9.(d) 10(a) 11(c) 12(a) 13(a) 14(b) 15(d)
16(a) 17(c) 18(b) 19(a) 20(c) 21(d) 22(d) 23(a) 24(a) 25(a)
10.COMMUNICATON SYSTEMS
1. Surface waves are the radio waves which travel………………….
(a) along the normal to the surface of the earth (b) along the surface of the earth
(c) along the line of sight of earth (d) along the poles of the earth
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4. The difference between maximum frequency of USB and minimum frequency of LSB is ……
(a) channel width (b) modulation factor (c) frequency deviation (d) carrier swing
5. In FM transmitter, the main function of buffer is to isolate……..
(a) phase modulator from power amplifier (b) crystal oscillator from the phase modulator
(c) crystal oscillator from power amplifier
(d) phase modulator from AF amplifier
6. In vidcon camera tube, the resistance of the photoconductive layer decreases……………
(a) as the intensity of light decreases
(b) as the intensity of light increases
(c) as the frequency of light increases (d) as the frequency of light decreases
7. A high negative potential given to the control grid…………………….
(a) prevents emission of electrons from the electron gun
(b) provides emission of electrons from the electron gun
(c) prevents emission of secondary electrons from the electron gun
(d) produces secondary electrons from electron gun
8. In a 625 line system, the vertical field scan time is………………
(a) 20 s (b) 64 s (c) 20ms (d) 64ms
9. The control grid in monochrome picture tube is used to………………
(a) control the intensity of electron beam (b) produce the brightness of the spot
(c) control the intensity of electron beam and brightness of spot
(d) controls secondary electron emission
10. In twisted pair cable, the wire is twisted………………….
(a) to minimize the power (b) to minimize external noise
(c) to control interference in the transmission of light (d) to achieve maximum efficiency
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11.
12.
The uplink frequency of a practical satellite is……………….
(a) 5.725-70.075 GHz (b) 3.4-4.8 GHz (c) 5.075-7.725 GHz (d) 4.8-3.4GHz
In TV reception the carrier waves carrying both audio and video signals are first converted into
(a) low frequency waves (b) intermediate frequency waves
(c) high frequency waves (d) ultra high frequency waves
13. The primary colours used in TV are……………..
(a) red, green and blue (b) green, blue and yellow
(c) red, violet and yellow (d) red, blue and yellow
14. The amplitude of side bands is ……….
E mEc
(a) Ec (b) c (c) (d) mEc
2 2
15. A saw tooth potential to vertical deflector plates is called…………….
(a) blanking pulse (b) field synchronizing pulse
(c) line synchronizing pulse (d)frame synchronizing pulse
16. The waves used by Radar to defect and fix the target is
a) Radio waves b) micro waves c) IR rays d) UV Rays
17. Ionosphere contains
a) free electrons,positive and negative ions b) electrons and protons
c) protons and α particles d) α particles and electrons
18. The superposition of a signal voltage on a carrier wave is called
a) modulation b) demodulation
c) synchronization d) none of these
19. The frequency of the LSB and USB components in an AM wave are 995 kHz and 1000 kHz
respectively then the frequency of the carrier is
a) 1 kHz b) 1MHz c) 10kHz d) 100kHz
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ANSWERS
1.(b) 2.(d) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7.(a) 8.(c) 9.(a) 10(b) 11(a) 12(b) 13(a) 14(c) 15(d)
16(a) 17(a) 18(a) 19(b) 20(a) 21(d) 22(a) 23(c) 24(a) 25(b)
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1.ELECTROSTATICS
1. Two charges are kept at a distance in air.What should be the relative permeability of the
medium in which two charges should be kept at same distance so that they experience
half of the force they experience in air?
a)0.2 b)1 c)2 d)1/2
2. The forces between two charges in vacuum is 0.1N.What is the force if the vacuum is
replaced by medium whose permittivity is 10 times that of the vacuum?
a)10N b)1N c)0.1N d)0.01N
3. A dipole consists of an electron and a proton 10-9 m apart. Calculate the electric potential
at a distance of 4 x 10-4 m from the centre of dipole on the axial line nearer to the proton.
a)9 x 10-12 V b)9 x 1012 eV c)9 X 1012V d)9 x 10-12eV
4. The charge on a given capacitor is 5C and its capacitance is 2 F.If the charge on the
capacitor is doubled.Then the capacitance is________
a)2 F b)4 F c)1 F d)10 F
5. A parallel plate condenser has oil between the plates ( =2)has a capacitance C.If the oil is
removed then the capacitance of the capacitor becomes……
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a) C b) 2C c) C/√ d) C/2
6. The area of each plate of a parallel plate capacitor is increased by two times.The thickness
of the dielectric medium between the plates remain same and if the relative permittivity
of the dielectric of the medium is increased by two times .Then the capacitance of the
new capacitor is….
a) increased by 4 times b) decreased by 4 times c) remains same d) none of these
7. A parallel plate capacitor has rectangular plates of 400 cm2 and are separated by a distance
of 2mm with air as medium.The charge that will appear on the plates if the potential
difference applied 200V is
a)3.54 x 10-8C b) 35.4 x 10-8C c) 354 x 10-8C d) 3.5 x 10-9C
8. Two charged metal spheres of radii 2 cm and 5 cm are connected by a wire .The ratio of
the surface charge densities is…. a) 2.5 b) 0.4 c) 12.5 d) 5
10. The total flux over a closed surface enclosing a charge q is…….
a) 8 q b) 16 q c) q d) 36 x 109q
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+2 PHYSICS
83 MJK
F
1. = 6 C1 =
= = C2 =
/
× ×
= 2 C2 =
=4 = 4 C1
2. = = 0.1N
7. C1 = =
= q =
. × − × × ×
. =
= = =0.01N × −
−
q = 3.54 × C
3. 𝜎
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V =
× × . × −
× −
8.
𝜎
=
𝜎
= = 2.5
= −
9. E =
×
4. =
10. =
= = 9x 109
= 4 = 36 x 109 q
5. = 2
C1 =
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+2 PHYSICS
84 MJK
2.CURRENT ELECTRICITY
1. The potential difference between two plates separated by a distance of 5ocm is 200
volts.The electric field between them is ……………..
a) 200 Vm-1 b) 400 Vm-1 c) 800 Vm-1 d) 500 Vm-1
2. A current of 10 A flows through a conductor of cross section 1mm with 1028 electrons
/m3
The drift velocity is………
a)100 ms-1 b) 160 ms-1 c)1/160 ms-1 d) 1ms-1
5. Two wires of the same material and length have resistance 16Ω and 4Ω
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6.
respectively.The ratio of the diameters of two wires is …….
a) √ b) √ c) 2 d) 3
The resistance of a conductor of length 1m and area 2m2 is r.Then its conductivity…….
a) 1/r b) 1/2r c) 2r d) r/2
8. A cell of emf 2 volts sends a current of 0.5 ampere through a resistance of 3 ohms.The
internal resistance of the cell is ……..
a) 0.66ohm b) 1 ohm c) 4 ohms d) 1.5 ohms
10. Resistance of metal wire of length 10cm is 2Ω.If the wire is stretched uniformly to 50cm,the
resistance is
a) 25Ω b) 10 Ω c)5 Ω d) 50 Ω
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85 MJK
V
1. = 6 r = ×
= 2r
= −
= 4× = 400Vm-1
×
𝜎 = =
7. 𝑅 = 𝑅 (1+ t)
2. 𝑉 = = − − =
+
× × . × +
+ = 6+300
= ms-1
200 =1 ; =1/200
5= 𝑅 +
×
3. 𝑅 = +
= = =
+ × +
𝑉
I = 𝑅
= = 4Ω
× ×
= − =
. × × . 8. V =IR ; 2 = 0.5 ( 3+r) r= 1Ω
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= 3.125 x 1019
= ; PQ = 4AB
×
10 R = ; 2 = x 5
5. = =
R1 =2 x 5= 10Ω
=√ = √ =2
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86 MJK
2. 2A and 3A currents are passed through the heating element of an iron box.The ratio of
quantity of heat evolve is………
a) 2:4 b)3:2 c) 4:9 d) 9:4
3. In a thermocouple the neutral temperature is 320º C.If the temperature of the cold
junction is 310ºC,the temperature of inversion will be…….
a) 350 ºC b) 640 ºC c) 610 ºC d) 290 ºC
4. When a current of 9A is passed through a coil a coil 15cm radius a magnetic field of
37.68 x 10-5 T is produced at the centre of the coil .The number of turns is ………
a) 2 b) 5 c) 10 d) 15
5. The magnetic field of given length of wire for single turn coil at its centre is B. When
the same wire is made into 2 turns the new magnetic induction for the same current
is…….
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6.
a) B/4
An
b)B/2 c) 4B d) 2B
8. A galvanometer has internal resistance of 20Ω .It gives maximum deflection for a
current of 30mA.The resistance to be connected in series to convert it into a
voltmeter of maximum reading 3V is…..
a) 40Ω b) 49Ω c) 22Ω d) 80Ω
10. A current of 2A flows through a circularcoil of area 4π x 10-2 m2.The magnetic field
at the centre of the coil is……
a) 62.8 x 10-6 T b) 628 x 10-6 T c) 6.28 x 10-6 T d) 3.14 x 10-6 T
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87 MJK
1.
6. F = Bqv sin
=
= 1 × (2 x 1.6 x 10-19 ) x 106 x sin 90º
=
× × ×
= = 3.2 x 10-13 N
× × ×
H1: H2 = 1:4
2. × −
7. F =
= = = 𝑎
× −
0.5 =
H1: H2 = 4:9 .
×
I2 =
3. 𝑖 = 2 − I = 125A
= 2× 320º −30º
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4. B =
𝑎
× − × ×
9. 2πr = 4 ; r = =
. × −
= ×
× × − A = πr2 = × =
n = 10
M = IA = 2× =
= 4
= 6.28 x 10-6 T
B2 = 4B
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88 MJK
2. If the current is doubled in a coil,then the energy stored is how much times the
previous value ?
a) ½ b) ¼ c) 2 d) 4
a) b) c) d)
4. An ideal transformer has a power input of 10kW.The secondary current is 25
ampere.If the ratio of the number of turns in the primary and the secondary is 5:1
then the potential difference applied to the primary is …….
a) 2000V b) 1250V c) 250V d) 50V
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5. The current drawn by the primary coil of a step down transformer which steps
down 220V to 22V with an output power of 22W
a)22 ampere b) 10 ampere c) 1 ampere d) 0.1 ampere
10. 420kW of electric power is supplied to a small town at a distance 8km away from
the power plant .The transmission wire has total resistance of 0.33 ohm.What is
the power loss if the power is transmitted at 21,000 V ?
a) 0.132kW b) 0.825kW c) 1.32 x 104kW d) 1.32kW
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89 MJK
1.
6. tan =
𝜔 =
√
= −
tan45º =
√ . × ×
= √ −
= − XL = R
× ×
= 166 s-1
3. 𝐼 = 8. Irms =
√
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𝑣 = 5 × 1.414 = 7.707V
4. 𝐼 = 10,000 W
9. = ( P= I2R)
𝐼 = 25A
,
ES = =400V = =
𝑝 𝑁𝑝
= 𝑁 𝑃 = 250W
𝑝
=5 EP = 2000V 10.
×
P= VI I= = = 20A
5. 𝐼 = 22 W
Power loss = I2 R
= 220V = 20x 20 x 0.33
= 22V = 132W
𝐼 = = = 0.132 kW
𝑆
= 1A
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90 MJK
1. The path difference between two monochromatic light waves of wavelength 4000Å
is 2x 10-7m .The phase difference between them is……..
a) b) 2 c) 3 /2 d) /2
2. The energy of the photon is 3 x 10-19 J.The momentum of the photon is equal to …….
a) 3 x 10-11 kgms-1 b) 9 x 1011 kgms-1 c) 10 x 10-28 kgms-1 d) 10 x 10-26 kgms-1
3. In Raman effect if the wavelength of incident light and Anti stokes lines are 5461Å
and 5441Å respectively. The wavelength of the stokes line is……..
a) 5451Å b) 5481Å c) 5461Å d) 5420Å
5. In Young’s double slit experiment if the separation between the slit is halved and the
distance between the slit and screen is doubled .The fringe width will be ……
a) halved b) unchanged c) doubled d) 4 times the original
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6. In young’s double slit experiment ,the distance of screen from the plane of the coherent
sources is D = 2m and fringe width is 4 mm .When the distance D is increased to 2.5 m,
fringe width becomes
a) 5 mm b) 4 mm c) 3 mm d) 2 mm
7. In Young’s double slit experiment light of = 5.48 x 10-7 m and 6.85 x 10-8 m be used
in turn keeping the D and d constant.The ratio of fringe widths in the two cases is…..
a) 6 b) 8 c) 2 d) 4
8. In Newton’s ring experiment ,the radius of 10th ring is 7.07 Å.If the lens is replaced by
another lens having radius of curvature half of first lens,then the radius of the same ring
will be …..
a) 3.535 Å b) 14.14 Å c) 5 Å d)1.768 Å
9. In Newton’s ring experiment,the ratio of the radii of the 4th ring and 9th ring is…….
a) 4:9 b) 2:3 c) 16:81 d) √ : √
10. Light is incident normal on a grating of 0.005m wide with 2500 lines.The angle of
Diffraction for the first order maximum of the sodium line of wavelength = 5890Å
is ….
a) 0.2945 b)sin 0.2945 c) 2.945 d) sin -1(0.2945)
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91 MJK
1.
6. D1= 1 = 4mm D2= .
=
β
=
× × −
=
− β
×
= . −
2 = = 5x 10-3 = 5mm
2.
E = mc2
P = mc β
7. =
−
β
×
p = = ×
= 10-27
. −
= 10 x10-28 kgms-1 = − =8
. ×
8. = nR
3. = 5461Å
− Δ = 5441 Å = 𝑅 =
Δ = 5461-5441 = 20 Å
.
+ Δ = 5461+ 20=5481 Å = = (7.07)2 x =
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4.
𝑎
𝑎
=
+
r2 =
.
√
=
.
.
= 5Å
𝑎𝑥
= − 9. = √nR
𝑖
+
4 = √
−
= 3
r4: r9 = √ : √
= 2:3
a1:a2 = 3:1
10. sin = Nm
× . × −
5. = =
.
1
= sin = 0.2945
=4
=sin -1( 0.2945)
= 4
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92 MJK
6.ATOMIC PHYSICS
1. The charge of an electron is 1.6 x 10-19 C .What is the energy gained by the cathode
particles when a voltage of 800V applied ?
a) 2 x 10-21 J b) 8 x 10-17 J c) 1.28 x 10-18 J d) 1.28 x 10-16 J
2. Velocity ratio of two cathode rays is 1:2.They are applied to same electric field .What is
the deflection ratio of the two cathode rays ?
a) 1:2 b) 1:4 c) 4:1 d) 2:1
3. If radius of second orbit electron for hydrogen atom is 2.12Å .What is the radius of 3rd
orbit?
a)47.77Å b) 38.35Å c)4.77 Å d) 4777 Å
4. A charge oil drop of mass 9.75 x 10-12g is suspended in a uniform electric field of
300V/cm so that it neither falls nor raises the charge on the drop is……
a) 3.185 x 10-19 C b) 31.85 x 1019 C c) 31.85 x 10-19 C d) 3.185 x 10-21 C
5. An oil drop carrying a charge q has mass m kg.It is falling freely in air with terminal
velocity v. The electric field required to make oil drop move upwards with same speed
is…..
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6.
a)
𝑔
b)
𝑔
c)
𝑔𝑣
d)
The energy required to remove an electron from first orbit of hydrogen atom to
outside the atom is
𝑔𝑣
8. The glancing angle at which intense reflections occur for monochromatic X-rays from
a crystal whose atomic spacing is 1.5Å is 30º .Then the wavelength of first order
spectrum is….
a) 1.5Å b)√ Å c) 1.5√ Å d)0.15Å
10. An electron at rest is accelerated through an electric field of 200 Vm-1 if the specific
charge of electron is ‘x’ C/kg, the velocity
a) 200 ms-1 b) 200 ms c) 20√ ms-1 d) 20 √ ms-1
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93 MJK
1.
6. Energy required
Energy gained = eV
− . − .
-19
= 1.6 X 10 X 800 = -[ ]
∞
-16
= 1.28 X 10 J
= 0+13.6=13.6eV
Å × −
2. = 7. V = = . × −
𝑖
∝ = 24800V
V1:V2 = 1:2
= = 8. 2dsin = n
× . ×
y1: y2 = 4:1 = Å
×
= 1.5Å
3. rn = n 2 r1
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9.
r3 = 2.12 x =4.77Å ̅ = R[ - ] =
4. mg = Eq −
=
𝑔
q =
= 16
. X − X .
= n = 4
×
= 31.85 X 10-19 C
5. mg = 6 10. eV = mv2
Eq = mg + 6
= mg+mg =2mg 2V( ) = v2 v2 = 2× 200
𝑔
E= v = 20√ ms-1
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94 MJK
1. The work function of a photo electric material is 3.3eV .The threshold frequency
would be…..
a) 8 x 1013 Hz b) 8 x 1014 Hz c) 8 x 1015Hz d) none
2. A metallic surface when illuminated with light of 3313Å emits electron with
energies upto 0.5eV.The work function of metal is…….
a) 5.2eV b) 5.2 x 10-19 J c) 5.02 x 10-19 J d) 5.2 x 10-18 J
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6.
c) 3.315 x 10-24 kgms-1
If an
d) 3.315 x 10-34 kgsm-1
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95 MJK
1.
ℎ
W = h 6. for a proton 1 =
√
−
= =
. × . × For α particle , charge = 2e, mass= 4m
ℎ . × −
ℎ
2 = =
√ √
14
= 8 × 10 Hz
= ==
√ √
ℎ
2. W = - KEmax 2 : 1 = 1:2√
. × − × ×
= −
- 0.5x 1.6 x 10-19
×
= 5.2 x 10-19 J . × − × ×
v = = −
ℎ . ×
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= 3.2 x 10-19 J
-19 8.
=
=
.
=
× −
× −
. × − ×
= 𝑣
= √ − ;
-19
= 4.98 X 10 J
𝑣 𝑣 √ √
= − = ; = ;v=
ℎ ℎ
5. = ;v=
𝑣
= 0.866c
. × −
= = 3.315 x 10-24 kgms-1 10. KE of emitted electron = 10-2=8eV
× −
STOPPING POTENTIAL = 8V (÷ . × −
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96 MJK
8.NUCLEAR PHYSICS
1. An atom has 108 protons and 108 neutrons.The diameter of the nucleus is………
a) 7.8F b) 8.7F c) 9.8F d) 17.7F
2. The ratio of thew radii of two nuclei with mass numbers 1 and 27 is…….
a) 1/3 b) 1/√ c) 1/ √ d) 3
3. The mass defect of helium nucleus is 0.0304 amu.The binding energy of Helium
nucleus will be….
a) 2.83MeV b) 28.3MeV c) 7.68MeV d)7.47MeV
4. Consider the nuclear reaction 92 U234 → Z ThA + 2He4 .The value of A and Z are
is…
a)A=234 ; Z=94 b) A=234: Z=90 c) A=238: Z=94 d) A=238: Z=90
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6.
a) 0.63 x 1011J b)63 x 1010J c)21.0 x 1010J d)21.0 x 1012J
8. What percentage of original radio active substance is left after 5 half-life times ?
a) 2% b) 3% c) 4% d) 5%
9. Find how long it will take for 87.51 of a sample of Au 198 to decay if its half life is 2.7
days
a) 8.100 days b) 4.725 days c) 10.8 days d)12.8 days
10. For 11Na24 T1/2 =15 hrs How long does its take for 93.75 % of a sample of this
isotope to decay ?
a) 30hrs b) 15 hrs c) 45hrs d) 60 hrs
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97 MJK
1.
6. T1/2 = 3mins =180 sec
A = Z+N
= 108+108=216 = 63 =
.
=
.
/
R = /
= 7.8F
/
2. = . × 𝑔
/
7. 𝑇/ =
/
=
𝑇/ = . ×
/
=
= . ×
= = . ×
3.
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𝑁
8. × = = =3.33
Binding energy = 0.0304 X 931 𝑁
= 28.3MeV = 3%
4.
238
92U → zThA + 2He4 9. 87.5%= 50%+25%+12.5%
A+4 = 238
Time taken for 87.5% to decay = 3 x 2.7 = 8.1 days
A = 234
Z+2=92 ; Z= 90
10. 93.5% = 50%+25%+12.5%+6.25%
2
5. E = (∆m)C
No. of half life passed = 4
= (1- 0.993) x 10-3 x (3 x 108)2 Time taken for 93.75 % to decay = 4 x 15 = 60Hrs
= 0.007 x 9x1013
= 63 x 1010 J
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98 MJK
2. If the value of and 𝐼 of a transistor are 50 and 0.96mA respectively,then the value
of 𝐼
a) 0.941µA b) 941 µA c) 941mA d) 47.5mA
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pico farad connected in parallel,then the resonant frequency of the oscillator is…….
a) 10 MHz b) 1 MHz c) 20kHz d) 100 MHz
7. Two NOT gates are connected at the two inputs of NAND gate,the combination will
behave like
a) NAND gate b) AND gate c) OR gate d) NOR gate
8. In a CE transistor amplifier ,if the current gain = 100,ri =2000 Ω then the variation in
base emitter voltage required for a variation in collector current by 1mA is…….
a) 20 mV b)20V c) 0.2 V d) 2 x 10-6 V
9. If the collector current and base current of a transistor are 2mA and 500µA ,then the
emitter current is
a) 2.5mA b) 0.25 mA c) 25mA d) 250mA
l0. The dc voltage 9V from a rectifier unit is given as an input of zener under reverse bias
condition giving a current of 1mA through a 1kΩ series resisitance.The output voltage
of zener is
a) 20 mV b)8V c) 0.2 V d) 2 x 10-6 V
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99 MJK
6. =
1. = √
𝐸
IC = 𝐼 =
√ × −
= 0.95 X 1 ==0.95 Ma 𝜋
2. = +
=
𝐸
7. A
= −
+ . ×
B
=
.
Y ̅ ̅ = ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
= A + = A+B
× .
𝐼 = = = 0.941mA
= 941 A Δ
8. = Δ
Δ 𝐸
3. ri = Δ − −
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=
×
×
−
−
3
= 2 × 10 Ω = 2k Ω
Δ𝑉
100 =
Δ
= ri ΔIB
; Δ𝐼 = = 10-5A
5. AF =
−
10.
= = 25 V0 = Vdc-IRS
− .
= 9-1
= 8
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100 MJK
1. If radio station transmits a signal of frequency 750 kHz ,the frequency of internal
oscillator to detect the signal in superheterodyne system of radio receiver is…….
a) 1500 kHz b)1205 kHz c) 1250Hz d)none
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4. The length of half wave dipole antenna at 30 MHz is……
a) 5 m b) 10 m c) 2.5 m d)15 m
7. If the frequency of the signal is 340 Hz the band width ofd AM wave is…….
a) 340 Hz b) 680 Hz c) 170 kHz d) 1020 Hz
8. If the maximum frequency of a modulating signal is 3000 Hz the channel width is……..
a) 1 kHz b) 6 Hz c) 6kHz d) 600 kHz
9. In AM wave if signal amplitude is 3V and carrier amplitude is 4V,then modulation
factor is……
a) 1.33 % b) 75% c) 25 % d) 2.5%
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101 MJK
= 1205 kHz
4 .
= ∑
𝑣 9. m =
∑
×
= =10 m
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= =
×
=5 m
= = 0.75 (or)75%
×
10. = =
×
5. = 15 m
= 2 x 15 =30 m = = 16.667 m
×
= = .
= =
= 10 x 106 = 10MHz
= 8.334 m
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102 MJK
FULL PORTION-1
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9.
10.
(a) transformer (b) room heater
The unit of relative permittivity is
a) no unit b) C / kg
(c) AC generator
c) C2 / m2
In which of the following electromagnetic induction is not used ?
(d) choke coil
d) C / m
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18. An air filled parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery and allowed to charge. If a dielectric
slab is placed between the plates of the capacitor
a) the charge on the capacitor remains unchanged
b) the charge on the capacitor increases
c) the voltage across the plates of the capacitor increases
d) the capacitance of the capacitor decreases
19. If the work done in moving 6C from one point to another is an electric field is 12J, the potential
difference between them is
a) 2V b) 6V c) 12V d) 72V
20. According to Rutherford atom model the spectral lines emitted by an atom is ………..
(a) line spectrum (b) continuous spectrum
(c) continuous absorption spectrum (d) band spectrum
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24.
25.
In pair production the following pairs are formed ………..
(a) neutrons and antineutrino
(c) electrons and positrons
Geiger Muller tube is used …………………..
(b) protons and positrons
(d) protons and electrons
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The strength of current produced in a generator is
(a) directly proportional to the speed of revolution of armature
(b) inversely proportional to the speed of revolution of armature
(c) inversely proportional to magnetic field
(d) inversely proportional to the area of coil
10. The part of the AC generator that passes the current from the coil to the external
circuit is
(a) field magnet (b) split rings (c) slip rings (d) brushes
11. The self induced emf is given by the expression ………….
1
(a) e = L (b) e = (c) e = -L (d) e = -L
L
12. Mumetal is …………………….
(a) ferromagnetic alloy (b) an alloy with low permeability
(c) a paramagnetic alloy (d) a dia magnetic alloy
13. A diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of red light. What happens if the red
light is replaced by blue light?
(a) bands disappear (b) no change
(c) diffraction pattern becomes narrower and crowded together
(d) diffraction pattern becomes broader and farther apart
14. The wave theory of light was proposed by ………………………..
(a) Newton (b) Maxwell (c) Huygens (d) Max Planck
15. Optic axis is the direction inside a crystal in which……………………
(a) both ordinary ray and extra ordinary ray travel with same velocity
(b) ordinary ray travel with more velocity than the extraordinary ray.
(c) Extraordinary travel with more velocity than the ordinary ray
(d) Only the extra ordinary ray travels
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16. If the radius of the first orbit of a hydrogen atom is 0.53 Å, the radius of fourth orbit is
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25.
26.
The reverse saturation current in a PN junction diode is only due to ………….
(a) majority carriers
Op-amp are used in ……….
(b) minority carriers (c) acceptor ions
(c) timing circuits only (d) both analog operations and timing circuits
27. If an inverter is connected to the output of AND gate the combination is called ……
(a) NOR gate (b) NAND gate (c) OR gate (d) AND gate
28. Surface waves are the radio waves which travel………………….
(a) along the normal to the surface of the earth (b) along the surface of the earth
(c) along the line of sight of earth (d) along the poles of the earth
29. In a magnetic field canal rays are
(a) deflected towards north pole photosensitivity (b) deflected towards south pole
(c) not deflected (d) deflected in the same plane
30. Zener current does not depend upon
(a) nature of the material (b) nature of doper
(c) applied current (d) applied voltage
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1. When two capacitors of equal capacitance value 5 are connected in parallel and series, then the
ratio of the effective capacitance is
a) 2 : 1 b) 4 : 1 c) 1 : 2 d) 1 : 4
2. A capacitance C is charged to a potential V. The toal flux of the electric field over a closed
surface enclosing the capacitor
a) CV/20 b) CV/0 c) zero d) 2CV/0
3. The ratio of force between two point charges in air and in a medium of dielectric constant 6 is
a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 6 c) 6 : 1 d) 1 : 36
4. Two charges –q and +3q are palced at A & B respectively. Let AB = d. At a point P between A
& B the potential is zero. Then the distance AP is
a) d b) d/2 c) d/3 d) d/4
5. In a wavefront the phase difference between the successive particles
a) 0 b) /4 c) /2 d)
6. The temperature coefficient of resistance is negative for
a) alloys and insulators b) copper and lead
c) carbon and manganin d) carbon and ebonite
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7.
8.
How many joules are equivalent to 1 KWh?
a) 360 J
An ideal voltmeter has
a) zero resistance
b) 3600 J c) 3.6 x 105 J d) 3.6 x 106 J
14. The rays that are used as a diagnostic tool in medicine and for the treatment of cancer,
is
a) gamma rays b) ultra violet rays c) X-rays d) infrared rays
15. When a point source of light in an isotrope medium is at infinity, the shape of the wave font is
a) spherical b) cylindrical c) elliptical d) plane
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16. The study of electric discharge through gases gives valuable information regarding the structure
of
a) molecules b) matter c) atoms d) none of the above
17. The path of the revolving electrons in Rutherford’s atomic model is
a) circular b) elliptical c) spiral d) straight line
18. When the frequency of the incident light is less than the threshold frequency
a) a little photoelectric current is produced
b) a large photoelectric current is produced
c) no photo electric current is produced
d) the velocity of the photo electrons is large
19. In electron microscope, the electron beam is focused by varying the
a) wavelength of electron b) current through the energizing coils
c) velocity of electrons d) thickness of colloidian film.
20. The empirical formula for the nuclear radius is
a) R = r0 A1/3 b) R = r01/3 A c) R = r0 1/3 A 1/3 d) R = r0A
21. The range of nuclear force is
a) 10-10m b) 10-6m c) 10-12m d) 10-15m
22. Radio isotope used to treat brain tumour
a) Radio-lead b) Radio-Phosphorus c) Radio-iodine d) Radio-Sodium
23. The number of neutrons in a nucleus of 36Ba137 is
a) 36 b) 137 c) 101 d) 173
24. Energy bands arise due to
a) the chemical reaction b) photo electric effect
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c) splitting of energy levels of identical atoms which are brought very close to each other.
d) thermionic emission
25. A rectifier converts
a) d.c. to a.c. b) a.c. to d.c.
c) electrical energy to light energy d) electrical energy to mechanical energy
26. The overall performance of a transistor amplifier can be improved by
a) using positive feedback b) removing feedback
c) using negative feedback d) increasing input voltage
27. If A and B are two inputs in AND gate, then AND gate has an output of 1 when the values of
A and B are
a) A = 0, B = 0 b) A = 1, B = 1
c) A = 1, B = 0 d) A = 0, B = 1
28. In the skywave propogation, for a fixed frequency, the shortest distance between the point of
transmission and the point of reception along the surface is known as
a) bandwidth b) skip distance c) short distance d) range
29. In TV transmission (i) the picture and synchronizing pulses an sound are
a) amplitude modulated and frequency modulated respectively
b) frequency modulated and amplitude modulated respectively
c) amplitude d) frequency modulated
30. Period of rotation of Geostatioanry statellite is
a) 12 Hr b) 24 Hr c) 360 days d) 1 year
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(a) zero (b) negative (c) Positive (d) None of these
Five resistances each 7 are connected in parallel The effective resistance is
(a) 14 (b) 1.4 (c) 35 (d) 5
7. Magnetic field at a point along the axis of the circular coil carrying current at a distance x from
the centre of the coil is directly proportional to ……………..
(a) x 2 (b) x 3 (c) x -2 (d) x -3
8. The magnetic field produced at the centre of the circular coil carrying current is
(a) B 0 nI (b) B = 0 NI (c) 0I (d) nI
2a 2a 2a 2a
9. The magnetic Lorentz force on a charged particle is given in the vectorial form ……………….
(a) F V (q B) (b) F B(q V ) (c) F q(V B) (d) F v(q B)
10. ……..phase a.c. is more preferred for transmitting large amount of power with high efficiency
(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four
11. The capacitor a reactance ………….
(a) increase and decreases with frequency (b) does not change with frequency
(c) increase with frequency (d) decreases with frequency
12. The phase difference between the emf’s produced by a three phase generator is
(a) /2 (b) 3/2 (c) 2/3 (d) 5/2
13. Who discovered that the changing magnetic field with time produces an electric field ?
(a) Oersted (b) Ampere (c) Faraday (d) Lenz
14. The shape of wave front going to diffract in fraunhofer diffraction
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22.
23.
The shape of a nucleus in stable state is……………….
(a) elliptical
(a) Radium
(b) cone
(b) Uranium
(c) square
(c) Lead
(d) spherical
Radiation emitted by which of the following led to the discovery of radioactivity ?
(d) Radon
24. The secondary cosmic rays are produced as a result of reaction of primary cosmic rays with
nuclei of ……………………….
(a) O2 and N2 (b) O2 and H2 (c) O2 and C (d) N2 and C
25. In the forward bias characteristic curve, a diode appears as ……………
(a) a high resistance (b) a capacitor (c) an OFF switch (d) an ON switch
26. The frequency of a wave can be measured by a CRO by producing its …….
(a) wave form (b) voltage (c) current (d) Lissajon’s figures
27. The NAND gate is represented by the Boolean equation ……………….
(a) A.B = C (b) A+B=C (c) A B C (d) A.B C
28. Space wave propagation is suitable for frequency………………
(a) below 30 MHz (b) above 30MHz (c) below 30 GHz (d) above 30 GHz
29. In vidicon camera, the target plate is called as………………….
(a) face plate (b) object plate (c) image plate (d) photo sensitive plate
30. For effective modulation the percentage of modulation should …………..
(a) be zero (b) be equal to 100%
(c) be more than 100% (d) not be more than 100%
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8.
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doubled, the rise in temperature will be approximately.
(a) 5C (b) 10C (c) 20C (d) 40C
The magnetic induction at any point on the axis of a circular coil carrying current is given
as………………..
0 nIa 2 0 nI 0 nIa 0 nIa 2
(a) B (b) B (c) B (d) B
2(a 2 x 2 )3/ 2 (a 2 x 2 )3/ 2 2(a 2 x 2 )3/ 2 2(a 2 x 2 )2 / 3
9. A wire of length 50cm moves with a velocity of 300m/min perpendicular to a magnetic field. If
the emf induced in the wire is 2V the magnetic induction is
(a) 8 x 10–3 wbm–2 (b) 0.13 wbm–2 (c) 0.013 wbm–2 (d) 0.8 wbm–2
10. A coil of 50 turns and area of cross-section of 0.1m2 has its axis perpendicular to a magnetic
induction of 0.9wb /m2, then the flux passing the coil is………….
(a) 4.5Wb (b) 45Wb (c) 0 (d) 4.5mWb
11. AF choke is a coil of …………………..
(a) large inductance and low resistance (b) large inductance and large resistance
(c) low inductance and low resistance (d) low inductance and high resistance
12. The peak value of emf generated by an AC generator is …………………….
NAB NA AB
(a) E0 (b) E0 (c) E0 NAB (d) E0
B N
13. Which one of the following is not an electromagnetic wave ?
(a) X-rays (b) Gamma rays (c) Radio wave (d) -rays
14. In total internal reflection the angle of incidence inside the denser medium
(a) is greater than the critical angle (b) is lesser than the critical angle
(c) is equal to the critical angle (d) is equal to 90o
15. The angle between the plane of polarization and plane of vibration in crystal is……………….
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23.
24.
What will be the input of A and B for the Boolean expression (A + B) (AB) = 1?
(a) 0, 0 b) 0, 1 c) 1, 0
For a transistor = 49, its value is =
d) 1, 1
= 49
1+ 1+49
(a) 49 (b) 1.02 (c) 0.98 (d) 9.8
13 13
25. The ratio active nucleus 7N decays to 6C by the emission of
(a) neutron (b) Porton (c) electron (d) Positron
26. The frequency of oscillation produced by a colpitt’s oscillator is given by
1 1 1 1
(a) f = (b) f = (c) f = (d) f =
2 LC 2 L1 L2 2M )C (C1 C2 ) LC1C2
2 2
LC1C2 (C1 C2 )
27. In negative feed back the phase difference between input signal and feed back signal is
(a) 00 (b) 450 (c) 900 (d) 1800
28. High frequency waves follow…………………..
(a) the ground wave propagation (b) the line of straight direction
(c) ionospheric propagation (d) the curvature of the earth
29. In FM transmitter, the main function of buffer is to isolate……..
(a) phase modulator from power amplifier (b) crystal oscillator from the phase modulator
(c) crystal oscillator from power amplifier (d) phase modulator from AF amplifier
30. In Fiber optic communication, the transmission loss is
(a) very high (b) low (c)high (d) zero
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8.
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(a) remain unchanged
(c) get halved
(b) becomes four times
(d) get doubled
The ratio of heat liberated by a wire when two different current are passed through it is
4 : 9. The ratio of the strength of the current is
(a) 4 : 9 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 9 : 4
9. The thermo emf is in order of ……………………….
(a) nano volts (b) micro volts (c) milli volts (d) volts
10. While the current and voltage in an ac circuit containing inductor completes one cycle,
the power completes……………………….
(a) one cycle (b) two cycles (c) three cycles (d) four cycles
11. Number of magnetic lines passing per unit area through a surface normal to the lines is
called as
(a) magnetic flux (b)magnetic flux density (c) magnetic field (d) magnetic force
12. Large eddy currents are used in ………………..
(a) galvanometer damping (b) speedometer (c) induction furnace (d) transformer
13. The phenomenon of photo electric emission is explained by ……………
(a) electromagnetic theory and not quantum theory
(b) quantum theory and not corpuscular theory
(c) wave theory and not quantum theory (d) corpuscular theory and not wave theory
14. The value of ratio of current of scattering by two waves of wavelength 400nm and
600nm
(a) 1 : 0.66 (b) 15 : 1 (c) 5 : 1 (d) 1 : 5
15. If the velocity of light in vacuum is c then the velocity of light in a medium of refractive
index 1.6 is (a) 1.6 C (b) C/1.6 (c) 1.6/C (d) C
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16. The energy required to remove an electron from the third orbit of the hydrogen atom is
(a) 13.60 eV (b) 1.51 eV (c) 3.40 eV (d) 2.00 eV
17. The ratio of areas enclosed by first three Bohr orbits of hydrogen atom is
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 8 : 27 (c) 1 : 4 : 9 (d) 1 : 16 : 81
18. In an LCR, circuit, inductance is changed from L to L/2, To keep the same resonance
frequency, C should be changed to
(a) 2 C (b) C/2 (c) 4 C (d) C/4
-7
19. A metal surface illuminated by UV light of wavelength 3 10 m. The work function
of the metal is 3.313 eV. The threshold frequency is ……………..
(a) 8 1015 Hz (b) 8 1014 Hz (c) 8 1016 Hz (d) 0.8 1014 Hz
20. The wavelength of the matter wave is independent of ………………
(a) mass (b) velocity (c) momentum (d) charge
21. If the kinetic energy of the moving particle is E, then the de Brogile wavelength is
h 2mE h
(a) (b) (c) h 2mE (d)
2mE h E 2m
22. A radioactive sample produces 5 disintegrations per second. It’s activity is
(a) 5 curie (b) 5 milli curie (c) 5 bequerel (d) 5 roentgen
23. The average nuclear density is equal to ……….
(a) 1.816 x 1015kgm-3 (b) 1.816 x 1016kgm-3
18 -3
(d) 1.816 x 1017kgm-3
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24.
25.
(c) 1.816 x 10 kgm
Carbon – 14 is formed in the atmosphere by ………………..
(a) UV – rays (b) X – rays (c) Radioactive rays (d) Cosmic rays
A non-sinusoidal waveform is generated by ………………..
(a) Hartley oscillator (b) Colpitt oscillator
(c) Tuned collector oscillator (d) Multivibrator
26. An oscillator converts …………
(a) DC power into AC power (b) AC power into DC power
(c) DC power into AC signal (d) AC power into DC signal
27. A device which gives an output voltage without input is …………………
(a) Amplifier (b) Modulator (c) Iconoscope (d) Oscillator
28. In amplitude modulation………………..
(a) the amplitude of the carrier wave varies in accordance with the amplitude of the
modulating signal.
(b) The amplitude of the carrier wave remains constant
(c) the amplitude of the carrier varies in accordance with the frequency of the
modulating signal
(d) modulating frequency lies in the audio range
29. The AF channel in a radio transmitter produces…………
(a) modulating wave (b) high frequency carrier wave
(c) low frequency carrier wave
(d) both modulating wave and high frequency carrier wave
30. In amplitude modulated wave if the signal amplitude is 3 volt and the carrier
amplitude is 4 volt then modulation factor is
a) 1.33 (b) 0.75 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.4
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(a) zero (b) infinity (c) weak (d) strong
To increase the current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer by 50% then its resistance is
increased to have new resistance twice that of initial resistance then factor with which voltage
sensitivity change
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 30% d) 40%
10. A DC of 5A produces the same heating effect as an AC of …………………
(a) 50 A rms current (b) 5 A peak current (c) 5A rms current (d) none of these
11. According to Faraday’s laws the induced emf e is given as …………….
d dt d d
(a) e = (b) e = (c) e = N (d) e =
dN d dt Ndt
12. Energy loss in a transformer due to Joule heating effect is called ……………
(a) copper loss (b) eddy current loss (c) hysteresis loss (d) flux loss
13. When a drop of water is introduced between the glass plate and plano convex lens in Newton’s
rings system, the ring system …………
(a) contracts (b) expands (c) remains same (d) first expands. then contracts
14. The wave front in Fraunhofer diffraction is ………………….
(a) spherical (b) cylindrical (c) elliptical (d) plane
15. If C is the velocity of light in vacuum what is the velocity of light in glass with refractive index
3/2? (a) 3C/2 (b) 2C/3 (c) C/2 (d) C
16. A Coolidge tube operates at 24800 V. The maximum frequency of X radiation emitted from
Coolidge tube is …………..
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24.
(a) 5.05 minutes (b) 20.2 minutes
0.6931
(d) infinity
Who found that the radioactivity was accompanied by the transformation of one element into
another
(a) Henry Becquerel (b) Soddy (c) Rutherford (d) Fajans
25. The electrons in the atom of an element which determine its chemical and electrical properties
are called
(a) valence electrons (b) revolving electrons (c) excess electrons (d) active electrons
26. The operational amplifier consists of ………..
(a) 20 transistors 11 resistors and one capacitor (b) 11 transistors 20 resistors and one capacitor
(c) 20 transistors 11 resistors and one resistor (d) 20 resistors 11 transistors and one capacitor
27. According to Boolean Algebra (A + AB) …………
(a) A (b) AB (c) B (d) A
28. Radio waves ordinarily travel in…………………….
(a) ether medium (b) isotropic medium (c)straight lines (d) an isotropic medium
29. Television is basically a system for reproducing…………………….
(a) a still picture (b) a moving picture
(c) illusion of motion (d) bright and dark spots of the original scene
30. Which type of modulation is used for sound signal in TV transmission?
(a) amplitude modulation (b) frequency modulation
(c) phase modulation (d) signal modulation
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8.
9.
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(a) 4 X
(a) infinity
(b) X/2
(b) maximum
(c) X/4
If a wire lies outside the path, the line integral of the field of that wire is
(c) minimum
(d) 2 X
(d) zero
If the current flowing in the solenoid is clockwise, the pole at the near end shows
……………..
(a) south pole (b) north pole
(c) no polarity (d) south and north pole alternately
10. The self-inductance of a straight conductor is ……………..
(a) Zero (b) infinity (c) very large (d) very small
11. SI unit of magnetic flux is ……………………………..
(a) Weber-metre (b) Weber (c) Weber/metre2 (d) Weber/metre
12. Stepdown transformer is a device which converts ……………….
(a) low voltage AC into high voltage AC (b) high voltage AC into low voltage AC
(c) low power AC into high power AC (d) high power AC into low power AC
13. If the ratio of radioactive decay constants of two elements is 9 : 16 then the ratio of their half
life period is
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 9 : 16 (d) 16 : 9
14. Colours produced by thin films due to interference depend on………………
(a) the thickness of the film only (b) the angle of incidence only
(c) the angle of refraction only (d)both thickness of film and angle of incidence
15. The angle of incidence of light in the pile of plates is…………………
(a) 57.50 (b) 32.50 (c) 132.50 (d) 450
16. A rod is moving with a speed of 0.8C with respect to an earth observer ‘O’. The percentage
contraction in the length of the rod according to the observer ‘O’ is
(a) 36% (b) 60% (c) 20% (d) 18%
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25.
(a) majority carriers (b) minority carriers (c) Accepter ions
The negative feedback is used ……………….
(a) to convert the amplifier into an oscillator
(d) donar ions
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(a) 10–8 to 10–2m (b) 10–2m to 104m
The potential barrier of a germanium diode is
(a) 0.3V (b) 3V (c) 7V (d) 2V
(c) 104 to 108m (d) 0 and
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15. The angle of inclination of the pile of plates to the axis of the tube is……..
(a) 57.50 (b) 32.50 (c) 132.50 (d) 450
16. Proton when accelerated through a potential difference of V volt has a wavelength
associated with it. An alpha partially in order to have the same wavelength must be
accelerated through the voltage ………
(a) V (b) 4V (c) 2V (d) V/8
17. The wave number of a pectral line of hydrogen atom is equal to Rydberg’s constant. The
line is
(a) first line of Lyman series b) series limit of Lyman series
(c) first line of pfund series (d) series limit of pfund series
18. If R is Rydberg’s constant. When an electron jumps from the 3rd orbit to 2nd orbit of a
hydrogen atom, the wave length of the emitted radiation
(a) 36 / 5R b) 5R / 36 c) b / R d) R / 6
19. The wavelength associated with an electron accelerated by400 V is …………..
(a) 0.6135 Å (b) 6.135 Å (c) 61.35 Å (d) 6135 Å
20. Who experimentally demonstrated the photo electric effect at first ?
(a) J.J. Thomson (b) Hallwachs (c) Richardson (d) de Broglie
21. Number of photo electrons emitted per second is ………… to the intensity of incident
radiation.
(a) directly proportional (b) equal (c) inversely proportional (d) not related
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22.
23.
The half life period of a certain radioactive element with disintegration constant 0.0693
per day is
(a) 10 days (b) 14 days
56
The binding energy of 26Fe nucleus is ………
(c) 140 days (d) 1.4 days
(a) 8.8 MeV (b) 36.7 MeV (c) 37.7 MeV (d) 493 MeV
24. Laws of natural radioactivity and artificial radioactivity are …………
(a) different from each other (b) exactly the same
(c) some of them same others different (d) true for chemical reactions also
25. A multimeter can measure
(a) Voltage (b) current (c) resistance (d) all the above
26. A +A+1=? (a) A (b) 0 (c) 1
(d) A
27. The variables used in Boolean algebra can assume two values as ………..
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 (d) 0 and 1
28. In phase modulation……………….
(a) only the phase of the carrier wave varies
(b) only the frequency of the carrier wave varies
(c) both the phase and the frequency of the carrier wave varies
(d) there is no change in the frequency and phase of the carrier wave
29. The intermediate frequency of mixer circuit is………………….
(a) 450KHz (b) 455KHz (c) 455MHz (d) 450MHz
30. The uplink frequency of a practical satellite is……………….
(a) 5.725-7.075 GHz (b) 3.4-4.8 GHz
(c) 5.075-7.725 GHz (d) 4.8-3.4GHz
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120 MJK
FULL PORTION-10
2. There are two charges +1 µC and +5 µC .The ratio of the forces acting on them will be
a) 1:5 b) 5:1 c) 1:1 d) 1:25
3. The unit of magnetic flux is
a)Nm2C-1 b)Tesla c) weber d)Nm-1C2
4. Pick out the non-polar molecules
a) ammonia b) hydrogen c)water d) hydrogen chloride
5. The transition temperature of mercury is
a) 4.2º C b)-268.8ºC c) -277.2º K d) (a) & (c)
6. Which of the following pair of metals produce minimum thermo emf
a)Cu-Zn b) sb-Bi c) Pb-Sn d)none
7. Ohms law is true for
a) metals only b) semiconductors only
c) both for metals &semiconductor’s d) neither metals nor semiconductor’s
8.
9.
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The self induction of a coil does not depend upon
a) The length of the coil
c) the number of turns of the coil
To a dc current a capacitor offers a reactance
b) the resistance of the coil
d) the radius of the coil
a) Xc = 1/𝜔 b) Xc = 𝜔 c) 0 d)∞
10. In a step down transformer
a) Ep > Es b) Ip < Is c) k< 1 d) all of them
11. Chokes are used in an house in
a) Iron box b) Refrigerator c) fluorescent tube lamp d) filament lamp
12. Emission ,absorption and interaction with matter can be explained by ______
a) corpuscular theory b) wave theory
c) electromagnetic theory d) quantum theory
13. If the critical angle of the medium is 30º ,then the velocity of light in the medium s
a) 1.5 x 108 ms-1 b) 6 x 108 ms-1 c) √ x 108 ms-1 d) 3 x 108 ms-1
14. When light ray get reflected by a denser medium the path difference produced is _______
a) b) c) d) 2
15. The angle between plane of vibration and plane of polarization is
a) 0º b) 90º c) 180º d) 60º
16. The canal rays are produced in the discharge tube at the pressure of _______ of mercury
a) 0.1mm b) 1mm c) 10mm d) 0.01 mm
17. During laser action ,the life time of atom in the exited state is
a) 10-8 s b) 10-5 s c) 10-3 s d) 10-6 s
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18. The energy required to shift an electron to the second excitation level is
a) 3.4 eV b) 12.09 eV c) 10.2eV d) 13.6eV
19. If the wavelength of a radiation is 4000Å ,then its wave number is
a) 2.5 x 106 m-1 b) 4x 106 m-1 c) 25 x 106 m-1 d) 400 x 106 m-1
20. Identify the particle that has no rest mass
a) electron b) proton
c) photon d) neutron
21. The stopping potential depends upon the ________ of the fastest electron
a) charge b) velocity c) mass d) wavelength
22. The low cost cable used for communication is
a) twisted pair cable b) optical fiber
c) multi conductor flat cable d) c0-axial cable
23. Nuclear force is _____
a)Gravitational in nature b) charge dependent
c) electrostatic in nature d) charge independent
24. If the half life of neutron is 13 minutes then its mean life is ________
a) 9s b) 540 s c) 1125s d) 3.2 s
25. Muons belong to ______group
a) Baryons b) mesons c) leptons d) photons
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26. The valence band may be ________
a) completely filled
c) an empty band
b) partially filled
d) partially or completely filled
30. When phosphor coating in the monochrome picture tube is struck by the electron beam it
produces ______ light.
a) white b) red c) blue d) green
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Test-1
1.(c) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10(d) 11(b) 12(b) 13(a) 14(d) 15(b)
16(b) 17(c) 18(b) 19(a) 20(b) 21(d) 22(c) 23(c) 24(c) 25(d) 26(a) 27(b) 28(b) 29(c) 30(d)
Test-2
1.(c) 2.(b) 3.(a) 4.(b) 5.(b) 6.(a) 7.(a) 8.(a) 9.(a) 10(d) 11(c) 12(a) 13(c) 14(c) 15(a)
16(d) 17(b) 18(b) 19(d) 20(a) 21(a) 22(c) 23(d) 24(a) 25(b) 26(d) 27(b) 28(b) 29(b) 30(d)
Test-3
1.(b) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(d) 5.(a) 6.(d) 7.(d) 8.(d) 9.(c) 10(c) 11(d) 12(a) 13(b) 14(c) 15(d)
16(c) 17(a) 18(c) 19(b) 20(a) 21(d) 22(c) 23(c) 24(c) 25(b) 26(c) 27(b) 28(b) 29(a) 30(b)
Test-4
1.(a) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(d) 5.(c) 6.(b) 7.(d) 8.(a) 9.(c) 10(c) 11(d) 12(c) 13(c) 14(c) 15(b)
16(c) 17(a) 18(c) 19(a) 20(c) 21(d) 22(d) 23(b) 24(d) 25(d) 26(a) 27(d) 28(b) 29(d) 30(d)
Test-5
1.(b) 2.(d) 3.(d) 4.(b) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7.(c) 8.(a) 9.(d) 10(a) 11(a) 12(c) 13(d) 14(a) 15(a)
16(d) 17(a) 18(a) 19(a) 20(b) 21(a) 22(d) 23(d) 24(c) 25(d) 26(a) 27(a) 28(c) 29(b) 30(b)
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Test-6
1.(d) 2.(c) 3.(a) 4.(b) 5.(d) 6.(c) 7.(b) 8.(c) 9.(c) 10(b)
16(b) 17(d) 18(a) 19(b) 20(d) 21(a) 22(c) 23(d) 24(d) 25(d)
11(b)
26(c)
12(c)
27(d)
13(b)
28(a)
14(c)
29(a)
15(b)
30(b)
Test-7
1.(c) 2.(d) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6.(b) 7.(c) 8.(a) 9.(b) 10(c) 11(c) 12(a) 13(a) 14(d) 15(b)
16(a) 17(c) 18(c) 19(a) 20(b) 21(b) 22(b) 23(d) 24(c) 25(a) 26(a) 27(a) 28(c) 29(a) 30(b)
Test-8
1.(d) 2.(b) 3.(a) 4.(c) 5.(a) 6.(c) 7.(c) 8.(d) 9.(a) 10(a) 11(b) 12(b) 13(b) 14(d) 15(a)
16(b) 17(a) 18(c) 19(b) 20(a) 21(a) 22(c) 23(d) 24(b) 25(c) 26(b) 27(d) 28(b) 29(d) 30(c)
Test-9
1.(a) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(d) 10(d) 11(b) 12(d) 13(c) 14(d) 15(b)
16(d) 17(b) 18(a) 19(a) 20(b) 21(a) 22(a) 23(d) 24(b) 2d5() 26(c) 27(d) 28(c) 29(b) 30(a)
Test-10
1.(d) 2.(c) 3.(a) 4.(b) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(d) 10(d) 11(c) 12(d) 13(a) 14(a) 15(b)
16(b) 17(c) 18(b) 19(a) 20(c) 21(b) 22(a) 23(d) 24(c) 25(c) 26(d) 27(b) 28(a) 29(d) 30(a)
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123 MJK
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124 MJK
BLUE PRINT
1
Electrostatics 4 2 1 1 25
2
Current Electricity 1 3 2 --- 20
3
Effects of Electric current 2 1 1 1 20
4
Electromagnetic induction & 4 2 1 1 25
alternating current
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6
Electromagnetic waves & wave
optics
4 2 1 1 25
Atomic physics 4 2 1 1 25
7
Dual nature of radiation & matter- 2 1 2 --- 15
relativity
8
Nuclear physics 4 2 1 1 25
9
Semiconductor devices & their 3 4 1 1 30
applications
10
Communication systems 2 1 1 1 20
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125 MJK
1. 11. 21. 31. 41. 51. 61. 71. 81. 91. 101. 111. 121. 131.
2. 12. 22. 32. 42. 52. 62. 72. 82. 92. 102. 112. 122. 132.
3. 13. 23. 33. 43. 53. 63. 73. 83. 93. 103. 113. 123. 133.
4. 14. 24. 34. 44. 54. 64. 74. 84. 94. 104. 114. 124. 134.
5. 15. 25. 35. 45. 55. 65. 75. 85. 95. 105. 115. 125.
6. 16. 26. 36. 46. 56. 66. 76. 86. 96. 106. 116. 126.
7. 17. 27. 37. 47. 57. 67. 77. 87. 97. 107. 117. 127.
8. 18. 28. 38. 48. 58. 68. 78. 88. 98. 108. 118. 128.
9.
10.
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19.
20.
29.
30.
39.
40.
49.
50.
59.
60.
69.
70.
79.
80.
89.
90.
99.
100.
109.
110.
119.
120.
129.
130.
1. 11. 21. 31. 41. 51. 61. 71. 81. 91. 101. 111. 121. 131.
2. 12. 22. 32. 42. 52. 62. 72. 82. 92. 102. 112. 122. 132.
3. 13. 23. 33. 43. 53. 63. 73. 83. 93. 103. 113. 123. 133.
4. 14. 24. 34. 44. 54. 64. 74. 84. 94. 104. 114. 124. 134.
5. 15. 25. 35. 45. 55. 65. 75. 85. 95. 105. 115. 125.
6. 16. 26. 36. 46. 56. 66. 76. 86. 96. 106. 116. 126.
7. 17. 27. 37. 47. 57. 67. 77. 87. 97. 107. 117. 127.
8. 18. 28. 38. 48. 58. 68. 78. 88. 98. 108. 118. 128.
9. 19. 29. 39. 49. 59. 69. 79. 89. 99. 109. 119. 129.
10. 20. 30. 40. 50. 60. 70. 80. 90. 100. 110. 120. 130.
1. 11. 21. 31. 41. 51. 61. 71. 81. 91. 101. 111. 121. 131.
2. 12. 22. 32. 42. 52. 62. 72. 82. 92. 102. 112. 122. 132.
3. 13. 23. 33. 43. 53. 63. 73. 83. 93. 103. 113. 123. 133.
4. 14. 24. 34. 44. 54. 64. 74. 84. 94. 104. 114. 124. 134.
5. 15. 25. 35. 45. 55. 65. 75. 85. 95. 105. 115. 125.
6. 16. 26. 36. 46. 56. 66. 76. 86. 96. 106. 116. 126.
7. 17. 27. 37. 47. 57. 67. 77. 87. 97. 107. 117. 127.
8. 18. 28. 38. 48. 58. 68. 78. 88. 98. 108. 118. 128.
9. 19. 29. 39. 49. 59. 69. 79. 89. 99. 109. 119. 129.
10. 20. 30. 40. 50. 60. 70. 80. 90. 100. 110. 120. 130.
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