JET AGE SCIENCE COMPETITION IN NIGERIA

UPPER PRIMARY CATEGORY

TEST ONE

STUDY THE QUESTIONS CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWERS

1. The device that converts computer output into displayed images is the
A. hard disk B. monitor C. printer
D. processor

2. The least number of input devices that a computer system can have is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

3. Which of the following devices has the largest storage capacity

A. Compact disc
B. Digital versatile disc
C. Floppy disk
D. Hard disk

4. The device used to ensure a constant flow of power supply to a computer system is the
A. stabilizer
B. step-down transformer
C. step-up transformer
D. uninterruptible power supply

5. The total number of command buttons on the title bar of an opened word processing window is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6

6. Processed or transformed facts which are meaningful to the user is called

A. data
B. information
C. input
D. output

7. The following are possible health hazards of prolonged use of the computer system except
A. back and neck pains

B. eye strain
C. tuberculosis
D. wrist pains

8. Which key on the keyboard is used to erase characters from right to left in word processing application?
A. Backspace
B. Delete C. Insert D. Pause

1
9. The key on the QWERTY keyboard used to produce alphabetic upper case letters is
A. Caps Lock
B. Home
C. Num Lock
D. Tab

10. Given sizes and designs of letters, numbers and symbols that are displayed in a word processing document
are referred to as
A. align B. bullet C. font
D. indent

11. Which of the following is a tool on the drawing toolbar of a word processing program?
A. Align B. Bold C. View D. Oval

12. When an image is copied, it first goes to the

A. clip art
B. clipboard
C. my document
D. recycle bin

13. To press the letter J, which finger is appropriate to use on a QWERTY keyboard?
A. Left index finger B.
Left middle finger C. Right index finger D. Right middle finger

14. The internet is a

A. global network of computers
B. government agency that links computers
C. software for designing programs
D. special network of computers in an office

15. The computer equivalence of a sheet of paper divided into rows and columns in the office suite is called
A. database
B. electronic sheet
C. spreadsheet
D. word processor

16. The temporary working memory of a computer system is the

A. arithmetic logic unit
B. flash memory
C. random access memory
D. read only memory

17. The software responsible for the management of the basic operations of the computer is the
A. application program
B. device drivers
C. operating system
D. utility program

18. The bar on the desktop which displays opened applications and other icons is referred to as
A. scroll bar
B. taskbar C. title bar D. toolbar

19. The act of pressing a computer mouse button twice quickly without moving the mouse is termed
A. double clicking

2
B. right clicking C. single clicking
D. normal clicking

20. The following are good practices in the computing environment except
A. copyrighting of software
B. designing of cards
C. networking of computers
D. pirating of software

21. Which of the following software can be used to enhance teaching and learning through the use of pictures,
video and sound?
A. Multimedia software
B. Network software
C. Programming software
D. Utility software

22. The total number of keys on a standard QWERTY keyboard is

A. 96
B. 104
C. 108

D. 116

23. Which of the following is a valid folder name?

A. Black/Stars B. Black_Stars C. Black:Stars D. Black*

24. A program on the computer which enables users to type letters to friends is the
A. browser
B. spreadsheet
C. utility
D. word processor

25. The command that enables the user to save a previously saved document under a new name is
A. new
B. rename
C. save
D. save as

26. The standard toolbar contains buttons that

A. close and resize windows
B. control page margins and tabs
C. perform the most common tasks
D. help users to navigate through the document

27. To see exactly how the pages of a current document will appear when printed, the command given is the
A. page setup command
B. print command
C. print preview command
D. view command

28. A tool for locating information on the internet is the

A. database engine B. internet browser C. search engine
D. web browser

3
29. An entity in a file system which contains a group of files is called a
A. cabinet
B. container C. document D. folder

30. The creation of a copy of data on a computer system for safe keeping externally is referred to as
A. data backup
B. data entry

C. data filtering
D. data restoration

31. The letter that normally represents the floppy disk in an operating system is
A. A B. C C. D D. E

32. Recycle bin or trash bin contains deleted files and folders from the
A. floppy disk B. flash disk C. hard disk
D. zip disk

33. Keys on a computer keyboard which are used to move the cursor in a specified direction are called
A. arrow keys
B. function keys
C. shift keys
D. special purpose keys

34. To underline a selected text in a word processing program, the keys used are
A. Ctrl + U B. Shift + U C. Alt + U D. Del + U

35. Double clicking on a word in a word processing program selects the

A. document B. paragraph C. sentence D. word

36. All of the following are reasons for using ICT in education except
A. forcing students to learn at others’ pace
B. increasing learner motivation and engagement
C. facilitating the acquisition of basic skills in subject areas
D. enhancing teaching through the use of presentation software

37. In word processing program, lines, block arrows and flow charts are found on which of the following
toolbars?
A. Drawing
B. Formatting
C. Picture
D. Standard

38. Which program icon on the desktop leads to the disk drives
A. Internet Explorer

B. My Computer
C. My Document
D. My Network Places

39. Which of the following terms refers to unsolicited emails in the form of advertising or chain letters?
A. Compose
B. Inbox C. Spam D. Trash

4
40. Computer virus is capable of
A. enhancing the contents of a file
B. maintaining the computer system
C. making the work of the computer easy
D. slowing down the computer system performance

TEST TWO

STUDY THE QUESTIONS CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWERS

1. The part of the computer which displays information to the user in soft copy format is the
A. Monitor
B. Printer
C. Processor
D. Scanner

2. The sharpness of an image on a monitor screen is determined by the number of

A. Inches
B. Pits
C. Pixels
D. Units

3. Which of the following can be used as an input device and at the same time as an output device?
A. Microphone
B. Modem
C. Printer
D. Speaker

4. The device that uses the magnetic method to store data is

A. compact disk
B. digital versatile disk
C. hard disk
D. optical disk

5. Which of the following devices has the largest storage capacity?

A. Compact disk
B. Digital versatile disk
C. Flash memory
D. Hard disk

6. By default, the drive letter assigned to the hard disk drive is

A. A:
B. B:
C. C:
D. D:

7. Which of the following devices must be turned on first when booting a computer?
A. Monitor
B. Printer
C. Scanner
D. System Unit

5
8. The program that is loaded into the main memory when a computer is booted is
A. Utility program
B. Operating system
C. Communication software
D. Word processing software

9. To copy a file means to

A. Cut the file
B. Delete the file
C. Remove the file
D. Make a duplicate of the file

10. A group of files are stored in a

A. Folder
B. Graphic
C. Text
D. Word

11. The area of the taskbar that displays small icons of some programs such as the system clock is
A. Programs area
B. Scroll bar
C. Start menu
D. System tray

12. Which of the following is a problem to computer users as a result of radiation from the monitor?
A. Cardiovascular
B. Dizziness
C. Eye irritation
D. Loss of grip strength

13. Dragging a folder from one drive to a window on another drive is equivalent to a
A. Cut operation
B. Copy operation
C. Delete operation
D. Move operation

14. Which of the following safety precaution(s) is/are advisable to practice?

I. Do not answer or receive calls when charging mobile phones
II. Do not overload sockets
III. Plugging ICT tools in damaged sockets can be allowed sometimes.

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

15. A computer program that can copy itself and infect the computer without the permission or knowledge of
the user is
A. Virus
B. Anti-virus
C. Window
D. Word processor

6
16. The software that assists students in learning and can also be used to take online examinations is
A. Classroom software
B. Education software
C. Entertaining software
D. Graphic software

17. ICT tools can be used in all the following areas except
A. Sharing ideas
B. Starting cabinetry
C. Accessing information
D. Retrieving information

18. The act of clicking on an object and dragging it to a different location is referred to as
A. Drop-and-drag
B. Drag-and-drop
C. Drop-and-move
D. Drag-and-paste

19. When pursuing typing lessons, computer users are expected to use
A. 5 fingers
B. 6 fingers
C. 8 fingers
D. 10 fingers

20. Which of the following keys is not a function key on the computer keyboard?
A. F1
B. F2
C. F9
D. F13

21. The computer keyboard combination that would move the cursor insertion point to the beginning of the
current document is
A. Ctrl + B
B. Ctrl + H
C. Ctrl + Home
D. Ctrl + PgUp

22. Which of the following commands is used to resave an edited file with the same file name?
A. Copy
B. Save
C. Save As
D. Send

23. Computerized text editing is also referred to as

A. Database application
B. Desktop application
C. Spreadsheet application
D. Word processing application

24. In order to apply bold formatting to a section of existing text, the user must first
A. Save the document
B. Click the start button
C. Click on the formatting button
D. Select the section to be formatted

7
25. Text that is justified is
A. Adjusted to meet one margin
B. Adjusted to meet both margins
C. Grammatically correct
D. Only visible in print preview

26. Which of the following keys are used to underline a text in word processing?
A. Ctrl + B
B. Ctrl + H
C. Ctrl + I
D. Ctrl + U

27. When a text automatically moves to the next line at the end of a margin in a word processing program, it is
referred to as
A. Text wrap
B. Word wrap
C. Hard return
D. Text movement

28. The default orientation for a word processing document is

A. A4
B. Landscape
C. Letter
D. Portrait

29. To print a document after previewing, use the

A. Edit command button
B. Open command button
C. Print command button
D. Save command button

30. On an email interface, which of the following areas is mandatory to complete and send a message?
A. Sender body
B. Sender name
C. Message header / subject
D. Message recipient email address

31. Which of the following domain name extensions is used by educational institutions?
A. .com
B. .edu
C. .net
D. .org

32. Which of the following is a web browser?

A. Firewall
B. Opera
C. Windows
D. Yahoo

33. Which feature in a browser enables users to fetch the latest copy of a web page?
A. Backward
B. Forward
C. Refresh
D. Stop

8
34. Transmitting data from a local computer to a remote computer is referred to as
A. Downlinking
B. Downloading
C. Uplinking
D. Uploading

35. The http:// in a website address refers to

A. Domain name
B. Directory name
C. File name
D. Protocol

36. The command button that opens a dialog box for users to create an email message is
A. Back button
B. Compose button
C. Create button
D. Refresh button

37. A spreadsheet cell name is referenced by a

A. Letter
B. Number
C. Letter and a number
D. Number and a letter

38. Mathematical calculations in a spreadsheet are called

A. Formulas
B. Labels
C. Numbers
D. Values

39. Which of the following does a user need to bypass before accessing an email?
A. Username and computer name
B. Username and email name
C. Username and password
D. Username and yahoo

40. To apply a formula or function in a spreadsheet program, the symbol used is

A. = or *
B. = or +
C. = or /
D. = or –

9
TEST THREE

STUDY THE QUESTIONS CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWERS

1. The most important use of agriculture is for the provision of….

A. clothing.
B. food.
C. foreign exchange.
D. shelter.
E. wear.
2. Which of these is a perennial crop?
A. Cocoa
B. Ginger
C. Millet
D. Soya bean
E. Yam
3. Beef is to cattle as mutton is to….
A. goat.
B. pig.
C. poultry birds.
D. rabbit.
E. sheep.
4. The greatest advantage of commerce farming is….
A. cultivation of large area of land.
B. large scale production.
C. practices mono cropping.
D. specialization in farming.
E. use of large capital.
5. The first stage in the development of agriculture is
A. commercial farming.
B. crop rotation.
C. land rotation.

10
D. plantation agriculture.
E. subsistence farming.
6. Agriculture provides all of the following to national economy EXCEPT….
A. employment.
B. food.
C. foreign culture.
D. foreign exchange.
E. raw material.
7. Which of these agricultural products is used in the textile industry?
A. Cotton
B. Jute
C. Pule
D. Tomato
E. Wood
8. Maize, guinea corn and rice are called…
A. cereals.
B. fibre crops.
C. food.
D. forages.
E. oilseeds.
9. Crops grown for animal consumption are….
A. beverages.
B. cereals.
C. fibres.
D. forages.
E. spices.
10. One of the following crops is a cereal crop.
A. Beans
B. Cassava
C. Cocoa

11
D. Groundnut
E. Maize
11 ……. is an example of a legume.
A. Cashew
B. Groundnut
C. Maize
D. Plantain.
E. Sugarcane
12. Which of these is NOT a spice?
A. Curry
B. Garlic
C. Ginger
D. Melon
E. Onion
13. Farming for the purpose of feeding only the farmer’s family is known as….
A. commercial agriculture.
B. integrated farming.
C. private farming.
D. subsistence agriculture.
E. vegetable garden.
14. The tools used by early men were made of….
A. ceramic.
B. clay.
C. flint.
D. glass.
E. wire.
15. Which of these crops is grown for its fibre?
A. Cocoa
B. Coffee
C. Cowpea

12
D. Jute
E. Sugarcane
16. One of the following factors of production is a free gift of nature.
A. Capital
B. Entrepreneur
C. Land
D. Labour
E. Management
17. The factors of production that co-ordinate other factors is….
A. capital.
B. land.
C. labour.
D. mangement.
E. money.
18. Management can also be referred to as….
A. capital.
B. entrepreneur.
C. land.
D. labour.
E. profit.
19. The reward for management is ….
A. capital.
B. land.
C. labour.
D. profit.
E. skilled.
20. The following are factors of production EXCEPT….
A. capital.
B. land.
C. labour.

13
D. management.
E. wages.
21. The reward for labour is….
A. capital.
B. enterprisum.
C. wages.
D. land.
E. semi-skilled.
22. The cock that has been castrated is known as…
A. aphid.
B. billy.
C. buck.
D. capon.
E. doe.
23. The gestation period of rabbit is… days.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 50
E. 7

14
TEST FOUR
STUDY THE QUESTIONS CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWERS

1. Express XLIX in Arabic numeral.

A. 511
B. 490
C. 460
D. 49
E. 46
2. Write in figure, twenty five thousand and five.
A. 25,505
B. 25,500
C. 25,050
D. 25,005
E. 25,000
3. What is the place value of 2 in 204.14?
A. Hundreds
B. Tens
C. Tenth
D. Hundredth
E. Thousandth
4. Find the LCM of 12, 18 and 24.
A. 108
B. 72
C. 54
D. 36
E. 6
5.Find the sum of the square of 9 and the square root of 9
A. 6
B. 9
C. 81

15
D. 84
E. 99
6. Express N30,000 as a percentage of N60,000
A 60%
B. 50%
C. 40%
D. 30%
E. 20%
7. Which of the following numbers is NOT a perfect square?
A. 200
B. 144
C. 121
D. 25
E. 9
8. Two-third of a number is 10. What is the number
A. 30
B. 25
C. 20
D. 15
E. 10
9. Find the simple interest on N600 for 5 years at 9% per annum
A. N970
B. N920
C. 720
D. 520
E. 270
10. If 35% of a number is 70, find the number.
A. 20
B. 35
C. 105

16
D. 200
E. 2,450
11. Multiply 6204 by 0.0031
A. 19.23
B. 19.53
C. 190.23
D. 191.23
E. 192.32
12. What must be divided by 9 to obtain 32?
A. 24
B. 72
C. 144
D. 288
E. 576
13. Simplify (6g – 3) + (5 – 2g).
A. 4g – 2
B. 4g + 2
C. 4g + 3
D. 8g + 8
14. Simplify the algebraic expression 11/15z – 11/20z.
A.11z/60
B. 10/60z
C. 11/60z
D. 11/30z
15. Simplify 5c – (2 – 3c).
A. 2c + 2
B. 8c + 2
C. 2c – 2
D. 8c – 2
16. Simplify 4cd3/5c2 x 10c/12d2

17
A.2D^3
B.2CD^3
C.2^3D
D.2^C3
17. Subtract a + b from 3a – 4b. Write an algebraic expression.
A. 2a – 3b
B. 4a – 3b
C. 2a – 5b
D. 2a + 5b
18. Find the L.C.M. of 34 and 54.
A. 2 x 32 x 17
B. 2 x 3 x 17
C. 22 x 33 x 17
D. 2 x 33 x 17
19.Find the H.C.F. of 22 x 52 x 7, 22 x 72 x 5.
A.22 x 5 x 7
B.22 x 52 x 72
C.22 x 52 x 7
D.22 x 5 x 72
20. Express 160 as a product of prime factors.
A. 22 x 5
B. 25 x 5
C. 2 x 5
D. 24 x 5
21. Find the common factors of 9, 15, and 21.
A. 3, 5
B. 1, 3
C. 3, 7
D. 3
22. The prime factors of 81 are ________.

18
A. 3, 9
B. 3, 27
C. 9
D. 3
23. The temperature (in oC) for 15 days in Lagos were:
33, 25, 33, 24, 32, 33, 28, 26, 35, 33, 33, 34, 30, 33, 32. What was the modal temperature?
A. 35o
B. 34o
C. 33o
D. 32o
24. Find the mean of the following amounts of money ₦329, ₦3 530, ₦1 900, and ₦250.
A. ₦1, 052.25
B. ₦1, 502.25
C. ₦1, 205.25
D. ₦1, 520.25
25. A boy has 75, 1-centimeter cubes. Which of the following cuboids can he build?
A. 5cm long, 3cm wide, 5cm high
B. 6cm long, 5cm wide, 3cm high
C. 5cm long, 2cm wide , 8cm high
D. 7cm long , 4cm wide, 8 cm high
26. A box is 12 cm long, 8 cm wide and 6 cm high. How many 1-centimetre cubes will be needed to fill
the bottom layer of the box?
A. 64 cubes
B. 96 cubes
C. 88 cubes
D. 72 cubes
27. How many cubes of sides 25cm can be put into box which internally measures 90cm by 70cm by
50cm?
A. 10 cubes
B. 15 cubes
C. 35 cubes

19
D. 20 cubes
28. Express 4, 500 cm3 in litres.
A. 45 litres
B. 4.5 litres
C. 450 litres
D. 0.45 litres
29. The volume of a box is 320cm3. It is 16cm long and 10cm wide. How high is the box?
A. 3cm
B. 7cm
C. 2cm
D. 5cm
30. A cuboid is 4m 40cm long, 2m 60 cm wide and 2m 100cm high. What is its volume?
A. 42.53cm3
B. 28.66cm3
C. 34.32cm3
D. 67.41cm3
31. A boy has 75, 1-centimeter cubes. Which of the following cuboids can he build?
A. 5cm long, 3cm wide, 5cm high
B. 6cm long, 5cm wide, 3cm high
C. 5cm long, 2cm wide , 8cm high
D. 7cm long , 4cm wide, 8 cm high
32. A box is 12 cm long, 8 cm wide and 6 cm high. How many 1-centimetre cubes will be needed to fill
the bottom layer of the box?
A. 64 cubes
B. 96 cubes
C. 88 cubes
D. 72 cubes
33. The rates of payment for 5 workers are ₦4.30, ₦4.70, ₦3.90, ₦4.60 and ₦4.80. What is the average
rate of payment?
A. ₦4.46
B. ₦5.58

20
C. ₦3.72
D. ₦4.64
34. Find the average of 12, 13, 15, 19 and 21.
A. 15
B. 16
C. 8
D. 17
35. Find the average of 2kg 20g, 3kg 15g and 4kg 25g.
A. 3kg
B. 3kg 10g
C. 3kg 20g
D. 3kg 40g
36. Estimate the value of 30.5 X 8.
A. 310
B. 244
C. 240
D. 248
37. When Gregory took out four tubers of yam to cook for his friends, he had 26 tubers left. How many
tubers of yam did he have originally?
A. 22
B. 30
C. 26
D. 71/2
38. Professor Braide drove 315km on the first day of a trip, 235 km on the second day, and 206 km on the
last day. Find the average number of kilometres he travelled in the three days.
A. 242 km
B. 252 km
C. 352 km
D. 225 km
39. Find the average of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, and 16.
A. 9

21
B. 10
C. 8
D. 7
40. Find the average of 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16 and 18.
A. 12
B. 11
C. 9
D. 10

22
TEST FIVE
STUDY THE QUESTIONS CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWERS

1. How much is 24X2?

A) 26
B) 38
C) 48
D) 68
2. 0.75 is same as?
A) 7.5%
B) 750
C) 75%
D) 0.075%
3. The Next Prime number after 7 is?
A) 10
B) 11
C) 8
D) 14
4. The perimeter of a circle is known as?
A) Square
B) Circumference
C) Pie
D) Parallel
5. How much is 65-43?
A) 33
B) 22
C) 32
D) 20
6. Square root of 144?
A) 12
B) 11

23
C) 24
D) 13
7. What comes after billion and trillion?
A) Quadrillion
B) Million
C) Lakhs
D) Multi-trillion
8. How many sides do Nonagon contains?
A) 10
B) 9
C) 8
D) 7
9. -4 is a natural number.
A. True.
B. False
10. How much is 222+83?
A) 306
B) 305
C) 333
D) 304
11. The total degrees in Right Angle is
A) 90°
B) 100°
C) 80°
D) 120°
12. What number should be added to 66 to get 121 as a sum?
A) 55
B) 66
C) 60
D) 44

24
13. How much is 849 divided by 10?
A) 84.9
B) 84
C) 80
D) 90
14. How many days and hours are equal to 200 hours?
A) 8 days and 8 hours
B) 9 days and 10 hours
C) 20 days and 20 hours
D) 10 days and 20 hours
15. In 25,600, the place value of 6 is?
A) 600
B) 6
C) 6000
D) 60
16. The least number of two digits is?
A) 99
B) 88
C) 11
D) None of these
17. A number can be divided by 5 if its unit digit is-
A) 0 or 5
B) 10 or 5
C) 2 or 6
D) 10 or 5
18. The opposite of 6 is?
A) -6
B) 36
C) 5
D) 7

25
19. 3/5th of 100 is?
A) 60
B) 20
C) 30
D) 50
20. The remainder of 21 divided 7 is?
A) 7
B) 21
C) 3
D) None of these
21. 7% is equal to?
A) 0.007
B) 7
C) 0.7
D) 0.07
22. How many years complete a decade?
A) 10
B) 5
C) 20
D) 50
23. How many months are there in a century?
A) 1200
B) 120
C) 12000
D) 12
24. How much is 90112 - 3123?
A) 96999
B) 76899
C) 86989
D) 86999

26
25. What percentage to be added to 40 to make it 50?
A) 25
B) 90
C) 70
D) 15

TEST SIX
STUDY THE QUESTIONS CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWERS

1. The property of a rock that makes it different from water is that it has
A. fixed volume B. fixed shape C. density
D. mass
2. A plane mirror can be described as opaque because it
A. absorbs all the light incident on it. B. reflects all the light incident on it
C. allows all the light incident on it to pass through it
D. partly absorbs and partly allows the light incident on it to pass through it
3. Wood is used to make the handles of cooking utensils because it is a
A. bad conductor of heat B. good absorber of heat C. good reflector of heat D. bad radiator of heat
4. Ventilation holes are made at the upper part of a door to allow air to rise by
A. convection B. conduction C. radiation
D. reflection
5. When the north poles of two magnets are brought together they
A. attract each other
B. repel each other
C. first attract and then repel each other
D. haveno effect on each other
6. A fuse is used in an electrical circuit to
A. measure theenergyusedup
B. protect appliances
C. provide more current
D. make sure current flows continuously

27
7. The angle between an incident ray and a reflecting surface is 20°. Determine the angle of reflection.
A. 60° B. 70° C. 90° D. 110°
8. A screw is a machine which works in the same way as
A. a lever
B. an inclined plane C. a wheel and axle D. a pulley
9. Power is defined as the rate at which
A. energy is used
B. temperature rises
C. a body travels
D. a body cools down
10. An example of a lever in which the effort is applied at the middle is a
A. wheelbarrow B. pair of forceps C. pair of scissors D. beam balance
11. A simpler way of maintaining the efficiency of a machine is by
A. oiling its parts
B. fitting new parts on the machine C. making sure it is always working D. making sure it works at low
speed.
12. The part of a seed which grows to become the shoot of a plant is the
A. cotyledon B. plumule C. radicle
D. testa
13. One disease that affects the nervous system of humans is
A. filariasis
B. measles
C. poliomyelitis
D. typhoid
14. Which of the following life processes leads to the release of energy? A. Absorption of food B.
Digestion of food C. Photosynthesis
D. Respiration
15. Mineral salts in dead organisms are released into the soil by a process called
A. decomposition
B. diffusion C. leaching D. osmosis
16. Spectacles fitted with concave lenses are worn by people suffering from

28
A. loss of accommodation
B. total blindness
C. long sightedness
D. short sightedness
17. Which of these organs in humans releases carbon dioxide as a waste product?
A. Kidney
B. Liver C. Lung D. Skin
18. Farmers do not plant the stems of maize because the stems
A. do not have buds
B. are difficult to obtain
C. dry up too quickly
D. do not contain food
19. Which of the following ways of treating water makes the water soft?
A. Adding alum
B. Adding washing soda
C. Chlorinating
D. Filtering
20. Water that needs a small amount of soap to form lather is described as
A. clean B. hard C. pure D. soft
21. Common salt(sodium chloride) is obtained from seawater by
A. condensation B. evaporation C. precipitation
D. sublimation
22. The chemical formula of a compound describes the A. ratio in which the elements are combined B.
number of molecules in a compound
C. nature of the bonding in the compound
D. state of matter of the compound
23. Which of the following solvents can be used to remove grease from the hand?
A. Alcohol
B. Palm kernel oil
C. Turpentine

29
D. Water
24. How many different elements are present in the compound H2SO4?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 7
25. Producers in an ecosystem are plants that
A. feed on other plants
B. feed on dead materials
C. manufacture their own food
D. attract
26. The disease caused by the Plasmodium parasite is
A. cholera
B. malaria
C. onchocerciasis
D. schistosomiasis
27. Vaccination is carried out to
A. enable sores to heal faster
B. increase the red blood cells of a person
C. enable a person’s white blood cells to fight against diseases
D. kill germs in a person’s body
28. Which of the following farming practices is likely to make the soil poor in nutrients?
A. Adding chemical fertilizer during each planting season
B. Planting cover crops on the land
C. Tilling the land before planting
D. Burning the vegetation after clearing
29. The type of cloud found closest to the earth’s surface is
A. cirrus
B. cumulus
C. stratus

30
D. stratocumulus
30. The amount of water vapour in the atmosphere is called
A. fog
B. humidity
C. rain
D. temperature
31. The planet which is farthest away from the sun is
A. Jupiter B. Mercury C. Mars
D. Pluto
32. Which of the following gases is involved in the process of rusting?
A. H2
B. CO2
C. O2
D. N2
33. A non-reactive metal can be identified from other metals because its surface is
A. hard
B. shiny
C. smooth
D. rough
34. The property to a metal that makes it possible for it to be drawn into a wire is called
A. conductivity
B. ductility
C. malleability
D. resistivity
35. The main reason why food is processed is to make it
A. taste better
B. preservable for a longer period C. possible to eat without cooking D. richer in nutrients
36. The process by which kerosene rises up in the wick of a lantern is known as
A. capillarity
B. diffusion

31
C. surface tension
D. osmosis
37. Which of the following statements about friction is not true?
A. It wears off materials
B. It produces heat
C. It opposes motion
D. It increases speed
38. Arteries are blood vessels which carry
A. blood to the heart
B. carbon dioxide to the air
C. blood away from the heart
D. oxygen to the lungs
39. Which of the following structures is not involved in blood circulation?
A. Capillary
B. Heart C. Muscle D. Vein
40. A substance of mass 10 kg has a density of 2.0 kgm-3. Calculate its volume.
A. 0.2 m3
B. 5.0 m3
C. 10.0 m3
D. 20.0 mm

TEST SEVEN
STUDY THE QUESTIONS CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWERS

1. Which of the following properties is true about all matter? Matter has
A. volume and fixed shape
B. volume and mass
C. mass and indefinite volume
D. density and fixed shape
2. The type of energy obtained when an electric bulb is connected to a battery is
A.chemical energy B.electrical energy C.light energy D.magnetic energy

32
3. A magnet can attract all these substances except
A. drawing pins B. glass C. steel D. iron nails
4. The process by which heat travels along a metal is called
A. convection B. conduction C. expansion D. radiation
5. The instrument used to measure temperature is the
A. ammeter B. barometer C. manometer D. thermometer
6. A stick placed in water appears to be bent because light traveling from the water to the air is
A. dispersed B. displaced C. refracted D. reflected
7. A plane mirror could be described as opaque because it
A. reflects all the light incident on it
B. absorbs all the light incident on it
C. allows all the light incident on it to pass through it
D. allows some of the light incident on it to pass through it and absorbs the rest
8. A suitable machine for loading drums of palm oil onto a truck is
A. a screw B. a crowbar C.a wheel barrow D. an inclined plane
9. The human forearm is an example of
A. a first class lever
B. a second class lever
C. a third class lever
D. both first and third class levers
10. The chemical substances which help in the digestion of food are known as
A. enzymes B. hormones C. plasma D. vitamins
11. Digestion of proteins starts from the
A. duodenum B. ileum C. mouth D. stomach
12. A reflex action involves the
A. brain and nerves B. bones and nerves C. brain and muscles
D. spinal cord and nerves
13. Which of the following structures is not part of the central nervous system?
A. Brain B. Spinal cord C. Nerves D. Veins
14. When the testa of a soaked bean is removed, the seed is seen to be made up of

33
A. cotyledons B. embryos C. micropyles D. radicles
15. One function of the root system of plants is to
A. excrete carbon dioxide
B. store waste materials
C. hold the plant firmly in the ground
D. prepare food for the plant
16. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?
A. Cholera
B. Cerebro-Spinal Meningitis (CSM) C. Malaria
D. Tuberculosis (TB)
17. The different types of teeth that an animal has gives an indication of the nature of its
A. digestion B. environment C. feeding D. reproduction
18. Exchange of gases takes place in the respiratory system through the
A. bronchi B. lungs C. nostrils D. trachea
19. Water that requires more soap in order to form lather is described as
A. clean B. hard C. pure D. soft
20. One best way of making water safe for drinking is by
A. adding washing soda
B. filtering
C. adding common salt
D. boiling
21. The process where by a hot saturated solution is cooled to obtain the soluteis called
A. condensation B. crystallization C. distillation
D. evaporation
22. If a mixture of water and powdered charcoal is allowed to stand for along time, the charcoal
A. rises to the top
B. settles at the bottom
C. dissolves completely in the water
D. continues to remain suspended in the water
23. The chemical symbol of potassium is

34
A. Na B. K C. Pb D. S
24. The atom of an element is represented as . How many electrons are in the atom?
A. 52 B. 35 C. 18 D. 17
25. Which of the following agricultural practices prevents loss of water from the soil?
A. Addition of manure
B. Mulching
C. Addition of humus
D. Composting
26. Soil conservation is important because it prevents loss of
A. carbon dioxide B. oxygen C. minerals D. humus
27. Foot rot disease in animals is caused by
A. bacteria B. fungi C. protozoa D. viruses
28. A patient with symptoms of diarrhoea and vomiting may be suffering from
A. cholera B. dysentery C. influenza D. tuberculosis
29. Which of the following human activities pollutes the environment?
I. Release of cement dust into the atmosphere
II. Dumping of refuse into water bodies
III. Burning of rubbish
A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I,II and III
30. Which of the following features of a parent would not be in herited by the children?
A. Colour of eye B. Shape of nose C. Height D. Scar
31. Which of the following bodies is at the centre of the solar system?
A. Earth B. Mars C. Moon D. Sun
32. The chemicals used in the preparation of ammonia in the laboratory are
A. ammonium chloride and calcium hydroxide
B. ammonium nitrate and sodium chloride
C. ammonium sulphate and calcium chloride
D. ammonium sulphate and sodium chloride
33. Steel is an alloy of
A. iron and carbon B. zinc and copper C. iron and zinc D. brass and zinc

35
34. The property of a metal that makes it possible for it to be beaten into different shapes is called
A. conductivity B. ductility C. malleability D. resistivity
35. Movement of the particles of a gas from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower
concentration is known as A. capillarity B. diffusion C. osmosis D. viscosity
36. Oxygen in the blood finally reaches the parts of the body through the
A. arteries B. alveoli C. capillaries D. veins
37. An aluminium cube with side measuring2 m has amass of24 kg. Calculate the density of the
aluminium.
A. 48 kgm-3 B. 24 kgm-3 C. 12 kgm-3 D. 3 kgm-3
38. The force that opposes the motion of an object on an other object is called
A. electrical force B. frictional force C. gravitational force D.magnetic force
39. Water is prevented from passing through the tiny holes in a numbrellaby
A. diffusion B. frictional force C. capillarity D. surface tension
40. Which of the following methods of preserving food makes use of heat energy from the sun?
A. Drying B. Frying C. Salting D. Refrigeration

TEST EIGHT
STUDY THE QUESTIONS CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWERS

1. The method used to separate an insoluble solid from a liquid is

A. crystallization
B. distillation
C. filtration
D. sublimation

2. The scent of a perfume sprayed at one corner of a room fills the entire room through
A. conduction
B. diffusion C. osmosis D. radiation

3. Which of the following processes is a physical change?

A. Rusting of iron
B. Burning of wood
C. Formation of water from hydrogen and oxygen
D. Solidification of water into ice

4. Atoms of the same element have the same

I. number of electrons II. number of protons III. chemical properties
Which of the above statements are true?

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I,II and III

36
5. The unit of measurement of energy is
A. joule
B. kelvin

C. newton
D. watt

6. Which of the following energy transformations takes place at a hydroelectric power station?
A. Potential energy→ kinetic energy→electrical energy B. Potential energy→ sound energy→ electrical
energy C. Kinetic energy→electrical energy→ light energy
D. Electrical energy→ light energy→ heat energy

7. A drawing of magnetic lines of force provides information on the

A. source of the field
B. type of magnet
C. strength of the field
D. length of the magnet

8. A bottle of water removed from a refrigerator soon becomes covered with droplets of water because the
A. bottle is porous
B. bottle is full of water
C. water in the surrounding atmosphere is colder than the water in the bottle
D. water in the surrounding atmosphere is warmer than the water in the bottle

9. The volume of a metal ball was determined by dropping it into a measuring cylinder containing20cm3of
water and the water level rose to 35 cm3.If the mass of the ballis35 g, calculate its density.
A. 1.0 gcm-3
B. 1.6 gcm-3
C. 1.8 gcm-3
D. 2.3 gcm-3

10. A boy stepped on a bananapeel on the ground and fell because the
A. boy was not wearing shoes
B. ground was too hard
C. banana peel reduced the friction on the ground
D. banana peel increased the friction on the ground

11. Which of the following conditions describes a first class lever?

A. The load is between the effort and pivot
B. The pivot is between the effort and the load C. The effort is between the pivot and the load D. The load arm
is equal to the effort arm

12. A man did 75J of work by lifting a50 N load from the floor on to a shelf.Calculate the height of the shelf
A. 0.67 m B. 1.50 m C. 25.00 m

D. 125.00 m

13. The lion is a carnivore because it eats

A. flesh B. grass C. fruits
D. uncooked food

14. The structure which helps a fish to breathe underwater is the

A. gill
B. air sac

37
C. operculum
D. mouth

15. The thorns found on some plants are used for

A. breathing
B. protection
C. absorbing water from the air
D. resisting bush fires

16. The following characteristics are features of all living things except ability to
A. bring forth young ones
B. excrete
C. grow
D. move from place to place

17. Which of the following parasites lives on field animals

A. Aphid
B. Plasmodium
C. Tick
D. Tapeworm

18. The greatest danger faced by mammals living on land is

A. becoming too cold
B. becoming too hot
C. losing water through evaporation
D. gaining too much water through absorption

19. The insect responsible for the spread of malaria is the

A. female anopheles mosquito
B. housefly
C. male anopheles mosquito
D. tsetse fly

20. Which of the following substances is a dded to the soil to reduce its acidity?

A. Charcoal B. Humus C. Lime

D. Manure

Fig. 1 shows the arrangement of parts of the soil when some soil sample was shaken with water in a glass
cylinder and allowed to settle.

38
Use it to answer Questions21 and 22

21. Which of the labeled layers contains organic matter?

A. M B. N C. O D. P

22. The layer which does not have the ability to retain much water is
A. N B. O C. P D. Q

23. Which of the following characteristics applies to only plants?

A. Excretion of waste materials
B. Response to stimuli
C. Ability to manufacture food from simple substances
D. Ability to respire

24. The waste products of respiration are

A. glucose and oxygen
B. carbon dioxide and water
C. carbon dioxide and heat
D. oxygen and water

25. The function of the lung is to

A. maintain a constant amount of water in the body

B. absorb oxygen from the blood

C. absorb carbon dioxide from the blood
D. maintain the temperature of the body constant

26. Which of the following plants reproduce(s) vegetatively?

I. Banana II. Mango III. Ginger

A. II only
B. I and II only C. I and III only D. III only

27. The process which takes place in all living cells is

A. digestion

39
B. fertilization
C. photosynthesis
D. respiration

28. The food substance found in yam is

A. carbohydrate
B. oil
C. protein
D. vitamin

29. The end-products of the digestion of fats and oils are

A. amino acids and glucose B. amino acids and glycerol C. fatty acids and glycerol
D. fatty acids and amino acids

30. Which of the following factors promote plant germination?

I. Adequate temperature
II. Moisture
III. Good soil

A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I,II and III

31. The female part of a flower is the

A. calyx B. pistil C. petal D. stamen

32. Which of the following substances breaks down fats into tiny droplets during digestion
A. Bile
B. Gastric juice
C. Pancreatic juice
D. Saliva

33. Blood in the urine is a symptom of

A. bilharzia
B. cholera
C. gonorrhoea
D. typhoid

34. A free movement of the bowels is aided by

A. sleeping at least 6 hours a day
B. washingone’s body at least once a day
C. eating fatty foods
D. eating foods containing fibre

35. Which of the following diseases is spread through the air?

A. AIDS B. Measles C. Typhoid D. Yaws

36. How many days in a month does the moon appear?

A. 7 days B. 14 days C. 21 days D. 28 days

37. The earth moves completely round the sun once in every
A. 1 day B. 28 days C. 30 days D. 365 days

38. A smaller heavenly body,which orbits a bigger one could be described as a

A. comet B. meteor C. moon D. sun

40
39. Which ofthe following parasites is a plant?
A. Aphid B. Dodder C. Flea D. Jigger

40. Which of the following substances is not a constituent of a balanced diet?

A. Carbohydrate B. Protein C. Table salt D. Vitamin

TEST NINE
STUDY THE QUESTIONS CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWERS

1. A metre rule can be used for measuring the

A. volume of a liquid
B. area of a ball
C. length of a table
D. diameter of a wire
2. Heat travels through vacuum by
A. conduction B. convection C. radiation
D. convection and radiation
3. A mirror is used to direct sunlight onto the wall of a classroom by
A. dispersion B. refraction C. reflection D. radiation
4. Which of the following energy changes takes place in ringing bell?
A. Potential to kinetic
B. Potential to sound
C. Mechanical to sound
D. Sound to light
5. A fuse is connected in an electric circuit to
A. prevent electric shock
B. increase the current
C. prevent current from increasing
D. increase the heat generated
6. Which of these objects is a magnetic substance?
A. Aluminium
B. Brass
C. Copper

41
D. Iron
7. Which of the following bodies are natural sources of light?
I. Moon
II. Sun
III. Firefly
A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only
D. I,II and III only
8. Which of the following statements describes the nature of light?
A. It passes through all objects
B. It is absorbed at a polished surface
C. It travels in a straight line
D. It is always reflected in a medium
9. Metals are able to conduct electricity because they possess
A. free electrons
B. neutrons
C. atoms
D. free protons
10. Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin
A. A B. B C. E D. K
11. Which of the following fruits is adapted for dispersal by air?
A. Succulent fruit
B. Brightly coloured fruit
C. Sticky fruit
D. Hairy fruit
12. The food substance needed for growth and repair of tissues is
A. carbohydrate
B. oil
C. protein
D. vitamin
13. The type of teeth used for biting and cutting are the

42
A. canines
B. incisors
C. molars
D. premolars
14. Water is absorbed by roots in plants and transported to the leaves through the
A. chlorophyll
B. phloem C. stomata D. xylem
15. The outer ear consists of the A. ossicles and eardrum B. cochlea and pinna
C. ossicles and cochlea
D. pinna and eardrum
16. Changes in pressure in the middle ear is regulated by the
A. ampullae
B. cochlea
C. Eustachian tube
D. ear drum
17. The amount of light that enters the eye is reduced by the size of the
A. lens
B. iris
C. pupil
D. retina
18. In humans, features of parents are passed on to offspring through
A. breastfeeding B. reproduction C. good training
D. sharing the samethings
19. The taste of water changes when it is boiled because
A. heat is absorbed during boiling
B. evaporation takes place during boiling
C. air is lost during boiling
D. steam is produced during boiling
20. Arrange the following types of water in order of increasing hardness
I. Tap water

43
II. Seawater
III. Distilled water
IV. Rain water
A. IV,III,II,I B. III,IV,I,II C. II,I,IV,III D. I,II,III,IV
21. Which of these methods is used to separate insoluble solids from liquids?
A. Distillation B. Evaporation C. Filtration
D. Winnowing
22. A uniform mixture of two or more metals is called
A. an alloy
B. a compound
C. a solvent
D. a suspension
23. Which of the following liquids cannot dissolve an oil paint?
A. Kerosene
B. Petrol
C. Turpentine
D. Water
24. An atom which contains more electrons than protons becomes a
A. positive ion B. negative ion C. neutral atom
D. binary compound
25. The following substances are mixtures except
A. air
B. carbon dioxide
C. salt solution
D. smoke
26. The fish is protected from injury by the
A. fins
B. gills
C. operculum
D. scales

44
27. Which ofthe following substances is an air pollutant?
A. Water vapour
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Hydrogen sulphide
28. Bathing in lakes and slow moving streams can lead to one getting
A. bilharziasis
B. cholera
C. dysentery
D. river blindness
29. Some plants shed their leaves during the dry season to prevent
A. water loss
B. heat loss
C. catching fire
D. losing nutrients
30. Caterpillar is an example of
A. an animal parasite that feeds on plant
B. a plant parasite that lives on an animal host C. an animal parasite that feeds on animal host D. a plant
parasite that grows on plant host
31. How long does it take the moon to go completely round the earth?
A. 1 day
B. 28 days C. 30 days D. 365 days
32. An unripe orange is said to be acidic because it
A. has low sugar content
B. has bitter taste
C. turns red litmus paper blue
D. turns blue litmus paper red
33. The chemical symbol of potassiumis
A. K B. N C. P D. S
34. The property of a metal that makes it possible for it to be drawn into a wire is called

45
A. conductivity
B. ductility
C. malleability
D. resistivity
35. Which of the following methods of preserving food make use of heat energy?
I. Drying II. Frying III. Salting IV. Canning
A. I and II B. I and IV C. III and IV
D. I,II and III
36. Weight is an example of
A. energy B. force C. work D. power
37. Blood is prevented from flowing back into the veins by the
A. arteries
B. capillaries
C. heart
D. valves
38. The force that binds molecules of the same substance together is called
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. capillary action
D. surface tension
39. Soluble digested food substances enter the blood of the human body by a process called
A. absorption
B. egestion C. excretion D. ingestion
40. Capillary action is applied in the following activities except
A. blotting an ink with a blotting paper
B. absorption of water with a towel
C. rising of water in a very narrow glass tube
D. sticking of water droplets on the surface of a glass tube

TEST TEN

46
STUDY THE QUESTIONS CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWERS

1. Water that forms lather readily with soap is said to be

A. clean B. hard C. soapy D. soft

2. Which of the following life activities are common to both plants and animals?
I. Feeding
II. Locomotion
III. Respiration

A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I,II and III

3. A suitable instrument that could be used to measure the internal diameter of a bamboo flute is
A. beam balance B. metre rule C. surveyor’s tape D. vernier calipers

4. The ability of soils to supply the right amounts of essential nutrients to plants is known as
A. soil consistency B. soil fertility C. soil structure D. soil texture

5. The simplest way of making well water suitable for laundry purposes is by
A. adding alum B. boiling C. chlorination D. filtering

6. Washing down of soil nutrients beyond the reach of roots of plants is referred to as
A. aeration B. infiltration C. leaching D. percolation

7. Which of the following statements explain(s) why an object floats in water?

A floating object
I. is less dense than water
II. is denser than water
III. has the same density as water
A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and III only

8. An example of leafy vegetable crops is

A. cucumber B. lettuce C. okro D. onion

9. The structure in the respiratory system of humans where gaseous exchange occurs is
A. alveolus B. bronchus C. nostril D. trachea

10. The gas produced when glucose is oxidized during internal respiration is
A. carbon(II) oxide B. carbon(IV)oxide C. hydrogen D. nitrogen

11. The farm animal which has crop as part of its digestive system is the
A. fowl B. goat C. pig D. sheep

12. A beneficial effect of wind on the environment is

A. promotion of photosynthesis in green plants
B. pollination in flowering plants
C. leaching in soils
D. erosion in soils

13. The chemical solution that can be used to test for the presence of protein in food substances is
A. Benedict’s solution B. Fehling’s solution C. Iodine solution D. Million’s reagent

14. Which of the following statements about bush fires is/are true?
I.They cause air pollution

47
II. They deplete vegetation cover
III. They contribute to global warming

A. I only B. II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

15. The most effective method of controlling soil erosion on steep slopes is
A. cover cropping B. mulching C. strip cropping D. terracing

16. Which of the following agencies is responsible for providing information on the weather and climatic
conditions of an area?
A. Animal Husbandry Department
B. Extension Services Department
C. Information Services Department

D. Meteorological Services Department

17. The farming system which involves the growing of one type of crop on the same piece of land every season
is known as
A. mixed cropping B. mixed farming C. mono cropping D. mono culture

18. The fifth planet from the sun in the solar system is
A. Jupiter B. Mars C. Neptune D. Venus

19. The process that takes place when the sperm and the egg of humans fuse together is referred to as
A. fertilization B. menstruation C. ovulation D. reproduction

20. The process by which water vapour moves through the stomata of leaves into the atmosphere is known as
A. absorption
B. diffusion
C. osmosis
D. transpiration

21. An example of intensive system of poultry keeping is the

A. deep litter system
B. fold unit system
C. free range system
D. Free-running system

The diagram below represents a circuit symbol in an electronic device. Study it carefully and use it to answer
questions 22 and 23

48
22. The symbol represents
A. alight emitting diode
B. n-p-n transistor
C. light dependent resistor
D. p-n-p transistor

23. The part of the diagram labelled I has

A. more electrons than holes
B. no holes
C. more holes than electrons
D. the same number of holes as electrons

24. A spot made on a whitepaper with a given food substance turned the spot on the paper translucent.
The food substance is likely to contain
A. glucose B. oil C. protein D. starch

25. Which of the following sources of energy is non-renewable?

A. Sun B. Waves C. Wind D. wood

26. Which of the following farm animals is / are housed in a hutch?

I. Goats
II. Pigs
III. Rabbits

A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only

27. Which of the following blood vessels carries deoxygenated blood?

A. Aorta B. Pulmonary artery C. Pulmonary vein D. Renal artery

28. The energy transformation that takes place in a car battery is

A. electrical energy→chemical energy→ light energy

B. chemical energy→ light energy→ electrical energy
C. chemical energy→ electrical energy→ light energy
D. electrical energy→ light energy→ chemical energy

49
29. The type of liquid suitable to construct a thermometer to read temperatures of about 150°C is
A. alcohol B. mercury C. turpentine D. water

30. Amino acids are the end-products of the digestion of

A. carbohydrates B. fats C. oils D. proteins

31. The type of teeth used by mammals to cut food materials is

A. canine B. incisor C. molar D. premolar

32. Fishponds are often stocked using

A. anchovies B. fingerlings C. fish eggs D. frys

33. Which of the following processes result(s)in the formation of anew substance?
I. Burning of wood
II. Rusting of iron nail
III. Heating water into vapour

A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I,II and III

34. The use of resistant breeds of farm animals in controlling diseases is a

A. biological control method B. chemical control method C. cultural control method
D. physical control method

35. A load of 10 N is moved through a distance of 2m. Calculate the work done.
A. 5 J
B. 10 J
C. 20 J
D. 50 J

36. Which of the following components of human blood is dissolved in the plasma?
A. Mineral salts B. Phagocytes C. Platelets D. Red blood cells

37. An atom of carbon is represented as 12C6. How many neutrons are in the nucleus of the carbon atom?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 12

38. In agribusiness, middlemen operate within the

A. production chain
B. processing chain
C. supply chain
D. value chain

39. Which of the following illustrations shows the correct direction of the lines of force around a bar magnet?

50
40. The human sex cells are produced in the
A. scrotum and uterus
B. testis and ovary C. penis and vagina D. scrotum and ovary

TEST ELEVEN

STUDY THE QUESTIONS CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWERS

1. An example of a noble gas is

A. chlorine
B. neon
C. nitrogen
D. oxygen
2. The structure that stores sperms temporarily in the male reproductive system of humans is
A. epididymis B. scrotal sac C. sperm duct D. testes

3. Which of the following properties of alcohol as a thermometric liquid is correct?

A. It is opaque
B. It does not wet glass
C. It has a very low freezing point
D. It has a high freezing point

4. In which of the following vegetation zones of Ghana does millet and sorghum growwell?
A. Coastal savannah
B. Forest zone
C. Guinea savannah
D. Transition zone

5. Which of the following methods is/are used for preserving fish?

I. Canning II. Frying III. Smoking

A. I only
B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I,II and III

51
6. Which of the following practices in the home can prevent disease infection?

A. Covering one’s food

B. Drinking unclean water
C. Keeping one’s surroundings untidy
D. Sharing towels and sponges

7. An example of a semi metal is

A. calcium B. lithium C. silicon D. sodium

8. Which kind of energy transformation takes place in an electric motor?

A. Chemical energy to electrical energy
B. Chemical energy to mechanical energy
C. Electrical energy to light energy
D. Electrical energy to mechanical energy

9. Land race is a breed of

A. cattle B. goats C. pigs D. sheep

10. In flowering plants, the stamen is made up of

A. anther and stigma B. anther and filament C. stigma and filament D. stigma and style

11. Which of the following statements about a transistor is correct?

A. It can be used to amplify current
B. It is similar to three diodes C. It consists of two leads only D. It has three junctions

12. An atom has 6 protons and 7 neutrons in its nucleus. What is its mass number?
A. 1
B. 6
C. 7
D. 13

13. A record of daily activities on a farm is termed

A. labour record
B. inventory record
C. farm diary

D. production record

14. Which of the following devices work(s)on the principle of transmission of pressure in fluids?
I. Water pumps
II. Syringes
III. Bicycle brakes

A. I only
B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I,II and III

15. Which of the following crops is not correctly matched with its group?
A. Cowpea – cereal crop
B. Cocoa – beverage crop
C. Coconut – oil crop
D. Cocoyam – tuber crop

52
16. Which of the following substances is a salt?
A. H2SO4
B. NaOH C. HCl
D. CaCl2

17. In which part of the digestive system of a fowl does grinding of feed take place?
A. Crop
B. Gizzard
C. Oesophagus
D. Provent riculus

18. The parts of a bony fish that are used to control the level at which the fish swims are known as
A. dorsal and caudal fins
B. caudal and pectoral fins C. pectoral and pelvic fins D. dorsal and pectoral fins

19. Million’s reagent is used to test for

A. carbohydrates
B. fats
C. proteins
D. vitamins

20. In an n-p-n transistor, the n-type collector is connected to the positive terminal ofthe battery thus making
the
A. base-collector junction reverse biased

B. base-collector junction forward biased

C. base-emitter junction reverse biased
D. base-emitter junction forward biased

21. Which type of vegetation favours both wet and hot environmental conditions?
A. Strand and mangrove
B. Coastal savannah C. Guinea savannah D. Tropical forest

22. During drought, some plants dry out because of high

I. atmospheric temperature
II. humidity
III. rate of evaporation

Which of the statements above is/are correct? A. III only

B. I and II only C. I and III only D. I,II and III

23. Soil erosion on sloppy farm lands is best controlled by

A. cover cropping
B. mulching
C. strip cropping
D. terracing

24. A viable seed is one that

A. germinates under suitable conditions
B. contains oil
C. develops from fertilized ovary
D. has a pericarp

53
25. Which of the following pairs of structures form part of the female reproductive system of humans?
A. Urethra and uterus B. Cervix and uterus C. Ureter and uterus D. Cervix and ureter

26. Which of the following chemical symbols is that of a metal?

A. Ca B. Ne C. P D. S

27. All the living and non-living things that surround an organism constitute its
A. community
B. ecosystem
C. environment
D. habitat

28. Which of the following crops should be planted after cassava in crop rotation?
A. Coco yam B. Cowpea C. Onion
D. Yam

29. Endo parasites in farm animals can be controlled by

A. drenching
B. dipping C. dusting D. spraying

30. Which of the following devices requires the useoftransistors in its operation?
A. Computer
B. Electric heater
C. Microphone
D. Wall clock

31. Feel Method is used to determine soil

A. air
b. colour
C. structure
D. texture

32. Which of the following modes of heat transfer is the thermos flask designed to minimize?
I. Conduction II. Convection III. Radiation

A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I,II and III

33. An atom of an element is represented as .What is the respective number of neutrons and protons in the
atom?
A. 12 and 13
B. 12 and 25
C. 13 and 12
D. 25 and 12

34. The anemometer is an instrument used in determining

A. amount of rainfall
B. speed of wind
C. relative humidity
D. intensity of light

35. Which of the following subjects is/are considered as applied science?

I. Biology II. Medicine III. Psychology

54
A. I only
B. I and II only C. I and III only D. II and III only

36. Chinchilla is a breed of

A. goats
B. pigs
C. rabbits
D. sheep

37. Which of the following characters is not acquired through heredity?

A. Language spoken
B. Shape of nose C. Colour of eyes D. Temperament

38. The food nutrient which ensures good health in farm animals is
A. carbohydrates
B. minerals C. proteins D. vitamins

39. The use of resistant breeds of farm animals to control pests is a

A. biological method B. chemical method C. cultural method
D. physical method

40. Which of the following arrangements show the correct order of increasing complexity of structures in
living organisms?
A. cells →organs →tissues →systems

B. cells–>tissues –>organs –>systems C. cells–>systems –>tissues –>organs D. cells–>tissues –>systems –

>organs

55
UPPER PRIMARY CATEGORY
ANSWERS
TEST ONE TEST TWO TEST THREE TEST FOUR TEST FIVE
1. A 1. B 1. D 1. C
1. B 2. C 2. A 2. D 2. C
2. B 3. B 3. E 3. A 3. B
3. D 4. C 4. B 4. A 4. B
4. D 5. D 5. E 5. D 5. B
5. B 6. C 6. C 6. 6. A
6. B 7. D 7. A 7. A 7. A
7. C 8. B 8. A 8. D 8. B
8. A 9. D 9. D 9. E 9. B
9. A 10. A 10. E 10. D 10. B
10. C 11. D 11. B 11. A 11. A
11. D 12. C 12. D 12. D 12. A
12. B 13. B 13. D 13. B 13. A
13. C 14. A 14. C 14. C 14. A
14. A 15. A 15. D 15. D 15. A
15. C 16. B 16. C 16. A 16. D
16. C 17. B 17. D 17. C 17. A
17. C 18. B 18. B 18. D 18. A
18. B 19. D 19. D 19. A 19. A
19. A 20. D 20. E 20. B 20. D
20. D 21. C 21. C 21. B 21. D
21. A 22. B 22. D 22. D 22. A
22. A 23. D 23. C 23. C 23. A
23. B 24. D
24. D 24. B 24. C
25. B 25. A 25. A
25. D 26. D
26. C 26. B
27. B 27. D
27. C 28. D
28. C 28. B
29. C 29. C
29. D 30. D
30. A 30. C
31. B 31. A
31. A 32. B
32. C 32. B
33. C 33. A
33. A 34. D
34. A 34. B
35. D 35. C
35. D 36. B
36. A 36. A
37. C 37. B
37. A 38. A
38. B 38. C
39. C 39. A
39. C 40. D
40. D 40. A

56
TEST SIX TEST SEVEN TEST EIGHT TEST NINE TEST TEN TEST ELEVEN
1. B 1. B 1. C 1. C 1. B
1. D
2. B 2. C 2. B 2. C 2. A
2. B
3. A 3. B 3. D 3. C 3. C
3. D
4. A 4. B 4. D 4. C 4. C
4. B
5. B 5. D 5. A 5. C 5. D
5. B
6. B 6. C 6. A 6. D 6. A
6. C
7. B 7. A 7. C 7. C 7. C
7. A
8. B 8. D 8. D 8. C 8. D
8. B
9. A 9. C 9. D 9. A 9. C
9. A
10. B 10. A 10. C 10. B 10. B
10. B
11. A 11. D 11. B 11. D 11. A
11. A
12. B 12. D 12. B 12. C 12. D
12. B
13. C 13. D 13. A 13. B 13. C
13. D
14. D 14. A 14. A 14. D 14. D
14. D
15. A 15. C 15. B 15. D 15. A
15. D
16. D 16. B 16. D 16. C 16. D
16. D
17. C 17. C 17. C 17. C 17. B
17. D
18. A 18. B 18. C 18. B 18. C
18. A
19. B 19. B 19. A 19. C 19. C
19. A
20. D 20. D 20. C 20. B 20. A
20. D
21. B 21. B 21. A 21. C 21. D
21. A
22. A 22. B 22. D 22. A 22. C
22. B
23. C 23. B 23. C 23. D 23. D
23. C
24. B 24. D 24. B 24. B 24. A
24. B
25. C 25. B 25. C 25. B 25. B
25. D
26. B 26. C 26. C 26. D 26. A
26. B
27. C 27. B 27. D 27. D 27. C
27. B
28. D 28. A 28. A 28. A 28. B
28. C
29. C 29. D 29. C 29. A 29. A
29. B
30. B 30. D 30. A 30. A 30. A
30. B
31. D 31. D 31. B 31. B 31. D
31. B
32. C 32. A 32. A 32. D 32. D
32. B
33. B 33. A 33. A 33. A 33. C
33. B
34. B 34. C 34. D 34. B 34. B
34. A
35. B 35. B 35. B 35. A 35. D
35. C
36. A 36. C 36. D 36. B 36. C
36. A
37. D 37. D 37. D 37. D 37. A
37. C
38. C 38. B 38. C 38. B 38. D
38. B
39. C 39. D 39. B 39. A 39. A
39. B
40. B 40. A 40. C 40. D 40. B
40. B

57