DBMS Practice Questions

1. What is the full form of DBMS?

a) Data of Binary Management System
b) Database Management System
c) Database Management Service
d) Data Backup Management System

2. What is a database?
a) Organized collection of information that cannot be accessed, updated, and managed
b) Collection of data or information without organizing
c) Organized collection of data or information that can be accessed, updated, and managed
d) Organized collection of data that cannot be updated

3. What is DBMS?
a) DBMS is a collection of queries
b) DBMS is a high-level language
c) DBMS is a programming language
d) DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves data

4. Who created the first DBMS?

a) Edgar Frank Codd
b) Charles Bachman
c) Charles Babbage
d) Sharon B. Codd

5. Which type of data can be stored in the database?

a) Image oriented data
b) Text, files containing data
c) Data in the form of audio or video
d) All of the above

6. In which of the following formats data is stored in the database management system?
a) Image
b) Text
c) Table
d) Graph

7. Which of the following is not a type of database?

a) Hierarchical
b) Network
c) Distributed
d) Decentralized

8. Which of the following is not an example of DBMS?

a) MySQL
b) Microsoft Access
c) IBM DB2
d) Google

9. Which of the following is not a feature of DBMS?

a) Minimum Duplication and Redundancy of Data
b) High Level of Security
c) Single-user Access only
d) Support ACID Property

10. Which of the following is a feature of the database?

a) No-backup for the data stored
b) User interface provided
c) Lack of Authentication
d) Store data in multiple locations

11. Which of the following is not a function of the database?

a) Managing stored data
b) Manipulating data
c) Security for stored data
d) Analysing code

12. Which of the following is a function of the DBMS?

a) Storing data
b) Providing multi-users access control
c) Data Integrity
d) All of the above

13. Which of the following is a component of the DBMS?

a) Data
b) Data Languages
c) Data Manager
d) All of the above
14. Which of the following is known as a set of entities of the same type that share same
properties, or attributes?
a) Relation set
b) Tuples
c) Entity set
d) Entity Relation model

15. What is information about data called?

a) Hyper data
b) Tera data
c) Meta data
d) Relations

16. What does an RDBMS consist of?

a) Collection of Records
b) Collection of Keys
c) Collection of Tables
d) Collection of Fields

17. The values appearing in given attributes of any tuple in the referencing relation must
likewise occur in specified attributes of at least one tuple in the referenced relation,
according to _____________________ integrity constraint.
a) Referential
b) Primary
c) Referencing
d) Specific

18. _____________ is a hardware component that is most important for the operation of a
database management system.
a) Microphone
b) High speed, large capacity disk to store data
c) High-resolution video display
d) Printer

19. The DBMS acts as an interface between ________________ and ________________ of

an enterprise-class system.
a) Data and the DBMS
b) Application and SQL
c) Database application and the database
d) The user and the software
20. The ability to query data, as well as insert, delete, and alter tuples, is offered by
____________
a) TCL (Transaction Control Language)
b) DCL (Data Control Language)
c) DDL (Data Definition Langauge)
d) DML (Data Manipulation Langauge)

21. ______________ is a set of one or more attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify
a record.
a) Primary Key
b) Foreign key
c) Super key
d) Candidate key

22. Which command is used to remove a relation from an SQL?

a) Drop table
b) Delete
c) Purge
d) Remove

23. Which of the following set should be associated with weak entity set for weak entity to
be meaningful?
a) Neighbour set
b) Strong entity set
c) Owner set
d) Identifying set

24. Which of the following command is correct to delete the values in the relation teaches?
a) Delete from teaches;
b) Delete from teaches where Id =’Null’;
c) Remove table teaches;
d) Drop table teaches;

25. Procedural language among the following is __________

a) Domain relational calculus
b) Tuple relational calculus
c) Relational algebra
d) Query language

26. _________________ operations do not preserve non-matched tuples.

a) Left outer join
b) Inner join
c) Natural join
d) Right outer join

27. Which forms have a relation that contains information about a single entity?
a) 4NF
b) 2NF
c) 5NF
d) 3NF

28. The top level of the hierarchy consists of ______ each of which can contain _____.
a) Schemas, Catalogs
b) Schemas, Environment
c) Environment, Schemas
d) Catalogs, Schemas

29. _______ indicates the maximum number of entities that can be involved in a
relationship.
a) Greater Entity Count
b) Minimum cardinality
c) Maximum cardinality
d) ERD

30. The user IDs can be added or removed using which of the following fixed roles?
a) db_sysadmin
b) db_accessadmin
c) db_securityadmin
d) db_setupadmin

31. Why the following statement is erroneous?

SELECT dept_name, ID, avg (salary)
FROM instructor
GROUP BY dept_name;

a) Dept_id should not be used in group by clause

b) Group by clause is not valid in this query
c) Avg(salary) should not be selected
d) None
32. The traditional storage of data organized by the customer, stored in separate folders in
filing cabinets is an example of ______________ type of ‘database’ management system.
a) Object-oriented database management system
b) Relational database management system
c) Network database management system
d) Hierarchical database management system

33. After groups have been established, SQL applies predicates in the ___________ clause,
allowing aggregate functions to be used.
a) Where
b) Having
c) Group by
d) With

34. Which of the following is not the utility of DBMS?

a) Backup
b) Data Loading
c) Process Organization
d) File organization

35. What does a foreign key combined with a primary key create?
a) Network model between the tables that connect them
b) Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connects them
c) One to many relationship between the tables that connects them
d) All of the mentioned

36. Which of the following is correct according to the technology deployed by DBMS?
a) Pointers are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
b) Cursors are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
c) Locks are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
d) Triggers are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency

37. Which of the following is correct regarding the file produced by a spreadsheet?
a) can be used as it is by the DBMS
b) stored on disk in an ASCII text format
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

38. What is the function of the following command?

Delete from r where P;
a) Clears entries from relation
b) Deletes relation
c) Deletes particular tuple from relation
d) All of the mentioned

39. ______ resembles Create view.

a) Create table . . . as
b) Create view as
c) Create table . . .like
d) With data

40. Which of the following is the best way to represent the attributes in a large db?
a) Dot representation
b) Concatenation
c) Relational-and
d) All of the mentioned

41. Which of the following is the subset of SQL commands used to manipulate Oracle
Structures, including tables?
a) Data Described Language
b) Data Retrieval Language
c) Data Manipulation Language
d) Data Definition Language

42. __________ command is used in SQL to issue multiple CREATE TABLE, CREATE VIEW and
GRANT statements in a single transaction.
a) CREATE CLUSTER
b) CREATE PACKAGE
c) CREATE SCHEMA
d) All of the mentioned

43. For designing a normal RDBMS which of the following normal form is considered
adequate?
a) 4NF
b) 3NF
c) 2NF
d) 5NF

44. The oldest DB model is _______________

a) Network
b) Physical
c) Hierarchical
d) Relational

45. Which of the following establishes a top-to-bottom relationship among the items?
a) Relational schema
b) Network schema
c) Hierarchical schema
d) All of the mentioned

46. A major goal of the db system is to minimize the number of block transfers between the
disk and memory. Which of the following helps in achieving this goal?
a) Secondary storage
b) Storage
c) Catalog
d) Buffer

47. The logical design, and the snapshot of the data at a given instant in time is known as?
a) Instance & Relation
b) Relation & Schema
c) Domain & Schema
d) Schema & Instance
48. Which of the following gives a logical structure of the database graphically?
a) Entity-relationship diagram
b) Entity diagram
c) Database diagram
d) Architectural representation

49. The entity relationship set is represented in E-R diagram as

a) Double diamonds
b) Undivided rectangles
c) Dashed lines
d) Diamond

50. The Rectangles divided into two parts represents

a) Entity set
b) Relationship set
c) Attributes of a relationship set
d) Primary key
51. Consider a directed line(->) from the relationship set advisor to both entity sets
instructor and student. This indicates _________ cardinality
a) One to many
b) One to one
c) Many to many
d) Many to one

52. We indicate roles in E-R diagrams by labeling the lines that connect ___________ to
__________
a) Diamond , diamond
b) Rectangle, diamond
c) Rectangle, rectangle
d) Diamond, rectangle

53. An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key is termed a
_________
a) Strong entity set
b) Variant set
c) Weak entity set
d) Variable set

54. For a weak entity set to be meaningful, it must be associated with another entity set,
called the
a) Identifying set
b) Owner set
c) Neighbour set
d) Strong entity set

55. Weak entity set is represented as

a) Underline
b) Double line
c) Double diamond
d) Double rectangle

56. If you were collecting and storing information about your music collection, an album
would be considered a(n) _____
a) Relation
b) Entity
c) Instance
d) Attribute
57. What term is used to refer to a specific record in your music database; for instance;
information stored about a specific album?
a) Relation
b) Instance
c) Table
d) Column
58. _____________ express the number of entities to which another entity can be
associated via a relationship set.
a) Mapping Cardinality
b) Relational Cardinality
c) Participation Constraints
d) None of the mentioned

59. An entity in A is associated with at most one entity in B, and an entity in B is associated
with at most one entity in A.This is called as
a) One-to-many
b) One-to-one
c) Many-to-many
d) Many-to-one

60. An entity in A is associated with at most one entity in B. An entity in B, however, can be
associated with any number (zero or more) of entities in A.
a) One-to-many
b) One-to-one
c) Many-to-many
d) Many-to-one

61. Data integrity constraints are used to:

a) Control who is allowed access to the data
b) Ensure that duplicate records are not entered into the table
c) Improve the quality of data entered for a specific property
d) Prevent users from changing the values stored in the table

62. ______ is a special type of integrity constraint that relates two relations & maintains
consistency across the relations.
a) Entity Integrity Constraints
b) Referential Integrity Constraints
c) Domain Integrity Constraints
d) Domain Constraints
63. Which one of the following uniquely identifies the elements in the relation?
a) Secondary Key
b) Primary key
c) Foreign key
d) Composite key

64. Drop Table cannot be used to drop a table referenced by a _________ constraint.
a) Local Key
b) Primary Key
c) Composite Key
d) Foreign Key

65. ____________ is preferred method for enforcing data integrity

a) Constraints
b) Stored Procedure
c) Triggers
d) Cursors
66. In the __________ normal form, a composite attribute is converted to individual
attributes.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth

67. A table on the many side of a one to many or many to many relationship must:
a) Be in Second Normal Form (2NF)
b) Be in Third Normal Form (3NF)
c) Have a single attribute key
d) Have a composite key

68. Tables in second normal form (2NF):

a) Eliminate all hidden dependencies
b) Eliminate the possibility of a insertion anomalies
c) Have a composite key
d) Have all non key fields depend on the whole primary key

69. Which-one of the following statements about normal forms is FALSE?

a) BCNF is stricter than 3 NF
b) Lossless, dependency -preserving decomposition into 3 NF is always possible
c) Loss less, dependency – preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible
d) Any relation with two attributes is BCNF

70. Functional Dependencies are the types of constraints that are based on______
a) Key
b) Key revisited
c) Superset key
d) None of the mentioned

71. Which is a bottom-up approach to database design that design by examining the
relationship between attributes:
a) Functional dependency
b) Database modeling
c) Normalization
d) Decomposition

72. Which forms simplifies and ensures that there are minimal data aggregates and
repetitive groups:
a) 1NF
b) 2NF
c) 3NF
d) All of the mentioned

73. Which forms has a relation that possesses data about an individual entity:
a) 2NF
b) 3NF
c) 4NF
d) 5NF

74. Which forms are based on the concept of functional dependency:

a) 1NF
b) 2NF
c) 3NF
d) 4NF

75. Empdt1(empcode, name, street, city, state, pincode).

For any pincode, there is only one city and state. Also, for given street, city and state, there is
just one pincode. In normalization terms, empdt1 is a relation in
a) 1 NF only
b) 2 NF and hence also in 1 NF
c) 3NF and hence also in 2NF and 1NF
d) BCNF and hence also in 3NF, 2NF and 1NF

76. The normal form which satisfies multivalued dependencies and which is in BCNF is
a) 4 NF
b) 3 NF
c) 2 NF
d) All of the mentioned

77. Which of the following is a tuple-generating dependencies?

a) Functional dependency
b) Equality-generating dependencies
c) Multivalued dependencies
d) Non-functional dependency

78. The main task carried out in the __________ is to remove repeating attributes to
separate tables.
a) First Normal Form
b) Second Normal Form
c) Third Normal Form
d) Fourth Normal Form

79. Which of the normal form is based on multivalued dependencies?

a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth

80. Which forms has a relation that possesses data about an individual entity?
a) 2NF
b) 3NF
c) 4NF
d) 5NF

81. If a multivalued dependency holds and is not implied by the corresponding functional
dependency, it usually arises from one of the following sources.
a) A many-to-many relationship set
b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set
c) A one-to-many relationship set
d) Both A many-to-many relationship set and A multivalued attribute of an entity set
82. Which of the following has each related entity set has its own schema and there is an
additional schema for the relationship set?
a) A many-to-many relationship set
b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set
c) A one-to-many relationship set
d) None of the mentioned

83. In which of the following, a separate schema is created consisting of that attribute and
the primary key of the entity set.
a) A many-to-many relationship set
b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set
c) A one-to-many relationship set
d) None of the mentioned

84. Fifth Normal form is concerned with

a) Functional dependency
b) Multivalued dependency
c) Join dependency
d) Domain-key

85. In 2NF
a) No functional dependencies (FDs) exist
b) No multivalued dependencies (MVDs) exist
c) No partial FDs exist
d) No partial MVDs exist

86. We can use the following three rules to find logically implied functional dependencies.
This collection of rules is called
a) Axioms
b) Armstrong’s axioms
c) Armstrong
d) Closure

87. Which of the following is not Armstrong’s Axiom?

a) Reflexivity rule
b) Transitivity rule
c) Pseudotransitivity rule
d) Augmentation rule

88. The relation employee(ID,name,street,Credit,street,city,salary) is decomposed into

employee1 (ID, name)
employee2 (name, street, city, salary)
This type of decomposition is called
a) Lossless decomposition
b) Lossless-join decomposition
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

89. Inst_dept (ID, name, salary, dept name, building, budget) is decomposed into
instructor (ID, name, dept name, salary)
department (dept name, building, budget)
This comes under
a) Lossy-join decomposition
b) Lossy decomposition
c) Lossless-join decomposition
d) Both Lossy and Lossy-join decomposition

90. There are two functional dependencies with the same set of attributes on the left side of
the arrow:
A->BC
A->B
This can be combined as
a) A->BC
b) A->B
c) B->C
d) None of the mentioned

92. A system is in a ______ state if there exists a set of transactions such that every
transaction in the set is waiting for another transaction in the set.
a) Idle
b) Waiting
c) Deadlock
d) Ready

93. The deadlock state can be changed back to stable state by using _____________
statement.
a) Commit
b) Rollback
c) Savepoint
d) Deadlock

94. What are the ways of dealing with deadlock?

a) Deadlock prevention
b) Deadlock recovery
c) Deadlock detection
d) All of the mentioned

95. When transaction Ti requests a data item currently held by Tj, Ti is allowed to wait only if
it has a timestamp smaller than that of Tj (that is, Ti is older than Tj). Otherwise, Ti is rolled
back (dies). This is
a) Wait-die
b) Wait-wound
c) Wound-wait
d) Wait

96. When transaction Ti requests a data item currently held by Tj, Ti is allowed to wait only if
it has a timestamp larger than that of Tj (that is, Ti is younger than Tj ). Otherwise, Tj is rolled
back (Tj is wounded by Ti). This is
a) Wait-die
b) Wait-wound
c) Wound-wait
d) Wait

97. The situation where the lock waits only for a specified amount of time for another lock
to be released is
a) Lock timeout
b) Wait-wound
c) Timeout
d) Wait

98. The deadlock in a set of a transaction can be determined by

a) Read-only graph
b) Wait graph
c) Wait-for graph
d) All of the mentioned

99. A deadlock exists in the system if and only if the wait-for graph contains a ___________
a) Cycle
b) Direction
c) Bi-direction
d) Rotation

100. __________ rollback requires the system to maintain additional information about the
state of all the running transactions.
a) Total
b) Partial
c) Time
d) Commit

Answers of DBMS Practice Questions:

1. b) Database Management System
2. c) Organized collection of data or information that can be accessed, updated, and
managed
3. d) DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves data
4. b) Charles Bachman
5. d) All of the above
6. c) Table
7. d) Decentralized
8. d) Google
9. c) Single-user Access only
10. b) User interface provided
11. d) Analysing code
12. d) All of the above
13. d) All of the above
14. c) Entity set
15. c) Meta data
16. c) Collection of Tables
17. a) Referential
18. b) High speed, large capacity disk to store data
19. c) Database application and the database
20. d) DML (Data Manipulation Language)
21. c) Super key
22. a) Drop table
23. b) Strong entity set
24. a) Delete from teaches;
25. c) Relational algebra
26. b) Inner join
27. d) 3NF
28. d) Catalogs, Schemas
29. c) Maximum cardinality
30. b) db_accessadmin
31. d) None
32. d) Hierarchical database management system
33. b) Having
34. c) Process Organization
35. b) Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connects them
36. c) Locks are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
37. c) all of the mentioned
38. c) Deletes particular tuple from relation
39. a) Create table . . . as
40. d) All of the mentioned
41. d) Data Definition Language
42. c) CREATE SCHEMA
43. b) 3NF
44. c) Hierarchical
45. c) Hierarchical schema
46. d) Buffer
47. d) Schema & Instance
48. a) Entity-relationship diagram
49. d) Diamond
50. a) Entity set
51. b) One to one
52. d) Diamond, rectangle
53. c) Weak entity set
54. b) Owner set
55. d) Double rectangle
56. b) Entity
57. b) Instance
58. a) Mapping Cardinality
59. b) One-to-one
60. a) One-to-many
61. c) Improve the quality of data entered for a specific property
62. b) Referential Integrity Constraints
63. b) Primary key
64. d) Foreign Key
65. a) Constraints
66. a) First
67. d) Have a composite key
68. d) Have all non key fields depend on the whole primary key
69. c) Loss less, dependency – preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible
70. a) Key
71. c) Normalization
72. d) All of the mentioned
73. b) 3NF
74. d) 4NF
75. c) 3NF and hence also in 2NF and 1NF
76. a) 4 NF
77. a) Functional dependency
78. a) First Normal Form
79. d) Fourth
80. b) 3NF
81. d) Both A many-to-many relationship set and A multivalued attribute of an entity set
82. a) A many-to-many relationship set
83. b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set
84. c) Join dependency
85. c) No partial FDs exist
86. b) Armstrong’s axioms
87. c) Pseudo transitivity rule
88. b) Lossless-join decomposition
89. c) Lossless-join decomposition
90. a) A->BC
92. c) Deadlock
93. b) Rollback
94. d) All of the mentioned
95. a) Wait-die
96. c) Wound-wait
97. a) Lock timeout
98. c) Wait-for graph
99. a) Cycle
100. b) Partial