NAMIBIA SENIOR SECONDARY CERTIFICATE

PHYSICS ORDINARY LEVEL 6118/1

PAPER 1 Multiple Choice 45 minutes
Marks 40 2024

Additional Materials: Multiple choice answer sheet

Non-programmable calculator
Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

E L
INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION TO CANDIDATES

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• Write in soft pencil.
• Make sure that you receive the multiple choice answer sheet with your examination number on it.

L E
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question, there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider

Y
correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate answer sheet.
• If you want to change an answer, thoroughly erase the one you wish to delete.

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• Read the instructions on the answer sheet carefully.

A
• Each correct answer will score one mark.

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• Any rough working should be done in this booklet.

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• All questions in this paper carry equal marks.
• You may use a non-programmable calculator.

O R D
This document consists of 12 printed pages.

Republic of Namibia
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, ARTS AND CULTURE

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1 Which instrument is used to measure accurately the inner diameter of a wedding ring?
A 30 cm ruler
B metre rule
C micrometer screw gauge
D vernier calipers

2 An object is released from rest and falls to Earth. During its fall, the object is
affected by air resistance. The air resistance eventually reaches a constant value.
Which description about successive stages of the motion of the object is correct?
A constant acceleration, then constant deceleration
B constant deceleration, then zero acceleration
C decreasing acceleration, then constant deceleration
D decreasing acceleration, then zero acceleration

3 The graph represents the motion of a train travelling between two stations.

20
speed
m/s

10

0
0 100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900
time/s
Which statement about the train is correct?
A Its acceleration reached 4000 m/s2 in the first 100 s.
B Its deceleration occurred over a 4000 m distance.
C It travelled 2000 m in the first 100 s.
D It travelled 10 000 m at constant speed.

4 Which quantity has the same unit as force?

A electromotive force
B moment of force
C weight of an object
D work done on an object

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5 Which words describe why a physical quantity is classified as a vector quantity?
A direction only
B size but no direction
C both size and direction
D neither size nor direction

6 Pressure is force acting per unit area.

Which changes produce the same pressure?
A double the area and double the force
B double the area and halve the force
C double the area and make the force four times bigger
D halve the area and double the force

7 A uniform beam is pivoted at its centre. The beam is balanced by three weights in
the positions shown.
0.50 m

0.40 m d

300 N 350 N 100 N

What is the length d?
A 0.020 m
B 0.050 m
C 0.20 m
D 0.48 m

8 Four objects of equal mass rest on a smooth surface. The centre of mass of each
object is labelled G.
Which object is the least stable?
A B C D

G
×
G
G G ×
× ×

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9 An object of 400 kg mass is moving at a speed v m/s. It collides head-on with
another object of 200 kg mass moving at a speed of 100 m/s in the opposite direction.
The two objects stick together after collision, moving at a speed of 80 m/s.
What was the speed, v m/s, of the 400 kg object before collision if momentum has
been conserved?
A 50 m/s
B 70 m/s
C 80 m/s
D 100 m/s

10 The soccer ball of mass 0.5 kg was dropped from a height of 3.0 m above the
ground. Air resistance is negligible.
Which row correctly gives the maximum kinetic energy attained by the ball?
amount in joules position
A 7.5 as it lands
B 7.5 at the highest height
C 15 as it lands
D 15 at the highest height

11 Which type of energy is described as energy possessed due to position above the
ground?
A chemical energy
B kinetic energy
C potential energy
D strain energy

12 The diagram shows the only three forces acting on an object.

5N
30 N
5N
What is the resultant force on the object?
A 10 N towards the right
B 20 N towards the left
C 30 N towards the left
D 40 N towards the right

13 Which statement defines specific latent heat?

A The heat absorbed to change the state of 1 kg of a substance.
B The heat absorbed to change the state of a substance.
C The heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1 K.
D The heat required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1 K.

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14 To mark a scale on a thermometer, standard temperatures known as fixed points
are needed.
Which of the following provides a fixed point?
A the room temperature
B the temperature inside a freezer
C the temperature of pure melting ice
D the temperature of warm water

15 Each of the two statements below describes a change of state due to cooling of
the substance.
change 1: Molecules stop moving throughout the substance and just vibrate
about fixed positions.
change 2: Molecules move closer together but continue to travel throughout the
substance.
Which changes of state do these statements describe?

change 1 change 2
A condensation melting
B condensation solidification
C solidification condensation
D solidification melting

16 At a certain temperature, all particles stop moving.

Which statement describes this temperature?
A The absolute zero and it is 0 degree Celsius.
B The absolute zero and it is 0 Kelvin.
C The freezing point and it is 0 degree Celsius.
D The freezing point and it is 0 Kelvin.

17 An object made of cast iron has a mass of 2.0 kg. 23 000 J of energy was used to
increase the temperature of this object from 50 °C to 75 °C.
What is the specific heat capacity of cast iron?
A 153 J / (kg °C)
B 230 J / (kg °C)
C 460 J / (kg °C)
D 920 J / (kg °C)

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18 Ice is trapped by a piece of metal gauze at the bottom of a tube containing water.
The water at the top of the tube boils before the ice at the bottom of the tube melts.

water boiling

metal gauze
heat
ice

Why does the melting of the ice occur slowly?

A Hot water is denser than cold water.
B Ice is a poor absorber of heat.
C Metal gauze does not allow heat to pass through.
D Water is a poor conductor of heat.

19 What is the name given to the transfer of heat energy which does not require a medium?
A conduction
B convection
C evaporation
D radiation

20 Which row shows an example of a transverse wave and an example of a

longitudinal wave?

transverse longitudinal
A light radio
B light sound
C sound surface of water
D surface of water light

21 Which electromagnetic waves have the shortest wavelength?

A gamma rays
B infra-red waves
C microwaves
D radio waves

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22 An ultraviolet wave has a wavelength of 3.0 × 10−7 m and a frequency of 1.0 × 1015 Hz.
What is the speed of this wave?
A 3.3 × 10−23 m/s
B 3.0 × 108 m/s
C 3.0 × 109 m/s
D 3.3 × 1022 m/s

23 In which substance does sound travel fastest?

A air
B steel
C vacuum
D water

24 The diagram shows a ray of light refracting as it travels from air into glass.

ray of normal
light

x
air w
glass y

Which angle represents the angle of refraction?

A w
B x
C y
D z

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25 An object O is placed in front of a lens.
The ray diagram shows the paths of two light rays that start at the tip of the object.
position of lens

P Q

Which point P or Q is a principal focus and what type of image is formed?

principal focus type of image formed
A point P real
B point P virtual
C point Q real
D point Q virtual

26 What is the approximate range of audible sound frequencies for a healthy human ear?
A 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz only
B 200 Hz to 2 000 Hz only
C 200 Hz to 20 000 Hz only
D 2 000 Hz to 200 000 Hz only

27 A pulse of sound is produced by a bat in the direction of a mountain.

The sound travels through the air and is reflected by a vertical surface on the side
of the mountain. The sound travels to this vertical side of the mountain and back
in 6.0 s. The mountain is 1000 m away from the bat.
What is the speed of this sound?
A 167 m/s
B 333 m/s
C 3 000 m/s
D 6 000 m/s

28 What is the unit for the energy used by an electrical appliance?

A coulombs per second
B joules per second
C kilowatt-hour
D volt per ampere

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29 A metal conductor is connected to a battery.
Which statement describes the current in the metal conductor?
A It is a flow of electrons from the negative to the positive terminal.
B It is a flow of electrons from the positive to the negative terminal.
C It is a flow of protons from the negative to the positive terminal.
D It is a flow of protons from the positive to the negative terminal.

30 Which electrical symbol represents a variable resistor?

A

B
C
D

31 The diagram shows part of a circuit consisting of two identical resistors.

The circuit is supplied by a 4 V source.
4Ω

4Ω

What is the total current in the circuit?

A 0.5 A
B 1.0 A
C 2.0 A
D 4.0 A

32 The table describes four different resistance wires. They are all made from the
same metal.
Which wire has the smallest resistance?
length of wire/m diameter of wire/mm
A 3.0 1.0
B 3.0 1.3
C 4.0 1.0
D 4.0 1.3

33 Which colour correctly identifies the neutral wire in a mains plug?

A blue
B brown
C green
D red

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34 The diagram shows the arrangement of the coil, armature and contacts of a relay.
pivot contacts

coil
armature

Which diagram shows this arrangement when there is current flowing in the coil?
A B

C D

35 A 100% efficient step-down transformer is used to light a lamp from a 240 V mains
supply. The transformer has a power output of 1200 watts.
primary coil secondary coil

1200 W
240 V

What is the current in the primary coil?

A 0.2 A
B 0.4 A
C 2.5 A
D 5.0 A

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36 The diagram shows the magnetic field around two bar magnets.

Which statement about the two magnets is correct?

A The magnets attract because the poles facing each other are both north.
B The magnets attract because the poles facing each other are north and south.
C The magnets repel because the poles facing each other are both north.
D The magnets repel because the poles facing each other are north and south.

37 What is the effect of using a split-ring commutator?

A it ensures that the current is the same in all parts of a series circuit
B it generates an alternating electric current
C it produces a force on a current-carrying coil
D it reverses the direction of the current in the coil of a motor

38 The diagram shows a simple d.c. electric motor which is rotating.

coil

magnet S N magnet

Which change makes the motor rotate faster?

A increasing the number of turns on the coil
B removing the magnets
C reversing the battery
D reversing the polarity of the magnets

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234
39 How many nucleons are in one neutral atom of Thorium isotope Th?
90

A 90
B 142
C 144
D 234

40 A radioactive source emitted a particle.

Which row indicates that the particle emitted is an alpha?
ionising effect deflection in an electric field
A strong from positive to negative
B strong no deflection
C weak from positive to negative
D weak no deflection

The DNEA acknowledges the usage and reproduction of third party copyright material in the NSSC Assessment, with and without permission
from the copyright holder. The Namibian Government Copyright Act allows copyright material to be used limitedly and fairly for educational
and non-commercial purposes.

The Directorate of National Examinations and Assessment operates under the auspices of the Ministry of Education, Arts and Culture in
Namibia.

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