API 580 Questionnaires Bank … (250+ Q&A)

1. API 580 is intended to provide guidance on developing an RBI program for:

A) Fixed equipment and piping in the hydrocarbon and chemical process industries
B) All types of equipment and piping in the Oil and Gas Industry
C) Fixed equipment and piping in the Oil and Gas Industry
D) All types of equipment and piping in all industries

Answer: A … (Forward Section … API 580 RBI intentions) *** MUST KNOW

2. An RBI Program is based on the knowledge and experience of:

A) Engineers & inspectors in the Oil & Gas Industry

B) Engineers & inspectors in the hydrocarbon & chemical industry only
C) Engineers & inspectors & operators & management in the Oil & Gas industry
D) Engineers, inspectors, risk analysts, and other personnel in hydrocarbon & chemical industry

Answer: D … (Forward Section … API 580 Forward Statements) *** MUST KNOW

3. API 580 provides information on using risk analysis to:

A) Develop an RBI Program

B) Assist PSM Programs using RBI
C) Develop an effective Inspection Plan
D) Develop an optimized Inspection Program

Answer: C … (Introduction Section 1 … API 580)

4. An RBI assessment allows API 510/570/653 code users to plan inspection strategies and:

A) Replace outdated time-based inspection frequencies with flexible RBI plans

B) Increase or decrease code designated inspection frequencies and activities
C) Decrease the code designated inspection frequencies and activities
D) Eliminate the code designated inspection frequencies and activities

Answer: B … (Forward Section … API 580 Forward Statements) … *** MUST KNOW

5. An RBI assessment systematically evaluates:

A) POF for all credible damage mechanisms

B) All credible damage and failure modes
C) All credible damage mechanisms
D) POF and COF

Answer: D … (Introduction Section for API 580)  POF = Probability, not possibility

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6. RBI is synonymous with:

A) Risk-based analysis
B) Risk-based analysis and risk management
C) Risk-prioritized and risk-informed inspection
D) Risk-prioritized analysis and risk management

Answer: C … (Introduction Section for API 580)

7. RBI is synonymous with inspection planning using:

A) Risk Analysis
B) Risk-based methods
C) Risk Analysis and Risk management
D) Risk-prioritized and risk-informed inspection

Answer: B … (Introduction Section for API 580)

8. The POF assessment should be evaluated by considering:

A) All probabilities and consequences of failure

B) All credible damage and failure modes
C) All credible consequences of failure
D) All credible damage mechanisms

Answer: D … (Forward Section … API 580 Forward Statements) … *** MUST KNOW

9. API 580 provides information on using risk analysis in order to:

A) Develop an effective Inspection plan

B) Develop and Implement a Risk Based Inspection (RBI) program
C) Develop, implement and maintain an optimized Inspection program using RBI
D) Integrate information into RBI Program from PSM and other related risk information

Answer: A … (Introduction Section for API 580) … *** Must Know

10. The purpose of API 580 is to provide users with the basic elements needed to:

A) Develop, implement and maintain an optimized Inspection program using RBI

B) Develop and maintain an RBI Program managed with risk-prioritized inspection plans
C) Develop, implement & maintain an RBI Program & develop/implement Inspection Program
D) Develop, implement & maintain an optimized Inspection Program using risk-based Insp Plans

Answer: C … (Ref: Purpose Section 1.1, First Para.)

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11. A systematic process that begins with identification of facilities or equipment and ends
up as an inspection plan is called:

A) RBI
B) Mitigation
C) Inspection planning
D) Risk-based Inspection Management

Answer: C … (Introduction Section for API 580) … EASY

12. A synonym for probability recognized by API 580 but not used in the document is:

A) Likelihood
B) Possibility
C) Chance
D) Event

Answer: A … (Introduction Section for API 580) … ** Should know

13. An RBI plan provides the basis for sound management of integrity of fixed equipment
when combined with:

A) An optimized inspection program

B) Inspection planning using risk-based methods
C) An inspection plan using risk-prioritized and risk-informed methods
D) A comprehensive set of IOWs for each process unit & a rigorous MOC program

Answer: D … (Introduction Section for API 580)

14. API 580 provides guidance to whom for development and implementation of inspection
programs?

A) Only owners and operators of pressure containing equipment

B) Owners, operators and designers of pressure containing equipment
C) Users of API 580 who work with pressure-containing and non-pressure containing equipment
D) Users of API 580 (Limited to RBI Team only) who work with pressure-containing equipment

Answer: B … (Ref: Purpose Section 1.1, First Para.)

15. The API 580 (RBI) approach emphasizes safe and reliable operation through:

A) Risk analysis
B) Risk assessment
C) Risk management
D) Risk-prioritized inspection

Answer: D … (Ref: Purpose Section 1.1, First Para.)

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16. The spectrum of complementary risk analysis approaches can be considered as part of:

A) Risk management and mitigation

B) Inspection planning process
C) RBI program development
D) Risk assessment process

Answer: B … (Ref: Purpose Section 1.1, First Para.)

17. An expected outcome from application of RBI process should be linkage of risks with:

A) Appropriate inspection, process control or other risk mitigation activities to manage the risks
B) Process controls or other risk mitigation activities to effectively reduce or eliminate the risks
C) Appropriate inspection, process control or other risk mitigation activities to control the risks
D) Process controls or other risk mitigation activities to effectively reduce or control the risks

Answer: A … Ref: Purpose Sect. 1.1, 2nd Para  EXPECTED OUTCOME FROM RBI

18. The RBI process CANNOT GENERATE:

A) A detailed description of the inspection plan to be employed for each equipment item
B) A description of other risk mitigation activities (non-inspection items such as repairs)
C) A ranking by relative risk of all equipment evaluated and identification of risk drivers
D) Expected risk levels of all equipment before the inspection plan has been implemented

Answer: D … Ref: Purpose Sect. 1.1, 2nd Par.  FIVE RBI PROCESS OUTCOME ITEMS

19. The primary work products of the RBI assessment and management approach are
plans that address ways to manage risks on:

A) A plant process unit level

B) An operating plant level
C) An equipment level
D) A component level

Answer: C … (Ref: Purpose Section 1.2, First Sentence  RBI Benefits & Limitations)

20. How do RBI equipment plans highlight risks?

A) Primarily from a safety perspective

B) Primarily from both safety and health perspectives
C) Primarily from safety, health and environmental perspectives
D) From a safety, health, and environment perspective and/or from an economic standpoint

Answer: D … (Ref: Purpose Section 1.2, Second Sentence  RBI Benefits & Limitations)

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21. RBI is based on sound and proven:

A) Risk analysis principles

B) Risk management principles
C) Risk analysis and risk management principles
D) Risk assessment and risk management principles

Answer: D … (Ref: Purpose Section 1.2, Last Paragraph  RBI Benefits & Limitations)

22. RBI plans should include cost-effective actions along with:

A) An overall projected risk

B) The projected risk mitigation
C) Any residual risk after inspection
D) A detailed risk identification and analysis

Answer: B … (Ref: Purpose Section 1.2, Third Sentence  RBI Benefits & Limitations)

23. Implementation of RBI plans provide what benefit for facilities & equipment assessed?

A) An overall risk acceptance

B) An acceptance and understanding of the current risk
C) An overall risk reduction or an acceptance and understanding of the current risk
D) An overall risk acceptance or a reduction and better understanding of the current risk

Answer: C … (Ref: Purpose Section 1.2, Second Sentence  RBI Benefits)

24. In some cases, in addition to risk reductions and process safety improvements, RBI
plans may result in:

A) Cost reductions
B) Elimination of all inspections
C) Elimination of all RBI analysis
D) Elimination of all inspections & RBI analysis

Answer: A … (Ref: Purpose Section 1.2, Third Paragraph  RBI Benefits)

25. Using RBI provides a vehicle for continuously improving inspection of facilities and:

A) Systematically managing the risk associated with plant operations and hazards
B) Systematically reducing the risk associated with plant operations and hazards
C) Systematically reducing the risk associated with pressure boundary failures
D) Systematically managing risk associated with pressure boundary failures

Answer: C … (Ref: Sect 1.3, First Paragraph  RBI as a Continuous Improvement Tool)

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26. When RBI is used as a continuous improvement tool, it offers an added advantage of:

A) Identifying gaps in the effectiveness of available inspection technologies & applications

B) Identifying cases where technology can cost-effectively mitigate risks
C) Identifying cases where technology can adequately mitigate risks
D) Identifying cases where inspection technology is adequate

Answer: A … (Ref: Sect 1.3, Second Para.  RBI as a Continuous Improvement Tool)

27. As new data becomes available or when changes occur in operating conditions, what
should be done in RBI?

A) Adjustment of the inspection levels and intervals in the RBI program

B) Adjustment of the inspection intervals in the RBI program
C) Adjustment of the inspection levels in the RBI program
D) Reassessment of the RBI program

Answer: D … (Ref: Sect 1.3, First Paragraph  RBI as a Continuous Improvement Tool)

28. Integration of other efforts (PHA, IOWs, RCM) with RBI is the key to the success of:

A) Risk-based Inspection Programs

B) Risk Management Programs
C) Risk Mitigations
D) Risk Analysis

Answer: B … (Ref: Sect 1.4, First Para.  RBI as an Integrated Management Tool)

29. RBI produces inspection and maintenance plans for equipment that identify the actions
that should be taken to provide:

A) Cost-effective mitigation
B) Environmental protection
C) Reliable and safe operation
D) Process Safety Management

Answer: C … (Ref: Sect 1.4, Second Para.  RBI as an Integrated Management Tool)

30. API 580 specifically targets the application of RBI in what industry (or industries)?

A) Oil & Gas Industry

B) Hydrocarbon Industry
C) Hydrocarbon & Chemical Process Industry
D) Any industry using toxic substances that chooses to follow API 580 guidelines

Answer: C … (Ref: Sect 2.1 First Paragraph  Industry Scope)

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31. RBI is complementary to RCM programs because both programs focus on:

A) Understanding/addressing damage modes & focus on process unit integrity operating window
B) Understanding/addressing failure modes & focus on process unit design/operating conditions
C) Process unit design & operating conditions including integrity operating windows
D) Safety in operations and potential hazards that can affect the facility

Answer: B … (Ref: Sect 2.3 First Paragraph  Mechanical Integrity Focused)

32. The primary audience for API 580 is:

A) Insp & Engineering personnel responsible for equipment mechanical integrity & operability
B) Insp & Engineering & Materials Specialist personnel responsible for equipment design
C) Inspection/engineering personnel responsible for mechanical maintenance
D) None of these, because the audience is the total operating organization

Answer: A … (Ref: Sect 2.3 First Paragraph  Mechanical Integrity Focused)

33. RBI requires the commitment and cooperation of:

A) All of the RBI team including Management

B) Engineering & Inspection organizations
C) Entire Engineering organization
D) Entire Operating organization

Answer: D … (Ref: Sect 2.3 First Paragraph  Mechanical Integrity Focused)

34. The RBI process is focused on maintaining the mechanical integrity of pressure
equipment items and:

A) Minimizing the risk of equipment damage and personnel injury

B) Eliminating the risk of equipment damage and personnel injury
C) Minimizing the risk of loss of containment due to deterioration
D) Minimizing the risk of damage to the unit and the environment

Answer: C … (Ref: Sect 2.3 First Para  Mechanical Integrity Focused) …***Must know

35. API 580 focuses on:

A) PHA or hazard and operability assessment (HAZOP)

B) Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM)
C) Process Safety Management
D) Mechanical integrity

Answer: D … (Ref: Sect 2.3 First Para  Mech Integrity Focused) … ** Should Know

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36. RBI is not a substitute for:

A) PHA or hazard and operability assessment (HAZOP)

B) Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM) Program
C) Process Safety Management Program
D) Mechanical integrity

Answer: A … (Ref: Sect 2.3 First Para  Mech Integrity Focused) … ** Should Know

37. RBI complements the PHA by focusing on the:

A) Risk management through inspection

B) Mechanical integrity related damage mechanisms
C) Mechanical integrity related damage mechanisms & risk management through analysis
D) Mechanical integrity related damage mechanisms & risk management through inspection

Answer: D … (Ref: Sect 2.3 First Para  Mech Integrity Focused) … ** Should Know

38. Types of equipment & associated components NOT covered by API 580 are:

A) Pressure vessels, atmospheric/pressurized storage tanks, process pipe, pressure-relief devices

B) Heat exchanger shells, floating heads, channels, and bundles
C) Pressure-containing components in Rotating Equipment
D) All components in Boilers and Heaters

Ans: D … (Ref: Sect 2.4 First Para  Equip Covered)  Only Pressure-containing parts

39. Which of these Equipment types is covered by API 580?

A) Machinery components (except pump and compressor casings)

B) Electrical systems, Instruments and control systems
C) Structural systems (includes foundations)
D) Pressure-relief Devices

Answer: D … (Ref: Sect 2.5  Equipment Not Covered)  Machinery (except casings) =
not covered … pressure relief devices are COVERED!  *** YOU MUST KNOW THIS!!!

40. Instrument and control systems & electrical systems may be covered by other types of
RBI or risk assessment work processes such as:

A) PHA or hazard and operability assessment (HAZOP)

B) Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM)
C) Process Safety Management
D) Mechanical integrity

Answer: B … (Ref: Sect 2.5  Equipment Not Covered)  RCM

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41. The combination of the probability of an event and its consequence is called:

A) Absolute risk
B) Estimated risk
C) Relative risk
D) Risk

Answer: D … Definitions  Para. 4.1.35

42. An ideal and accurate description and quantification of risk is called:

A) Absolute risk
B) Acceptable risk
C) Relative risk
D) Residual Risk

Answer: A … Definitions Para. 4.1.1

43. Systematic use of information to identify sources and to estimate the risk is called:

A) Risk Mitigation
B) Risk Estimation
C) Risk Assessment
D) Risk Analysis

Answer: D … Definitions  Para. 4.1.37

44. The overall process of risk analysis and risk evaluation is called:

A) Risk-based Inspection
B) Risk Estimation
C) Risk Assessment
D) Risk Management

Answer: C … Definitions  Para. 4.1.38

45. A risk assessment and management process that is focused on loss of containment of
pressurized equipment in processing facilities, due to material deterioration is called:.

A) Risk-based Management
B) Risk-based Inspection
C) Risk Analysis
D) Risk Estimation

Answer: B … Definitions  Para. 4.1.40

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46. Coordinated activities to direct and control an organization with regard to risk.

A) Risk Estimation
B) Risk Management
C) Risk-Based Inspection
D) Risk identification

Answer: B … Definitions  Para 4.1.47

47. Actions taken to lessen the probability, negative consequences, or both associated with a
particular risk is called:

A) Risk mitigation
B) Risk reduction
C) Risk avoidance
D) Risk management

Answer: B … Definitions  Para 4.1.49  MUST KNOW = NOT MITIGATION

48. The acronym QRA is short for:

A) Qualitative risk analysis

B) Quantitative risk analysis
C) Semi-Quantitative risk analysis
D) Qualitative risk assessment

Answer: B … Definitions  Par 4.1.31  Definition of Quantitative Risk Analysis

49. An analysis that quantifies the probabilities and consequences of the probable damage
mechanisms is called:

A) Risk analysis
B) Qualitative risk analysis
C) Quantitative risk analysis
D) Semi-Quantitative risk analysis

Answer: C … Definitions  Par 4.1.31  Definition of Quantitative Risk Analysis

50. Termination of the ability of a system, structure, equipment or component to perform

its required function of containment of fluid (i.e. loss of containment) is called:

A) Deterioration
B) Degradation
C) Failure
D) Damage

Ans: C … Definition  Par 4.1.18  Know the difference between deterioration & failure!
Failure = termination of the ability … Deterioration = reduction of the ability

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51. An unannounced failure is one that is:

A) Undetected at the instant of occurrence

B) Detected at the instant of occurrence by any number of methods
C) Either undetected or detected at the instance of occurrence by any number of methods
D) None of the above are correct

Answer: A … Definitions  Par 4.1.18  Two types of failures (announced/unannounced)

52. An announced failure is one that is:

A) Undetected at the instant of occurrence

B) Detected at the instant of occurrence by any number of methods
C) Either undetected or detected at the instance of occurrence by any number of methods
D) None of the above are correct

Answer: B … Definitions  Par 4.1.18  Two types of failures (announced/unannounced)

53. Which of these is NOT an example of an unannounced failure?

A) Slow leak under insulation not detected (until someone notices a drip or wisp of vapor)
B) Slow leak under insulation not detected (until a pool of fluid forms on the ground)
C) Small leak in a heat exchanger tube or a small leak in a buried piping system
D) Slow leak under insulation in an H2S line detected by a plant alarm

Answer: D … Definitions  Par 4.1.18  Two types of failures (announced/unannounced)

54. An “event” is the occurrence of a particular set of:

A) Initiated actions
B) Consequences
C) Circumstances
D) Scenarios

Answer: C … Definitions, Section 4.1.14  Must know all the types of events

55. An analytical tool that organizes and characterizes potential occurrences in a logical
and graphical manner is called:

A) Event tree
B) External Event
C) Event Analysis
D) Event Risk Analysis

Answer: A … Definitions, Sect 4.1.15  Event tree … Must know event types

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56. Which of the following statements is false regarding an “event”?

A) An event is the occurrence of a particular set of circumstances

B) The event may be certain or uncertain, and can be singular or multiple
C) The probability of an event occurring within a given period of time can be estimated
D) Events can result from forces of nature, acts of God, sabotage, electrical power failures

Answer: D … Definitions, Section 4.1.14 & 4.1.16  Must know all the types of events

57. Which of these statements is false regarding an “event tree”?

A) An event tree begins with the identification of potential initiating events

B) The process is to develop pathways or scenarios from initiating events to potential outcomes
C) Analytical tool that organizes & characterizes past occurrences in a logical and graphical way
D) Subsequent possible events resulting from initiating events are shown in a 2nd level of the tree

Answer: C … Definitions, Section 4.1.15  Must know!  Future Potential occurrences!

58. Which statement is false regarding an external event?

A) An event that can usually be controlled by persons employed at the facility

B) An event resulting from intrusions of external transportation vehicles (ship, train, truck)
C) An event resulting from neighboring fires, explosions, or even hazardous material releases
D) An event resulting from forces of nature, acts of God, sabotage, terrorism, & power failures

Answer: A … Definitions, Section 4.1.15  Must know!  Cannot be controlled!

59. Assumptions made during design such as design life & corrosion allowance) are called:

A) Risk premise
B) Design premise
C) Risk estimation
D) Design estimation

Answer: B … Definitions  Para 4.1.11

60. In RBI, the risks are managed primarily through:

A) Process Safety Management

B) Equipment Inspection
C) Risk Mitigation
D) Risk Analysis

Answer: B … Definitions  MUST KNOW Para. 4.1.40

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61. Terms of reference by which the significance of risk is assessed is called:

A) Risk Driver
B) Risk Identification
C) Risk Communication
D) Risk Criteria

Answer: D … Definitions  Para 4.1.42

62. The comparative risk of a facility, process unit, system, equipment item or component
to other facilities, process units, systems, equipment items, or components, respectively is:

A) Absolute risk
B) Acceptable risk
C) Relative risk
D) Residual Risk

Answer: C … Definitions Para. 4.1.33

63. The risk remaining after risk mitigation is called:

A) Absolute risk
B) Acceptable risk
C) Relative risk
D) Residual Risk

Answer: D … Definitions  Para. 4.1.34

64. Systematic use of information to identify sources and to estimate the risk is called:

A) Risk Mitigation
B) Risk Estimation
C) Risk Assessment
D) Risk Analysis

Answer: D … Definitions  Para. 4.1.37

65. Which of these provides a basis for risk evaluation, risk mitigation & risk acceptance?

A) Risk Communication
B) Risk Analysis
C) Risk Assessment
D) Risk Estimation

Answer: B … Definitions  Para. 4.1.37

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66. Which of these may provide information that can include historical data, theoretical
analysis, informed opinions, and concerns of stakeholders?

A) Risk Analysis
B) Risk Assessment
C) Risk Estimation
D) None of these
Answer: A … Definitions  Para. 4.1.37

67. An item affecting either the probability, consequence, or both such that it constitutes a
significant portion of the risk is:

A) Relative Risk
B) Risk Driver
C) Absolute Risk
D) Risk Criteria

Answer: B … Definitions  Para 4.1.43

68. Process used to assign values to probability & consequence of a risk (that may consider
cost, benefits, stakeholder concerns, & other variables, as appropriate for risk evaluation):

A) Risk Estimation
B) Risk Evaluation
C) Risk Analysis
D) Risk Criteria

Answer: A … Definitions  Expect the shorter version of the question to be on the exam
… as underlined above  Para 4.1.44

69. Process used to compare the estimated risk against given risk criteria to determine the
significance of the risk (that may be used to assist in the acceptance or mitigation decision):

A) Risk Mitigation B) Risk Analysis

C) Risk Evaluation D) Risk Criteria

Answer: C … Definitions  Expect the shorter version of the question to be on the exam
… as underlined above  Para 4.1.45

70. Process to find, list, and characterize elements of risk (that may include a source, event,
consequence, or probability):

A) Risk Estimation B) Risk Evaluation

C) Risk Analysis D) Risk identification

Answer: D … Definitions  Expect the shorter version of the question to be on the exam
… as underlined above  Para 4.1.46

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71. Risk management typically includes all of the following except:

A) Risk assessment
B) Risk mitigation
C) Risk acceptance
D) Risk reduction

Answer: D … Definitions, etc  Para 4.1.47  Risk communication = 4th item

72. Process of selection and implementation of measures to modify risk is called:

A) Risk mitigation
B) Risk reduction
C) Risk avoidance
D) Risk management

Answer: A … Definitions, etc  Par 4.1.48 Risk Mitigation = actual measure taken to
modify risk  Non-inspection mitigation measures are in Section 14 (must know)

73. An analysis that uses broad categorizations for probabilities & consequences of failure:

A) Risk analysis
B) Qualitative risk analysis
C) Quantitative risk analysis
D) Semi-Quantitative risk analysis

Answer: B … Definitions  Par 4.1.30  Definition of Qualitative Risk Analysis

74. An analysis that quantifies the probabilities and consequences of the probable damage
mechanisms is called:

A) Risk analysis
B) Qualitative risk analysis
C) Quantitative risk analysis
D) Semi-Quantitative risk analysis

Answer: C … Definitions  Par 4.1.31  Definition of Quantitative Risk Analysis

75. An analysis that includes aspects of both qualitative and quantitative analyses is called:

A) Qualitative Risk analysis

B) Semi-qualitative risk analysis
C) Quantitative risk analysis
D) Semi-Quantitative risk analysis

Answer: D … Definitions  Par 4.1.50  Definition of Semi-Quantitative Risk Analysis

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76. QRA generally uses “which of these” to depict combinations of events and progression
of incidents that provide both qualitative and quantitative insights into the level of risks?

A) Logic & probabilistic trees

B) Event and Fault Trees
C) Logic & probabilistic models
D) Event & Fault Models

Answer: C … Definitions  Par 4.1.31  Definition of Quantitative Risk Analysis

77. QRA generally uses analysis logic models to estimate the frequency of each incident
sequence using what is known as:

A) Probability trees & decision trees

B) Probability trees & fault trees
C) Logic trees & decision trees
D) Event trees & fault trees

Answer: D … Definitions  Par 4.1.31  Definition of Quantitative Risk Analysis

78. Which of these statements are not true regarding a Qualitative Risk Analysis?

A) FMEA and HAZOPs are very good examples of QRA

B) It is an analysis that uses broad categorizations for POF & COF
C) Analyses results are dependent on the background/expertise of analysts & analysis objectives
D) Its methods use engineering judgment/experience as a basis for determination of POF & COF

Answer: A … Definitions  Par 4.1.30  Qualitative Risk Analysis = NOT QRA

79. The Process of integrating inspection data or other changes into a risk analysis is called:

A) Reassessment
B) Risk Management
C) Reintegration
D) Risk Mitigation

Answer: A … Definitions  Par 4.1.32  Reassessment  KNOW FIGURE 4

80. Physical manifestation of damage (wall thinning, pitting, cracking, rupture) is called:
A) A damage (or deterioration) mechanism
B) A damage (or deterioration) mode
C) Deterioration
D) Degradation

Answer: B … Definitions  Para 4.1.9  See also 4.1.8 & 4.1.12 (Tricky)

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81. The amount of deterioration that a component can withstand without failing is called:

A) Damage tolerance
B) Damage mode
C) Failure mode
D) Degradation

Answer: A … Definitions  Para 4.1.10  See also 4.1.8 & 4.1.12 (Tricky)

82. Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding the definition of consequence?

A) Consequences may range from positive to negative and are always negative for safety aspects
B) A consequence is defined by API 580 as “an outcome from an event”
C) Consequences may only be expressed qualitatively or quantitatively
D) There can be only one consequence from a single event

Answer: D … Definitions  Para 4.1.5 … Consequence

83. Which of these statements are not true regarding a Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A) It identifies the combinations of events (IF they were to occur) that can lead to a severe event
B) It quantifies the probabilities and consequences of the probable damage mechanisms
C) It estimates the probability of occurrence for each combination of events
D) It precisely quantifies the consequences of each event

Answer: D … Definition  Par 4.1.31  QRA ESTIMATES the consequences

84. Termination of the ability of a system, structure, equipment or component to perform

its required function of containment of fluid (i.e. loss of containment) is called:

A) Deterioration
B) Degradation
C) Failure
D) Damage

Ans: C … Definition  Par 4.1.18  Know the difference between deterioration & failure!
Failure = termination of the ability (#48) … Deterioration = reduction of the ability (#47)

85. An “unannounced” failure is one that is:

A) Undetected at the instant of occurrence

B) Detected at the instant of occurrence by any number of methods
C) Either undetected or detected at the instance of occurrence by any number of methods
D) None of the above are correct

Answer: A … Definitions  Par 4.1.18  Two types of failures (announced/unannounced)

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86. An “announced” failure is one that is:

A) Undetected at the instant of occurrence

B) Detected at the instant of occurrence by any number of methods
C) Either undetected or detected at the instance of occurrence by any number of methods
D) None of the above are correct

Answer: B … Definitions  Par 4.1.18  Two types of failures (announced/unannounced)

87. Which of these is an example of an announced failure?

A) Slow leak under insulation not detected (until someone notices a drip or wisp of vapor)
B) Slow leak under insulation not detected (until a pool of fluid forms on the ground)
C) Small leak in a heat exchanger tube or a small leak in a buried piping system
D) Slow leak under insulation in an H2S line that is detected by a plant alarm

Answer: D … Definitions  Par 4.1.18  Two types of failures (announced/unannounced)

88. Which of these is an example of an unannounced failure?

A) Rupture of a process unit pressure vessel

B) Sudden decrease in pressure of a system
C) Slow leak under insulation not detected
D) Rupture of a pipe in a process plant

Answer: C … Definitions  Par 4.1.18  Two types of failures (announced/unannounced)

89. Which of these statements are FALSE regarding “failure modes”?

A) For RBI, the failure of concern is loss of containment of pressurized equipment items.
B) Examples of failure modes are thinning, pitting, cracking and rupture
C) Examples of failure modes are small hole, crack, and rupture
D) Failure mode is defined as the manner of failure

Answer: B … Definitions  Par 4.1.19  This is different from “Damage Mode” in 4.1.9

90. By API 580 definition, an “event” is the occurrence of a particular set of:

A) Circumstances
B) Initiated actions
C) Consequences
D) Scenarios

Answer: A … Definitions, Section 4.1.14  Must know all the types of events

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91. Which statement is false regarding an “event”?

A) An event is the occurrence of a particular set of circumstances

B) The event may be certain or uncertain, and can be singular or multiple
C) The probability of an event occurring within a given period of time can be estimated
D) Events can result from forces of nature, acts of God, sabotage, electrical power failures

Answer: D … Definitions, Section 4.1.14 & 4.1.16  Must know all the types of events

92. An analytical tool that organizes and characterizes potential occurrences in a logical
and graphical manner is called:

A) Event Risk Analysis

B) Event tree
C) External Event
D) Event Analysis

Answer: B … Definitions, Sect 4.1.15  Event tree … Must know event types

93. Which of these statements is FALSE regarding an “event tree”?

A) An event tree begins with the identification of potential initiating events

B) The process is to develop pathways or scenarios from initiating events to potential outcomes
C) Analytical tool that organizes & characterizes past occurrences in a logical and graphical way
D) Subsequent possible events resulting from initiating events are shown in a 2nd level of the tree

Answer: C … Definitions, Section 4.1.15  Must know!  Potential occurrences!

94. Which statement is FALSE regarding an external event?

A) An event resulting from forces of nature, acts of God, sabotage, terrorism, & power failures
B) An event resulting from intrusions of external transportation vehicles (ships, trains, trucks)
C) An event resulting from neighboring fires, explosions, or even hazardous material releases
D) An event that can usually be controlled by persons employed at the facility

Answer: D … Definitions, Section 4.1.15  Must know!  Cannot be controlled!

95. A thing or activity with a potential for consequence is called a:

A) Source
B) Hazard
C) Risk
D) None of these

Answer: A … Def.  Par 4.1.51  Source in a Safety Context is a “HAZARD”  4.1.21

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96. A Hazard and operability study (HAZOP study) is a form of:

A) Failure Modes & Effects Analysis (FMEA)

B) Process Safety Management (PSM)
C) Process Hazards Analysis (PHA)
D) Risk Analysis

Answer: A … Definitions  Para 4.1.22  HAZOP … MUST KNOW THIS ONE!!!

97. Which statements is false regarding a “HAZOP Study”?

A) A HAZOP study is a form a Failure Modes & Effects Analysis (FMEA)

B) HAZOP studies use systematic techniques to identify risks in a process facility
C) It is useful to identify unforeseen hazards designed into facilities (due to lack of information)
D) It is useful to identify unforeseen hazards introduced into existing facilities (process changes)

Answer: B … Definitions  Par 4.1.22  HAZOP = Identify hazards & operability issues

98. Methodology whereby damage or flaws/imperfections contained within a component or

equipment item are assessed in order to determine acceptability for continued service is a:

A) Process Safety Management

B) Process Hazards Analysis
C) Failure Modes and Effects Analysis
D) Fitness-for-Service Assessment

Answer: D … Definitions  Para 4.1.20

99. Established limits for process variables that can affect the integrity of equipment if the
process operation deviates from established limits for a predetermined amount of time is a:

A) Design Premise
B) IOW
C) MOC
D) None of these

Answer: B … Definitions  Par 4.1.24  Definition of integrity operating window!

100. A documented management system for review and approval of changes in process,
equipment or piping systems prior to implementation of the change is called:

A) Risk Management
B) Design Premise
C) IOW
D) MOC

Answer: D … Definitions  Par 4.1.26  Definition of MOC

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101. Limitation of any negative consequence or reduction in probability of a particular

event is called:

A) Mitigation
B) Risk reduction
C) Probability
D) Likelihood

Answer: A … Definitions  Par 4.1.27  Definition of Mitigation

102. Degrees of belief about probability expressed as classes or ranks in the correct API 580
listed ascending order is:

A) Incredible … remote … probable … improbable … occasional … frequent

B) Incredible … remote … improbable … probable … occasional … frequent
C) Rare … Unlikely … Moderate … Likely … Almost certain
D) Rare … Moderate … Unlikely … Almost certain … Likely

Answer: C … Definitions  Par 4.1.28  Examples (degree of belief related to probability)

103. Risk is the combination of the probability of some event occurring during a time
period of interest and the:
A) Consequences associated with the event B) Likelihood of a failure
C) Probability of a failure D) Consequence of failure

Answer: A … (Basic Risk Assessment Concepts … What is Risk? … Section 5.1)

104. In mathematical terms, risk can be calculated by which of these equations:

A) Risk = Probability ÷ Consequence B) Risk = Probability × Consequence

C) Risk = Consequence ÷ Probability D) Risk = Consequence + Probability

Answer: B … (Basic Risk Assessment Concepts … What is Risk? … Section 5.1)

105. Which of these statements is TRUE regarding effective risk assessments?

A) They should first determine the consequence of failure then the probability of failure
B) They should first determine the probability of failure then the consequence of failure
C) They should be a rational, logical, structured process that contains at least two steps
D) They should first determine if the risk is acceptable and then how big the risk is

Answer: C … (Basic Risk Assessment Concepts … What is Risk?) … Did you answer A or B?
Discussion: The Cheese* is a trick tactic used by API to list 2 opposing answers in the first two
possible answers A & B … Many ass/u/me 1 statement MUST be true … See Section 5.1

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106. Once the risk is known and the magnitude of the risk is established, it is time for:

A) Risk mitigation
B) Risk reduction
C) Risk management
D) Risk communication

Answer: C … (Basic Risk Assessment Concepts … Risk Mgmt. & Reduction) … Section 5.2

107. Which of these statements are true regarding Risk Management & Risk Reduction?

A) Once the risk is known & the magnitude of the risk is established, it is time for risk reduction
B) Risk management and risk reduction are synonymous
C) Risk management is only a part of risk reduction
D) None of the above statements are true

Ans: D … (Basic Risk Assessment Concepts/Risk Mgmt/Reduction …5.2… A/B/C=False)

108. Risk reduction is the act of mitigating a known risk that is deemed to be too high to a:
A) Lower, more manageable level of risk using risk communication
B) Lower, more acceptable level of risk with some form of risk reduction activity
C) Lower, more manageable level of risk with some form of risk analysis to be performed
D) None of the above statements are correct

Answer: B … (Basic Risk Assessment Concepts … Risk Mgmt. & Reduction) Section 5.2

109. RBI represents the next generation of inspection approaches and interval/due date
setting, recognizing that the ultimate goal of inspection is:

A) Safety & reliability of operating facilities

B) To cost effectively perform inspection
C) To effectively reduce all facility risks
D) To locate damage mechanisms

Answer: A … Evolution of Insp. Intervals/Due Dates  Section 5.3  Must Know!!!

110. RBI, as a risk-based approach, focuses attention specifically on the equipment and
associated damage mechanisms representing:

A) The most damaging to personnel health

B) The most cost to the plant or facility
C) The most risk to the facility
D) None of these are correct

Answer: C … Evolution of Insp. Intervals/Due Dates  Section 5.3  Must Know!!!

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111. In focusing on risks & mitigation, RBI provides a better linkage between mechanisms
that lead to equipment failure (loss of containment) & inspection approaches that:

A) Effectively eliminate the associated risks

B) Effectively reduce the associated risks
C) Cost-effectively handle risks
D) Manage the associated risks

Answer: B … Evolution of Insp. Intervals/Due Dates  Section 5.3  Must Know!!!

112. The first step in a logical progression for a risk analysis is:
A) Determine damage susceptibility and rates
B) Collect and validate the necessary data and information
C) Identify DMs & determine damage mode(s) for each mechanism
D) Determine the POF over a defined time frame for each damage mechanism

Answer: B … Overview of Risk Analysis  Section 5.4  B is the first of 8 logical steps!

113. The logical progression after completing the risk analysis is to:

A) Develop an inspection plan & if needed, perform other mitigation actions

B) Follow an effective inspection plan & if needed, perform other mitigation actions
C) Develop an inspection plan & if needed, other mitigation actions, & evaluate residual risk
D) Follow an effective inspection plan & if needed, other mitigation actions, & evaluate the risk

Answer: C … Overview of Risk Analysis  Section 5.4  Only C is the most correct!

114. The complexity of a risk analysis is a function of the:

A) Degree of complexity of the risk

B) The number of factors that can affect the risk
C) Cost associated with the risk
D) The seriousness of the risk

Answer: B … Overview of Risk Analysis  Section 5.4  must know this one!

115. There is a continuous spectrum of methods available to assess risk ranging from a
strictly relative ranking to:

A) Rigorous calculation
B) Engineering Judgment
C) Engineering & Inspector Judgment
D) None of these are correct

Answer: A … Overview of Risk Analysis  Section 5.4  must know this one!

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116. Before decisions are based on risk analysis, the risk analysis results should be:

A) Credible, repeatable and documented

B) Credible and repeatable only
C) Credible only
D) Validated

Answer: D … Overview of Risk Analysis  Section 5.4

117. The risk analysis should be VALIDATED before decisions are made based on:

A) Credible consequence scenarios

B) The extent of the risk
C) Damage susceptibility
D) Analysis results

Answer: D … Overview of Risk Analysis  Section 5.4

118. After completing a risk analysis, if the risk is not acceptable, what must be
considered?

A) Mitigation
B) Inspection
C) Reassessment
D) None of these is correct

Answer: A … Overview of Risk Analysis  Section 5.4

119. A complete RBI program provides a consistent methodology for assessing the
optimum combination of:

A) Methods and frequencies of inspection

B) Methods and analysis of inspection
C) Frequencies and analysis of inspection
D) None of these are correct

Answer: A … Inspection Optimization  Section 5.5

120. Each available inspection method can be analyzed and its relative effectiveness in
reducing failure probability can be estimated, and given this information and the cost of
each procedure, what can be developed?

A) An optimization program
B) An effective Inspection Plan
C) An effective mitigation strategy
D) A cost-effective inspection strategy

Answer: A … Inspection Optimization  Section 5.5

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121. API 580 Figure 1 presents curves showing reduction in risk that can be expected
when:

A) The degree and frequency of inspection are optimized

B) The degree and frequency of inspection are increased
C) The level of inspection does not become excessive
D) The degree of the risk is known and mitigated

Answer: B … Inspection Optimization  Section 5.5

122. Which statement is FALSE for the upper curve in Figure 1 of API 580?
A) With an initial investment in inspection activities, risk generally is significantly reduced
B) A point is reached where additional inspection activity begins to show a diminishing return
C) It represents typical inspection program & where there is no inspection, risk levels are higher
D) If excessive insp is applied, risk levels may fall (invasive inspection may cause deterioration)

Answer: D … Inspection Optimization  Section 5.5  D … risk levels may rise = correct!

123. The short vertical arrow below lower curve (above bottom line) in Figure 1 represents:

A) Total risk B) Residual Risk C) Inspection Frequency D) Unmitigated Risk

Answer: B … Inspection Optimization  Section 5.5

124. As shown in Figure 1, risk cannot be reduced to zero solely by:

A) Mitigation plans B) RBI Programs C) Risk management effort D) Inspection effort

Answer: D … Inspection Optimization  Section 5.5

125. Figure 1 Lower curve indicates which of the following can be achieved with
application of an effective RBI program?

A) Inspection activities are focused on higher risk items and away from lower risk items
B) Lower risks can be achieved with the same level of inspection activity as a typical program
C) Higher risks cannot be mitigated to the same levels of inspection activity as a typical program
D) None of these are correct

Answer: B … Inspection Optimization  Section 5.5

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126. The complexity of risk calculations is a function of:

A) The sophistication of the Process Unit

B) The number of factors that can affect the risk
C) The amount of mitigation required after analysis
D) None of these are correct

Answer: B … Relative Risk versus Absolute Risk  Section 5.6

127. Calculating absolute risk can be very time and cost consuming and often cannot be
done with a high degree of accuracy, due to:

A) Too many uncertainties

B) Sophistication of the Process Unit
C) Number of factors that can affect the risk
D) Amount of mitigation required after analysis

Answer: A … Relative Risk versus Absolute Risk  Section 5.6

128. Determination of absolute risk numbers in hydrocarbon and chemical facilities is

often:

A) Possible and cost effective

B) Possible, but not cost effective
C) Not even possible and not cost effective
D) None of these are correct

Answer: C … Relative Risk versus Absolute Risk  Section 5.6

129. So that facilities, units, systems, equipment or components can be ranked and risk
management efforts can focus on higher ranked risks, RBI is focused on a systematic
determination of:

A) Residual risk B) Absolute risk

C) Relative risk D) Actual risk

Answer: C … Relative Risk versus Absolute Risk  Section 5.6  C is the best answer!

130. If a quantitative RBI study is conducted rigorously and properly, the resultant risk
number should be a fair approximation of the:

A) Residual risk
B) Absolute risk
C) Relative risk
D) Actual risk

Ans: D … Relative Risk vs. Absolute Risk  Sect 5.6  Actual risk of failure (loss of cont.)

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131. If a quantitative RBI study is conducted rigorously and properly, the resultant risk
number should be a fair approximation of the:

A) Residual risk B) Absolute risk

C) Relative risk D) None of these types of risk

Ans: D … Relative Risk vs. Absolute Risk  Sect 5.6  Actual risk of failure (loss of cont.)

132. Key elements of any RBI Program should include documented methods to determine:

A) POF only B) POF & COF

C) COF only D) None of these

Answer: B … Introduction to RBI … Section 6.1 … Both POF & COF

133. All items that fall on or very near the line with the arrow (API 580 Figure 2) indicate:

A) Greater risk levels B) Lesser risk levels

C) Roughly equivalent risk levels D) None of these

Answer: C … Consequence & Probability for RBI … Section 6.2 … Know Risk Plot details

134. What statement is true regarding items # 2 and # 10 (See API 580 Figure 2) above?

A) Roughly equivalent risk levels as they are an even distance away from the risk line
B) One item (#10) has an acceptable risk level and item # 2 has an unacceptable risk level
C) Great risk levels exist for both items 2 & 10 as they are both equally far from the risk line
D) None of these are correct

Answer: B … Consequence & Probability for RBI … Section 6.2 … Know Risk Plot details

135. Which statement is correct (See API 580 Figure 2 above)?

A) Figure 2 is a Qualitative Risk Matrix and the arrow designates a residual risk line
B) Figure 2 is a Quantitative Risk Plot and the arrow designates an ISO-risk line
C) Figure 2 is a Qualitative Risk Plot and the arrow designates an ISO-risk line
D) None of these is correct

Answer: B … Consequence & Probability for RBI … Section 6.2 … Know Risk Plot details

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136. Which statement is correct (See API 580 Figure 3 above)?

A) Figure 3 is a Qualitative Risk Plot and the arrow designates an ISO-risk line
B) Figure 3 is a Quantitative Risk Plot and the arrow designates an ISO-risk line
C) Figure 3 is a Continuum of RBI approaches and the right side shows a Qualitative approach
D) Figure 3 is a Continuum of RBI approaches and the right side shows a Quantitative approach

Ans: D … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3 … Know Continuum of RBI approaches

137. Which statement is correct (API 580 Figure 3 above) for the vertical line (right side)?

A) This vertical line designates a Continuum of RBI approaches

B) This vertical line designates the detail of RBI analysis
C) This vertical line designates an ISO-risk line
D) This vertical line designates residual risk

Ans: B … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3 … Know Continuum of RBI approaches

138. In RBI assessments, RBI procedure can be applied using any of these approaches
except:

A) Qualitative B) Quantitative
C) Semi-quantitative D) Semi-qualitative

Ans: D … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3 … Know Continuum of RBI approaches

139. Each RBI procedural approach develops a risk ranking measure to be used for
evaluating both POF and COF in order to:

A) Estimate the risk of failure B) Quantify any risk of failure

C) Determine precisely the risk of failure D) None of these are correct

Ans: A … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3 … Know Continuum of RBI approaches

140. The qualitative approach requires data inputs based on descriptive information using:

A) Expert opinion as the basis for risk rankings

B) Expert opinion as the basis for the analysis of POF & COF
C) Engineering judgment and experience as the basis for risk rankings
D) Engineering judgment and experience as the basis for the analysis of POF & COF

Answer: D … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.1 … Know Qualitative RBI approach

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141. The accuracy of results from a qualitative analysis is dependent on:

A) The background and expertise of the risk analysts and team members
B) The background and expertise of the Engineers and Inspectors
C) The expert opinion of the risk analysts and team members
D) None of these are correct

Answer: A … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.1 … Know Qualitative RBI approach

142. Although the qualitative approach is less precise than more quantitative approaches it
is effective in screening out units and equipment with:

A) High risk
B) Low risk
C) Medium risk
D) Any risk level

Answer: B … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.1 … Know Qualitative RBI approach

143. QRA uses what types of models in a risk-based assessment?

A) Logic models and physical models

B) Logic models only
C) Physical models only
D) Probabilistic Models

Answer: A … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.2 … Know Quantitative RBI approach

144. QRA uses logic models that show:

A) Progression of accidents and the release of hazardous material to the environment

B) Combinations of events that could result in severe accidents
C) Progression of accidents only
D) Root Cause of accidents only

Answer: B … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.2 … Know Quantitative RBI approach

145. QRA uses physical models that show:

A) Progression of accidents and the release of hazardous material to the environment

B) Combinations of events that could result in severe accidents
C) Progression of accidents only
D) Root Cause of accidents only

Answer: A … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.2 … Know Quantitative RBI approach

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146. How are QRA models evaluated to provide insights into the level of risk and important
risk factors?

A) Quantitatively
B) Qualitatively
C) Probabilistically
D) Semi-quantitatively

Answer: C … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.2 … Know Quantitative RBI approach

147. QRA is distinguished from the qualitative approach by the:

A) Depth of analysis and the integration of detailed assessments
B) Integration of detailed assessments only
C) Analysis depth only
D) None of these

Answer: A … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.2 … Know Quantitative RBI approach

148. QRA logic models generally consist of:

A) Event trees and Decision trees

B) Event trees and Fault trees
C) Fault trees and Decision trees
D) None of these are correct (event trees only)

Answer: B … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.2 … Know Quantitative RBI approach

149. When performing QRA, “Event Trees” are used to delineate (outline):

A) Consequences associated with system failures

B) Initiating events responsible for system successes
C) Initiating events and combinations of system successes and failures
D) None of these are correct

Answer: C … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.2 … Know Quantitative RBI approach

150. When performing QRA, “Fault Trees” are used to depict (show):

A) Consequences associated with system failures

B) Initiating events responsible for system successes
C) Initiating events and combinations of system successes and failures
D) None of these are correct

Answer: D … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.2 … Know Quantitative RBI approach
Fault trees depict ways in which system failures represented in event trees can occur 
None of the above = often the correct answer on API exams … Expect 4 to 5 questions to
have “None of the above” & most are the answer!

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151. QRA logic models are analyzed to estimate the probability of:

A) Each accident sequence

B) Increased risk
C) Increased cost
D) None of these

Answer: A … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.2 … Know Quantitative RBI approach

152. Results using QRA are typically presented as:

A) Risk Probability
B) Risk Numbers
C) Risk cost
D) None of these

Answer: B … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.2 … Know Quantitative RBI approach

153. For all intents and purposes, a QRA is a(n):

A) Traditional risk analysis

B) Detailed risk analysis
C) Detailed risk comparison
D) None of these is correct

Answer: A … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.2 … Know Quantitative RBI approach

154. A QRA shares many of the same techniques and data requirements as a(n):

A) Traditional risk analysis

B) Detailed risk analysis
C) Detailed risk comparison
D) RBI Analysis

Answer: D … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.2 … Know Quantitative RBI approach

155. Traditional QRA generally consists of which of these 5 Tasks:

A) POF, COF, consequence analysis, detailed risk analysis, risk results

B) Consequence & detailed risk analysis, probability assessment, RBI analysis, risk results
C) System & hazard identification, probability assessment, consequence analysis, risk results
D) None of these is correct

Answer: C … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.2 … Know Quantitative RBI approach

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156. Hazard identification in an RBI analysis generally focuses on:

A) Unidentifiable failure mechanisms in the equipment

B) Identifiable failure mechanisms in the equipment (inspectable causes)
C) Other potential failure scenarios resulting from events such as power failures or human errors
D) None of these is correct

Answer: B … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.2 … Know Quantitative RBI approach

157. A QRA deals with what type of risk?

A) Total risk
B) Risk associated with equipment damage
C) Risk associated with safety and environmental impact
D) None of these is correct

Answer: A … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.2 … Know Quantitative RBI approach

158. Which of these statements are true regarding the QRA and an RBI analysis?

A) Both are generally performed by experienced risk analysts

B) The QRA typically involves a much more detailed evaluation than an RBI analysis
C) There are never opportunities to link the less detailed QRA with the more detailed RBI study
D) None of these statements are true

Answer: B … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.2 … Know Quantitative RBI approach
Understand QRA basics  C = true, A = Only QRA is generally performed by experienced
risk analysts, B = There are opportunities to link the detailed QRA with an RBI study, and
D = Not correct because C was the only correct answer.

159. Semi-quantitative is a term that describes any approach that has aspects derived from:

A) Either the qualitative and the quantitative approaches

B) Both the qualitative and the quantitative approaches
C) Only the quantitative approach using less analysis
D) None of these are correct

Answer: B … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.3 … Semi-Quantitative RBI approach

160. Which of these statements are FALSE regarding the semi-quantitative approach?

A) It uses the benefits of both a qualitative approach (speed) and a quantitative approach (rigor)
B) Most of the data used in a quantitative approach is needed for this approach but in less detail
C) Models may not be as rigorous as those used for the quantitative approach
D) None of the statements are false

Answer: D … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.3 … Semi-Quantitative RBI approach

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161. Which statements is TRUE regarding Accuracy versus Precision in risk analysis?

A) Accuracy is a function of selected metrics & computational methods

B) Regarding risk analysis, there is little significant difference between accuracy & precision
C) Precision is a function of analysis methodology & quality of data & application consistency
D) RBI analysis accuracy depends on sound methodology/quality data/ knowledgeable personnel

Answer: D … Introduction to RBI … Sect 6.4 … Precision versus Accuracy

162. The dotted line (square) surrounding COF & POF (API 580 Figure 4 above) indicates:

A) RBI Planning process B) Risk assessment process

C) Risk analysis process D) Risk Estimation process

Ans: B … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.4 … Know Continuum of RBI approaches

163. Which statement is correct regarding API 580 Figure 4 block diagram shown above?

A) Fig. 4 (RBI Planning process) shows all essential elements of planning based on risk analysis
B) Fig. 4 (RBI Planning process) is missing 1 essential planning element based on risk analysis
C) Fig. 4 (RBI Planning process) shows all essential elements of planning based on risk mgmt.
D) Fig. 4 (RBI Planning process) is missing 1 essential planning element based on risk mgmt.

Ans: B … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.4 … Know Continuum of RBI approaches

164. Which element (if any) is missing from API 580 Figure 4 block diagram shown above?

A) Risk analysis validation B) Risk Assessment

C) Reassessment D) No elements are missing

Ans: C … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.4 … Know Continuum of RBI approaches

165. Regarding RBI planning process using the continuum of approaches, which of these
statements is FALSE?
A) Risk Assessment Process includes both Consequence of Failure & Probability of Failure
B) Risk Assessment Process results in a risk ranking that is then applied to Inspection Planning
C) After Inspection Plans, any Mitigation results in Reassessment & more Data & Info collection
D) Data and Info Collection is performed only after initial Risk Assessment Process (COF/ POF)

Ans: D … Types of RBI Assessment … Sect 6.3.4 … Know Continuum of RBI approaches

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166. What statement is true regarding risk when using a precise numeric value
(quantitative risk plot) when compared to a qualitative risk matrix (precision versus
accuracy)?

A) A precise number value implies a greater level of accuracy when compared to a risk matrix
B) A precise number values implies a lower level of accuracy when compared to a risk matrix
C) A precise number value implies a greater level of precision when compared to a risk matrix
D) A precise number values implies a lower level of precision when compared to a risk matrix

Answer: A … Introduction to RBI … Sect 6.4 … Precision versus Accuracy

167. Which statement is NOT TRUE regarding Accuracy versus Precision in risk analysis?
A) RBI analysis accuracy depends on sound methodology/quality data/ knowledgeable personnel
B) Accuracy is a function of analysis methodology & quality of data & application consistency
C) Regarding risk analysis, there is little significant difference between accuracy & precision
D) Precision is a function of selected metrics & computational methods

Answer: C … Introduction to RBI … Sect 6.4 … Precision versus Accuracy

168. Regarding RBI & Operational risk, Mechanical integrity & functional performance of
equipment depends on the suitability of the equipment to operate safely & reliably (when)?

A) Under normal & abnormal (upset) operating conditions that equipment is exposed to
B) Only under the normal operating conditions that the equipment will be exposed to
C) Only under abnormal (upset) operating conditions that equipment is exposed to
D) None of these are correct

Answer: A … Understanding how RBI can manage Operating Risk … Section 6.5

169. Regarding RBI & Managing Operational Risk, risk changes with time and is:

A) Dynamic, so inspection plans must be easily updatable when changes occur

B) Certain, so any changes in operation are not outside of the IOW
C) Variable, so that operating variables are within the IOW
D) None of these are correct

Answer: A … Understanding how RBI can manage Operating Risk … Section 6.5

170. Regarding RBI & Managing Operational Risk, suitability and current condition of the
equipment within the established IOW (integrity operating windows) will determine:

A) Both the POF & COF of the equipment from one or more damage mechanisms
B) The POF of the equipment from one or more damage mechanisms
C) The COF of the equipment from one or more damage mechanisms
D) None of these are correct

Answer: B … Understanding how RBI can manage Operating Risk … Section 6.5

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171. To manage risk, the objective of RBI is to direct management’s decision process for:
prioritizing:

A) Providing funding for Inspections

B) Funding mitigation efforts
C) Prioritizing the resources
D) Providing Risk Analysts

Answer: C … Management of Risks (Risk Management thru Inspection) … Section 6.6.1

172. Inspection influences uncertainty of risk associated with pressure equipment by

improving the knowledge of the deterioration state and the:

A) Predictability of COF
B) Predictability of POF
C) Unpredictability of POF
D) Unpredictability of COF

Answer: B … Management of Risks (Risk Management thru Inspection) … Section 6.6.1

173. Risk management activity (providing new information) that may lead to risk
reduction:

A) Inspection
B) Analysis
C) Mitigation
D) None of these

Answer: A … Management of Risks (Risk Management thru Inspection) … Section 6.6.1

174. Impending failure of pressure equipment is not avoided by inspection activities unless
the inspection precipitates risk mitigation activities that change the:

A) COF
B) POF
C) Design premise
D) None of these

Answer: B … Management of Risks (Risk Management thru Inspection) … Section 6.6.1

175. The inspection plan should detail (what) related to the current operation?

A) POF
B) Mitigated risk
C) Unmitigated risk
D) None of these

Ans: C … Management of Risks (Use RBI to establish Insp plans/prioroties) … Sect 6.6.2

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176. The primary product of an RBI effort should be:

A) Inspection plan for every equipment item

B) Inspection plan for each equipment item evaluated
C) Inspection plan for each high risk equipment item evaluated
D) None of these are correct

Ans: B … Management of Risks (Use RBI to establish Insp plans/prioroties) … Sect 6.6.2

177. A logical & structured process for planning & evaluating inspection activities for
pressure equipment is:

A) Risk Analysis
B) RBI
C) Inspection Planning
D) Mitigation

Ans: B … Management of Risks (Use RBI to establish Insp plans/prioroties) … Sect 6.6.2

178. The inspection plan should detail (what) related to the current operation?

A) POF
B) Mitigated risk
C) Unmitigated risk
D) None of these

Ans: C … Management of Risks (Use RBI to establish Insp plans/prioroties) … Sect 6.6.2

179. For risks considered unacceptable, the inspection plan should contain (what)?

A) Mitigation actions that are required to reduce mitigated risk to acceptable levels
B) Mitigation actions that are required to reduce unmitigated risk to acceptable levels
C) Mitigation actions that are recommended to reduce mitigated risk to acceptable levels
D) Mitigation actions that are recommended to reduce unmitigated risk to acceptable levels

Ans: D … Management of Risks (Use RBI to establish Insp plans/prioroties) … Sect 6.6.2

180. A level of an unmitigated risk should be used to evaluate the:

A) Time to perform an inspection
B) Urgency for performing an inspection
C) Interval for performance of an inspection
D) None of these are correct

Ans: B … Management of Risks (Use RBI to establish Insp plans/prioroties) … Sect 6.6.2

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181. Evaluation of the results of the inspection and examination activities and conducting
an assessment of fitness for continued service are key parts of what process?

A) Mitigation
B) Risk Analysis
C) Engineering Analysis
D) RBI

Ans: D … Management of Risks (Evaluation & FFS Analysis per API 579-1) … Sect 6.6.3

182. Without evaluation of insp. results and assessment of equipment Fitness-For-Service

after the inspection, what important risk management goal may not be accomplished?

A) Effective risk assessment

B) Effective risk reduction
C) Effective risk analysis
D) None of these are correct

Ans: B … Management of Risks (Evaluation & FFS Analysis per API 579-1) … Sect 6.6.3

183. When deterioration is within known acceptable limits, Fitness-For-Service assessment

is most often accomplished through:

A) Knowledge/expertise of both inspector & engineers involved

B) Knowledge/expertise of inspector involved only
C) Knowledge/expertise of engineers involved only
D) None of these are correct

Ans: A … Management of Risks (Evaluation & FFS Analysis per API 579-1) … Sect 6.6.3

184. Fitness-For-Service assessment may on occasion require engineering analysis:

A) In accordance with the Quality Plan
B) And Specialist knowledge and expertise
C) In accordance with API 579-1/ASME FFS-1
D) None of these are correct

Ans: C … Management of Risks (Evaluation & FFS Analysis per API 579-1) … Sect 6.6.3

185. Examples where inspection may not be sufficient to manage risks to acceptable levels
include all of these EXCEPT:

A) Equipment highly susceptible to failure mechanisms such as brittle fracture and fatigue
B) Probability-dominated or residual risks
C) Equipment nearing retirement
D) Consequence-dominated risks

Answer: B … Management of Risks (Other Risk Management) … Sect 6.6.4

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186. Inspection may not be sufficient to manage risks to acceptable levels when:

A) Equipment is susceptible to failure mechanisms requiring specialized inspection to detect

B) Unacceptable levels of residual risk exist
C) Equipment is being placed into service
D) Risks are Consequence-dominated

Answer: D … Management of Risks (Other Risk Management) … Sect 6.6.4

187. Which statement is FALSE regarding the relationship between RBI and Other Risk-
Based and Safety Initiatives?

A) Output from several of the risk-based and safety initiatives can provide input to RBI efforts
B) RBI methodology is intended to complement other risk-based and safety initiatives
C) RBI outputs can be substituted for several safety and risk-based initiatives
D) RBI outputs may be used to improve safety and risk-based initiatives

Answer: C … Relationship between RBI & other Risk-Based & Safety Initiatives  6.7.1

188. A PHA uses a systemized approach to identify and analyze:

A) Process Safety Management Hazards

B) Process Operability Hazards
C) Process Unit Hazards
D) None of these

Ans: C … Mgmt of Risks (Relationship between RBI & Other Safety Initiatives)  6.7.2

189. Which statement is FALSE regarding the relationship between RBI and PHA?

A) RBI study can include a review of output from any PHA conducted on a unit being evaluated
B) PHA-identified hazards that can cause degradation/failure can be addressed in RBI analysis
C) Potential hazards identified in a PHA will often affect the POF side of the risk equation
D) RBI assessment results do not enhance the overall value of the PHA

Ans: D … Mgmt of Risks (Relationship between RBI & Other Safety Initiatives)  6.7.2

190. Which of these statements are false regarding the relationship between RBI and PSM?

A) An effective PSM system can significantly reduce risk levels in a process plant
B) Several of the features of an effective PSM program provide input for an RBI study
C) The RBI program cannot improve the mechanical integrity aspect of the PSM program
D) RBI system will improve inspection plan focus, resulting in a strengthened PSM program

Ans: C … Mgmt of Risks (Relationship between RBI & Other Safety Initiatives)  6.7.3

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191. An effective PSM program includes a well-structured and effective:

A) Pressure equipment inspection program

B) Hazard and Operability assessment
C) Process hazards control system
D) None of these

Ans: A … Mgmt of Risks (Relationship between RBI & Other Safety Initiatives)  6.7.3

192. Which of these statements is true regarding the relationship between RBI and
Equipment Reliability (ER)?

A) ER programs can provide input to the probability analysis portion of an RBI program
B) Reliability records can be used to develop equipment failure probabilities & leak frequencies
C) RCM cannot supplement RBI nor achieve an integrated program to reduce Op Unit downtime
D) At facilities without effective RBI, RCM programs can focus on equipment reliability aspects
outside of loss of containment

Ans: A … Mgmt of Risks (Relationship between RBI & Other Safety Initiatives)  6.7.4

193. Reliability records can be used to develop (what) for Unit equipment:

A) POF/COF
B) An effective RBI Program
C) Failure probabilities & leak frequencies
D) None of these are correct

Ans: C … Mgmt of Risks (Relationship between RBI & Other Safety Initiatives)  6.7.4

194. In jurisdictions allowing API code/Std use, RBI should be an acceptable method for:

A) Meeting all jurisdictional code and legal requirements

B) Exceeding all jurisdictional code and legal requirements
C) Establishing Inspection plans and setting Inspection due dates
D) None of these is correct

Ans: C … Mgmt of Risks (Relationship with Jurisdictional Requirements)  Section 6.8

195. Before using RBI for inspection planning purposes, all users should review what
requirements in a given jurisdiction?

A) Jurisdictional code and legal requirements

B) Jurisdictional guidelines and legal points
C) Jurisdictional rules and guidelines
D) None of these are correct

Ans: A … Mgmt of Risks (Relationship with Jurisdictional Requirements)  Section 6.8

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196. When planning an RBI assessment, which of these is done to focus the effort when just
getting started?

A) Aligning priorities
B) Identifying boundaries
C) Creating the team
D) Screening

Answer: D … Ref: Para 7.1 Getting Started  Screening is done to focus the effort

197. At the beginning of an RBI exercise, it is important to answer all these questions
except:

A) What codes and standards are applicable

B) When will the assessment be completed
C) What will be the maintenance cost and loss of production
D) How long will the assessment remain in effect and when it will be updated

Ans: C … Ref: Par 7.1 Getting Started  How results will be used & what is plan period!

198. An RBI assessment should be undertaken with clear objectives and goals that are:

A) Fully understood by all members of the RBI team only

B) Fully understood by all members of the RBI team and management
C) Followed by all members of the RBI team, operations and management
D) Fully understood by all members of the RBI team, operations and management

Answer: B … Ref: Para 7.2.1  Planning the RBI Assessment … General

199. An RBI assessment will determine the risk associated with:

A) The items assessed
B) The items for analysis
C) The items to be inspected
D) The items inspected and under analysis

Answer: A … Ref: Para 7.2.3  Planning the RBI Assessment … Define Risk Criteria

200. Who may judge if an individual equipment item & cumulative risks are acceptable?

A) The RBI Team Leader

B) The RBI team and the risk analyst
C) The RBI team and the management
D) The RBI team leader, the risk analyst and the management

Answer: C … Ref: Para 7.2.3  Planning the RBI Assessment … Define Risk Criteria

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201. When the inspection program is optimized based on an understanding of risk, all of
the following cost reduction benefits may be realized except:

A) Noninvasive insp methods may be substituted for invasive methods requiring equip shutdown
B) More effective infrequent inspection may be substituted for less effective frequent inspection
C) Ineffective, unnecessary or inappropriate inspection activities may be eliminated
D) Inspection of high-risk items may be eliminated or reduced

Answer: D … Ref: Para 7.2.5  Planning the RBI Assessment … Reduce Costs

202. The data within the RBI assessment can be useful in determining the optimum
economic strategy to:

A) Cut Inspection Costs

B) Reduce risk
C) Change Inspection Plans
D) Reduce inventories

Answer: B … Ref: Par 7.2.7  Plan RBI Assess. Identify Mitigation Alternatives

203. End of life strategies focus the inspection efforts directly on high-risk areas and:

A) Where the inspections will provide a reduction of risk during the remaining life of the plant
B) Efforts that do not impact risk during the remaining life are always eliminated or reduced
C) Efforts that do not impact risk during the remaining life are always eliminated
D) Efforts that do not impact risk during the remaining life are always reduced.

Answer: A … Ref: Para. 7.2.9  Plan RBI Assess. Facilities End of Life Strategies

204. During initial screening, the screening done at the facility level may be done by a:

A) Simplified Semi-Qualitative RBI assessment

B) Detailed Semi-Quantitative RBI assessment
C) Simplified Qualitative RBI assessment
D) Detailed Quantitative RBI assessment

Answer: C … Ref: Para. 7.3.3  Plan RBI Assess. Facilities Screening

205. If the scope of the RBI assessment is a multi-unit facility, the first step in the
application of RBI is screening of entire process units to:

A) Determine residual risk

B) Rank relative risk
C) Determine absolute risk
D) Rank risk by prioritizing inspections

Answer: B … Ref: Para. 7.3.4  Plan RBI Assess. Process Units Screening

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206. The precision of the data collected should be consistent with the:

A) Approach selected (equipment, system, process unit, facility)

B) Inspection planning and assessment methodology
C) RBI method used
D) Level of the risk

Answer: C … Ref: Para. 8.1  Data & Information Collection  General

207. Generally, a qualitative analysis uses broad ranges that require which of the following
from the user when compared to a more quantitative approach?

A) A higher level of judgment, skill and understanding from the user

B) An equal level of judgment, skill and understanding from the user
C) A lesser level of judgment, skill and understanding from the user
D) None of these are correct, despite the simplicity of the approach

Answer: A … Ref: Para. 8.2.1  Data & Info Collection  Qualitative RBI Data Needs

208. QRA uses logic models depicting:

A) Progression of accidents and the transport of a hazardous material to the environment

B) Combinations of events that could transport hazardous material to the environment
C) Progression of events and the transport of a hazardous material to the environment
D) Combinations of events that could result in severe accidents

Answer: D … Ref: Para. 8.2.2  Data & Info Collection  Quantitative RBI Data Needs

209. In any inspection program, data validation is essential and the reasons for inspection
data quality errors include all of the following except:

A) Baseline inspections performed

B) Outdated drawings & documentation
C) Inspection error, clerical and data transcription errors
D) Measurement equipment accuracy, incorrect assumptions on equipment history

Answer: A … Ref: Para. 8.3  Data & Info Collection  Data Quality

210. Information for RBI can be found in many places within a facility. It is important to
stress that the precision of the data should match:

A) The complexity of the RBI method used

B) The sensitivity of the data that is needed
C) Any data that overlaps the analysis
D) None of these is correct

Ans: A … Ref: Para. 8.5  Data & Info Collection  Sources of Site-Specific Data/Info

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211. Per API 580, Damage mechanisms (DMs) include which of the following:

A) Corrosion, cracking, and metallurgical damage

B) Corrosion, cracking, mechanical/metallurgical damage
C) Corrosion, cracking, mechanical/metallurgical/environmental damage
D) Corrosion, cracking, mechanical/metallurgical/environmental damage, and stress rupture

Answer: B … Ref: Para. 9.1  DMs & Failure Modes  Introduction

212. Understanding failure modes is important for all of the following reasons except:

A) The analysis of the COF

B) The selection of repair techniques
C) The ability to make run-or-repair decisions
D) The selection of appropriate inspection intervals/due dates, locations and techniques

Ans: D … Ref: Para. 9.1  DMs & Failure Modes  Introduction … D = correct answer
when we are discussing “Damage” Modes

213. Once a credible damage mechanism(s) has been identified, what else should also be
identified?

A) The associated damage modes

B) Any other associated damage mechanisms
C) The failure modes associated with the damage mechanism
D) Any associated potential damage modes and failure modes

Answer: C … Ref: Para. 9.3  DMs & Failure Modes  Failure Modes

214. Examples of failure modes include all of the following except:

A) Leakage (pinhole leak, small to moderate leak, large leak)

B) Ductile rupture
C) Brittle fracture
D) Cracking

Answer: D … Ref: Para. 9.3  DMs & Failure Modes  Failure Modes

215. When tabulating results of a damage mechanisms and failure modes analysis for RBI,
which of the following should NOT be indicated?

A) A list of credible damage mechanism(s)

B) A list of credible damage mode(s) resulting from damage mechanisms(s)
C) A list of credible failure mode(s) resulting from the damage mechanisms(s)
D) A ranking of credible failure mode(s) that are resulting from the damage mode(s)

Answer: C … Ref: Para. 9.5  DMs & Failure Modes  Tabulating Results (DMs & FMs)

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216. The POF analysis should address all of the following items except:

A) All damage mechanisms to which the equipment being studied is susceptible

B) All damage mechanisms to which the equipment being studied can be susceptible
C) Situations where equipment is or can be susceptible to multiple DMs (thinning, creep, etc.)
D) Failure due to loss of containment occurring from any number of reasons due to failure modes

Answer: D … Ref: Para. 10.1  Assessing POF  Introduction to Probability Analysis

217. The POF analysis should have all of the following characteristics except:

A) It should be measurable
B) It should be repeatable
C) It should be credible
D) It should be documented

Ans: A … Ref: Para. 10.1  Assessing POF  Should be repeatable/credible/documented

218. Regarding POF analysis, frequency is expressed as a:

A) Number of events
B) Fraction or Percentage
C) Number of events occurring during a specific time frame
D) None of these are correct

Answer: C … Ref: Para. 10.2  Assessing POF  Units of measure in the POF Analysis

219. What is the basis for a Qualitative POF assessment using knowledge of the operating
history, future inspection and maintenance plans and possible materials deterioration?
A) Expert opinion
B) Inspector judgment
C) Engineering judgment
D) None of these

Answer: C … Ref: Para. 10.3.2  Assessing POF  Qualitative POF Analysis

220. Deterioration rate can be expressed in terms of:

A) Loss rate in mils per year & high/med/low probability for environmental cracking (SCC)
B) Loss rate in mils per year & active/aggressive probability for environmental cracks (SCC)
C) Corrosion rate (for thinning) or Susceptibility (for DMs having unknown deterioration rates)
D) High, medium or low based on environmental conditions/construction material combinations

Ans: C … Ref: 10.4.2  Assessing POF  Determine Deterioration, Susceptibility & Rate

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221. Susceptibility can be expressed in terms of:

A) Loss rate in mils per year & high/med/low probability for environmental cracking (SCC)
B) Loss rate in mils per year & active/aggressive probability for environmental cracks (SCC)
C) Corrosion rate (for thinning) or Susceptibility (for DMs having unknown deterioration rates)
D) High, medium or low based on environmental conditions/construction material combinations

Ans: D … Ref: 10.4.2  Assessing POF  Determine Deterioration, Susceptibility & Rate

222. The deterioration rate in specific process equipment is often not known with certainty.
The ability to state the rate of deterioration precisely is affected by all of these items except:

A) Inspector’s expertise
B) Process and metallurgical variations
C) Equipment complexity and the type of damage mechanism
D) Inaccessibility for inspection, and limitations of inspection and test methods

Ans: A … Ref: 10.4.2  Assessing POF  Determine Deterioration, Susceptibility & Rate
Tricky question … Limitations in the Inspector’s expertise is a factor … Not his expertise!
An Inspector with “expertise” makes the right call! Expect to see this question on exam …

223. Sources of deterioration rate information include all of the following except:
A) Published data and unpublished company data, and previous inspection data
B) Laboratory testing, In-situ testing and in-service monitoring
C) Experience with similar equipment
D) Corrosion Specialist opinion

Ans: D … Ref: 10.4.2  Assessing POF  Determine Deterioration, Susceptibility & Rate

224. Which of these statements linking the damage mechanism to the failure mode is false?

A) Stress corrosion cracking can develop into small through-wall cracks or catastrophic ruptures
B) Metallurgical deterioration and mechanical damage can vary from small holes to ruptures
C) Localized corrosion and pitting can lead to large hole-sized leaks or ruptures
D) General thinning from corrosion often leads to larger leaks or rupture

Answer: C … Ref: 10.4.3  Assessing POF  Determine Failure Mode

225. The effectiveness of future inspections can be optimized by:

A) Use standard NDE methods for all DMs

B) Adjusting the inspection frequency only
C) Adjusting the inspection coverage only
D) Adjusting inspection coverage, inspection frequency or some combination thereof

Ans: D  They are all limitations! Ref: 10.4.4  Quantify Effectiveness Past Insp Program
Adjusting inspection coverage, adjusting inspection frequency or some combination thereof

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226. The consequence analysis in an RBI program is performed to provide discrimination

between equipment items on the basis of the:

A) Significance of a potential failure

B) Both the COF and the POF
C) COF only
D) POF only

Answer: A … Ref: Section 11.1  Assessing COF  Introduction to Consequence Analysis

227. COF analysis should be performed to estimate the consequences that occur due to:

A) Either a failure mode or deterioration typically resulting from an identified DM(s)

B) A failure mode typically resulting from an identified damage mechanism(s)
C) Deterioration typically resulting from an identified damage mechanism(s)
D) None of these are correct

Answer: B … Ref: Section 11.1  Assessing COF  Introduction to Consequence Analysis

228. The consequence analysis should address:

A) All credible estimates of details regarding DMs that can affect equipment
B) All credible failure modes to which the equipment item is susceptible
C) All realistic and significant DMs and failure modes
D) None of the above is correct

Answer: B … Ref: Section 11.1  Assessing COF  Introduction to Consequence Analysis

229. The consequence effects for loss of containment can be generally considered to be in all
the following categories except:

A) Safety, health, and environmental impact

B) Maintenance and reconstruction costs
C) Production losses
D) Inspection costs

Answer: D … Ref: Section 11.1.2  Loss of Containment

230. Although RBI is mainly concerned with loss of containment failures, other functional
failures could be included in an RBI study if a USER DESIRED. OTHER FUNCTIONAL
FAILURES COULD INCLUDE ALL OF THESE EXCEPT:

A) Functional or mechanical failure of pressure containing equipment (columns, tray towers, etc)
B) Rotating equipment failure such as seal leaks and impeller failures
C) Pressure-relief device failure
D) Heat exchanger tube failure

Answer: A … Ref: Section 11.1.3  Other Functional Failures

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231. The consequences of failure (safety, health, environmental and financial impacts) can
be estimated separately for each unit, system, equipment group or individual equipment
item on the basis of:

A) Engineering expertise
B) Expert knowledge and experience
C) Risk analyst solicitations and input
D) Total RBI Team assessment

Answer: B … Ref: Section 11.2.2  Qualitative Consequences Analysis

232. Quantitative models usually contain one or more standard failure scenarios or
outcomes and calculate COF based on all of the following except:

A) Type of process fluid in equipment & state of process fluid in the equipment (solid/liquid/gas)
B) Process operating variables (temp/press) & inventory available for release in event of a leak
C) Key properties of process fluid (boiling point, density, flammability, toxicity, etc.)
D) Failure mode and resulting deterioration

Answer: D … Ref: Section 11.2.3  Quantitative Consequences Analysis

233. Approach for assigning monetary values to safety/health consequences is included in:

A) API 579-1 FFS

B) API 580
C) API 581
D) ASME PCC-3

Answer: C … Ref: Section 11.3.2  Safety Consequences

234. Which of the following are the least developed among those currently used for RBI?

A) Safety and health consequence measures

B) Environmental consequence measures
C) Operational consequence measures
D) Economic consequence measures

Answer: B … Ref: Section 11.3.5  Environmental Damage

235. Consequences of releasing a hazardous material can be estimated in all of these steps
below except for one false statement (Not one of the six steps).

A) Estimate the release rate and the total volume of fluid that will be released from equipment
B) Determine if fluid is dispersed in a rapid manner (instantaneous) or slowly (continuous)
C) Determine if the fluid disperses in the atmosphere as a liquid or a gas
D) Estimate planned mitigation system impacts and estimated costs

Answer: D … Ref: Section 11.6  Determination of COF

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236. Risk should be determined by combining the POF and the COF and the general form
of the risk equation should be:

A) Risk = Probability ÷ Consequence

B) Risk = Probability + Consequence
C) Risk = Probability – Consequence
D) Risk = Probability x Consequence

Answer: D … Ref: Section 12.1  Risk Determination/Assessment/Mgmt

237. Once probabilities of failure and failure mode(s) have been determined for the
relevant damage mechanisms, what should be the next item to be determined?
A) The consequence of each failure mode
B) The consequence of each potential failure
C) The probability of each credible consequence scenario
D) None of these are correct

Ans: C … Ref: Section 12.2.1  Risk D/A/M …Probability of a Specific Consequence

238. Probabilities of incidents generally:

A) Increase with the severity of each incident

B) Decrease with the severity of each incident
C) Remain the same with the severity of each incident
D) None of these are correct

Ans: B … Ref: Section 12.2.1  Risk D/A/M … Probability of a Specific Consequence

239. For a specific damage mechanism, what should be taken into account when
considering the probability of incidents in the aftermath of an equipment failure?

A) The expected mode of failure

B) The probability of each credible consequence scenario
C) The probability of each credible consequence scenario and the expected mode of failure
D) None of these are correct

Ans: A … Ref: Section 12.2.1  Risk D/A/M … Probability of a Specific Consequence

240. When calculating risk for each specific consequence, risk equations can be stated as:
A) Risk of specific consequence = Probability of specific consequence ÷ specific consequence
B) Risk of specific consequence = Probability of specific consequence + specific consequence
C) Risk of specific consequence = Probability of specific consequence – specific consequence
D) Risk of specific consequence = Probability of specific consequence × specific consequence

Ans: D … Ref: Section 12.2.2  Risk D/A/M … Calculate Risk (Specific Consequence)

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241. Risk-based inspection is a tool to provide:

A) A management strategy for the risks of loss of containment of equipment

B) An assessment of the risks of loss of containment of equipment
C) An estimate of the risks of loss of containment of equipment
D) An analysis of the risks of loss of containment of equipment

Answer: D … Ref: Section 12.3.1  Risk D/A/M … Risk Acceptance

242. Cost-benefit analysis is a powerful tool that is being used by many companies,
governments and regulatory authorities as one method in determining:

A) Risk
B) Absolute Risk
C) Risk acceptance
D) Items for Risk Management

Answer: C … Ref: Section 12.3.1  Risk D/A/M … Risk Acceptance

243. Understanding the value of each variable and how it influences the risk calculation is
key to identifying which input variables deserve closer scrutiny versus other variables
which may not have significant effects. This is more important when performing risk
analyses that are:

A) Less detailed & semi-quantitative in nature

B) More detailed & quantitative in nature
C) More detailed & qualitative in nature
D) Less detailed & qualitative in nature

Answer: B … Ref: Sect 12.4  Risk D/A/M … Sensitivity Analysis

244. What type of analysis typically involves reviewing some or all input variables to the
risk calculation to determine the overall influence on the resultant risk value?

A) Qualitative risk analysis

B) Quantitative risk analysis
C) Semi-quantitative risk analysis
D) Sensitivity analysis

Answer: D … Ref: Sect 12.4  Risk D/A/M … Sensitivity Analysis

245. Assumptions or estimates of input values are often used when:

A) POF data are not available only

B) Consequence data is not available only
C) Consequence data and/or POF data is not available
D) None of the above is correct and will affect an assumption or estimate of input values
Ans: C … Ref: Sect 12.5  Risk D/A/M … Assumptions

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246. One goal of risk analysis is to communicate results in a common format that a variety
of people can understand. Which of the following is helpful in accomplishing this goal?
A) Using a risk matrix B) Using a risk matrix or plot
C) Using a risk matrix or plot or schedule D) Using a risk matrix, plot, graph or schedule
Ans: B … Ref: Sect 12.6.1  Risk D/A/M … Risk Presentation (general)

247. Which of these items (See Risk Plot below) are indicative of unacceptable risk?

A) Item 2 only B) Items 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, & 10

C) Items 1 & 2 only D) None of these are correct

Ans: D … Ref: Sect 12.6.3  Risk D/A/M … Risk Presentation (Risk Plots)  Items 1, 2, 3
248. After risk analysis has been performed, and risk values plotted, what process begins?
A) Risk evaluation process begins B) Risk management process begins
C) Risk assessment process begins D) Risk estimation process begins
Ans: A … Ref: Sect 12.7  Risk D/A/M … Establishing Acceptable Risk Thresholds

249. Regarding risk management, inspection alone does not arrest or mitigate damage
mechanisms or reduce risk, but the information gained though effective inspection can:

A) Better quantify the actual risk B) Precisely identify the actual risk
C) Better quantify the absolute risk D) Precisely identify the absolute risk

Ans: A, Par 13.1  RM w/Insp activities  Manage risk by reducing uncertainty thru Insp

250. Regarding risk management, impending failure of pressure equipment is not avoided
by inspection activities unless the inspection causes what to happen (or results in)?

A) Risk mitigation activities that change the COF

B) Risk mitigation activities that change the POF
C) Supplemental inspection activities that better identify the POF
D) Supplemental inspection activities that better identify the POF & result in a change to COF

Ans: B, Par 13.1  RM w/Insp activities  Manage risk by reducing uncertainty thru Insp

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251. Regarding risk management, inspection serves all of these purposes EXCEPT:

A) To correctly identify the damage mechanism

B) To adequately monitor the damage mechanism
C) To adequately measure the damage mechanism
D) To prevent failures caused by the damage mechanism

Ans: D, Par 13.1  RM w/Insp activities  Manage risk by reducing uncertainty thru Insp

252. Regarding risk management, inspection is invaluable input in the prediction of when
the damage will:

A) Result in a catastrophic failure mode

B) Result in a loss of containment
C) Reach a critical point
D) None of these can be determined by inspection

Ans: C, Par 13.1  RM w/Insp activities  Manage risk by reducing uncertainty thru Insp

253. Regarding risk management with inspection activities, the correct application of
inspections will improve the API 580 user’s ability:

A) To plan and implement mitigation after predicted failure dates

B) To predict the damage mechanisms and rates of deterioration
C) To determine failure dates with greater probability
D) To determine failure dates with greater precision

Ans: B, Par 13.1  RM w/Insp activities  Manage risk by reducing uncertainty thru Insp

254. Regarding risk management with inspection activities, the reduction in uncertainty &
increase in predictability through inspection translate directly into a better estimate of the:

A) POF and a reduction in actual risk

B) COF and a reduction in actual risk
C) POF and a reduction in calculated risk
D) COF and a reduction in calculated risk
Ans: C, Par 13.1  RM w/Insp activities  Manage risk by reducing uncertainty thru Insp

255. All of these damage mechanisms listed are very difficult or impossible to monitor with
inspection activities alone EXCEPT for:

A) Metallurgical deterioration that may result in instantaneous failure (such as brittle fracture)
B) Forms of localized pitting that can result in significant wall loss and loss of containment
C) Forms of stress corrosion cracking as identified in API 571
D) Forms of fatigue failure as identified in API 571

Ans: B, Par 13.1  RM w/Insp activities  Manage risk by reducing uncertainty thru Insp

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256. Regarding risk management with inspection activities, damage mechanisms caused by
these types of operating changes can happen too fast to be monitored with the normal risk-
based/condition-based/or time-based inspection plans?

A) Short-term, external event-driven operating changes

B) Long-term, external event-driven operating changes
C) Long-term, event-driven operating changes
D) Short-term, event-driven operating changes

Ans: D, Par 13.1  RM w/Insp activities  Manage risk by reducing uncertainty thru Insp

257. Regarding risk management with inspection activities, damage mechanisms caused by
short-term, event-driven operating changes can happen too fast to be monitored with:

A) Normal risk-based, condition-based or time-based inspection plans

B) Optimized risk-based or condition-based inspection plans
C) Normal risk-based or time-based inspection plans
D) Optimized risk-based inspection plans

Ans: A, Par 13.1  RM w/Insp activities  Manage risk by reducing uncertainty thru Insp

258. Which of these does not properly manage risk caused by short-term, event-driven
operating changes that happen too fast to be monitored with inspection plans?
A) Establishing and implementing a comprehensive program for IOWs
B) Establish adequate communications to inspection personnel when process deviations occur
C) Establish and implement a rigorous MOC program for changes from established parameters
D) Establish and implement operating windows & procedures where deviations are not allowed

Ans: D, Par 13.1  RM w/Insp activities  Manage risk by reducing uncertainty thru Insp

259. Risk mitigation (by the reduction in uncertainty) achieved through inspection
presumes that the organization will:

A) Act on the results of the inspection immediately

B) Act on the results of the inspection in a timely manner
C) Act on the results of the inspection before the need arises for mitigation
D) Act on the results of the inspection before the need arises due to loss of containment
Ans: B, Par 13.1  RM w/Insp activities  Manage risk by reducing uncertainty thru Insp

260. Regarding risk management with inspection, if inspection data that are gathered are
not properly analyzed and acted upon where needed, what will likely be the result?

A) Loss of containment
B) Significant increase in the absolute risk
C) Risk mitigation will not be achieved
D) Possible loss of containment & risk mitigation will not be achieved
Ans: C, Par 13.1  RM w/Insp activities  Manage risk by reducing uncertainty thru Insp
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261. Regarding risk management with inspection, the quality of the inspection data and the
analysis or interpretation will greatly affect the level of:

A) Actual risk
B) Absolute risk
C) Unmitigated risk
D) Risk mitigation

Ans: D, Par 13.1  RM w/Insp activities  Manage risk by reducing uncertainty thru Insp

262. Regarding risk management with inspection, because the quality of the inspection data
and the analysis or interpretation will greatly affect the level of risk mitigation, which of
the following items are critical?

A) Proper inspection methods and data analysis tools

B) Strictly applied inspection and risk analysis procedures
C) Strictly applied inspection methods and procedures only
D) None of the above are correct

Ans: A, Par 13.1  RM w/Insp activities  Manage risk by reducing uncertainty thru Insp

263. In the situations where risk is being driven by POF, there is usually potential for:

A) Risk management through inspection

B) Risk reduction through detailed inspection analysis
C) Risk avoidance by using detailed inspection analysis
D) None of these is correct
Ans: A, Par 13.2  RM opportunities from RBI results  Risk management through Insp

264. Whether inspections will be effective or not will depend on any of the following except:

A) Equipment type & Shutdown requirements

B) Active and credible damage mechanism(s) and rate of deterioration or susceptibility
C) Inspection methods, coverage and frequency and accessibility to expected damage areas
D) Amount of achievable reduction in COF

Ans: D, Par 13.2  RM opportunities from RBI results  Achievable reduction in POF

265. Depending on factors such as the remaining life of the equipment and type of damage
mechanism, RISK MANAGEMENT THROUGH INSPECTION:

A) Almost always has a significant effect

B) Always has a significant effect
C) May have little or no effect
D) Always has no effect

Ans: C, Par 13.2  RM opportunities from RBI results  RM thru Insp=little or no effect

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266. Examples where risk management through inspection will have the EFFECT in the
question above include all of these EXCEPT:

A) Corrosion rates well-established with equipment nearing end of life

B) Instantaneous failures related to operating conditions such as brittle fracture
C) Inspection technology that is not sufficient to detect or quantify deterioration adequately
D) Time-based failures (circumstances that can easily be predicted)

Ans: D, Par 13.2  RM opportunities from RBI results  Event-based can’t be predicted

267. In addition to a risk priority list that is developed as a result of the RBI process, RBI
will also identify whether the consequence or POF or both is:

A) Driving risk
B) Increasing risk
C) Decreasing risk
D) Either increasing or decreasing risk

Ans: A, Par 13.2  RM w/Insp activities  Id Risk Mgmt Opportunities from RBI results

268. Regarding risk management, once an RBI assessment has been completed, the items
with higher or unacceptable risk should be:

A) Analyzed for potential risk management risk management strategies other than inspection
B) Assessed for potential risk management thru Inspection or other risk management strategies
C) Analyzed for potential risk management thru Inspection and other risk management strategies
D) Assessed for potential risk management thru Inspection alone

Ans: B, Par 13.2  RM w/Insp activities  Id Risk Mgmt Opportunities from RBI results

269. Regarding risk management with Inspection, whether inspections will be effective or
not will depend on all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Equipment type and the active and credible damage mechanisms affecting the equipment
B) The rate of deterioration or susceptibility, inspection methods, coverage and frequency
C) Accessibility to expected damage areas, and the shutdown requirements
D) Amount of achievable reduction in the COF

Ans: D, Par 13.2  RM w/Insp activities  Id Risk Mgmt Opportunities from RBI results

270. Regarding risk management with Inspection, which of these statements is true
concerning a reduction in POF of a low POF item?
A) A reduction in POF of a low POF item is not achievable through inspection
B) A reduction in POF of a low POF item is usually easily achievable through inspection
C) A reduction in POF of a low POF item is usually difficult to achieve through inspection
D) A reduction in POF of a low POF item is extremely difficult to achieve through inspection

Ans: C, Par 13.2  RM w/Insp activities  Id Risk Mgmt Opportunities from RBI results

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271. Depending on factors such as the remaining life of the equipment and type of damage
mechanism, risk management through inspection may have:

A) Little or no effect B) No effect at all

C) Some effect, but not significant D) A significant effect

Ans: A, Par 13.2  RM w/Insp activities  Id Risk Mgmt Opportunities from RBI results

272. Examples of cases where risk management through inspection may have little or no
effect includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A) For equip nearing end of life with well-established corrosion rates & for event-driven failures
B) Too short time frame (onset of damage to final failure) for periodic inspection to be effective
C) For instantaneous failures related to operating conditions such as high-cycle fatigue cracking
D) When Inspection technology is not sufficient to detect or quantify deterioration adequately

Ans: C, Par 13.2  RM w/Insp activities  Id Risk Mgmt Opportunities from RBI results
NOTE: Instantaneous failures = Brittle Fracture … High cycle fatigue = an example of “B”

273. When establishing an inspection strategy based on Risk Assessment, results of an RBI
assessment & resultant risk management assessment are normally used as the basis for:

A) Development of a facility inspection and maintenance plan (such as that existing with PSM)
B) Development of a facility inspection and maintenance plan (such as that existing with PHA)
C) Development of an overall inspection strategy for the group of items included in assessment
D) Development of an equipment insp & non-inspection mitigation plan to reduce risk levels

Ans: C, Par 13.3  RM w/Insp activities  Estab Insp Strategy based on Risk Assessment

274. Regarding inspection strategy based on risk assessment, inspection strategy should be
designed in conjunction with other mitigation plans so that all equipment items will have:

A) Resultant risks that are acceptable B) Mitigated risks that are acceptable
C) Unmitigated risks that are acceptable D) None of these are correct

Ans: A, Par 13.3  RM w/Insp activities  Estab Insp Strategy based on Risk Assessment

275. Regarding inspection strategy based on risk assessment, for the development of their
inspection strategy, users should consider all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Risk criteria and ranking, risk drivers, and the equipment item history
B) Equipment in similar service and the equipment remaining life
C) Number and results of the inspections performed
D) Inspection intervals and detailed methods used

Ans: D, Par 13.3  RM w/Insp activities  Estab Insp Strategy based on Risk Assessment
The type and effectiveness of inspections would be correct for answer = “D”

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276. The level of risk reduction achieved by inspection will depend on all of these
EXCEPT:

A) Speed of deterioration
B) Damage mechanism mode of failure
C) Detection capability of the inspector
D) Scope and frequency of inspection

Ans: C, Par 13.3  RM w/Insp activities  Estab Insp Strategy based on Risk Assessment

277. Organizations should be cautious not to assume that there is an unending capacity for
risk management through inspection, and should act (how) in assigning the level of risk
management achieved through inspection?

A) Cautiously and systematically B) Deliberately and systematically

C) Cautiously and conservatively D) Conservatively and systematically

Ans: B, Par 13.3  RM w/Insp activities  Estab Insp Strategy based on Risk Assessment

278. To assure that inspection activities are continually focused on items with higher risk,
the inspection strategy (regarding Risk Assessment) should be what type of process?

A) A documented & very efficient process

B) A documented & repetitive process
C) A documented & detailed process
D) A documented & concise process

Ans: B, Par 13.3  RM w/Insp activities  Estab Insp Strategy based on Risk…Iterative
means repetitive … The correct answer could also be … A documented & iterative process

279. Regarding managing risk with inspection activities, RBI can be used as a “what if”
tool to guide inspection as related to risk determination for all of the following EXCEPT:

A) How inspections should be conducted to yield an acceptable future risk level

B) What inspections should be conducted to yield an acceptable future risk level
C) When inspections should be conducted to yield an acceptable future risk level
D) Where inspections should be conducted to yield an acceptable future risk level

Ans: D, Par 13.4  RM w/Insp activities Managing Risk with Inspection Activities

280. Regarding managing risk with inspection activities, key parameters that can affect the
future risk include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Frequency of inspection B) Inspection limitations

C) Inspection tools & techniques D) Inspection procedures and practices

Ans: B, Par 13.4  RM w/Insp activities Managing Risk with Inspection Activities …
Correct = Insp coverage uses strategy such as “candidate” system for more extensive Insp

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281. Increasing the frequency of inspection may serve to better define, identify or monitor
the damage mechanism(s) and therefore:

A) Better quantify the risk B) Produce an acceptable level of risk

C) Cost effectively & safely quantify POF D) Result in a risk reduction or elimination

Ans: A, Par 13.4  RM w/Insp activities Managing Risk with Inspection Activities …

282. Regarding managing risk with inspection activities, one of the key parameters that can
affect the future risk is the Inspection Coverage. Different zones or areas of inspection of
an item or series of items can be modeled & evaluated to determine the coverage that will:

A) Better quantify the risk B) Produce an acceptable level of risk

C) Cost effectively & safely quantify POF D) Result in a risk reduction or elimination

Ans: B, Par 13.4  RM w/Insp activities Managing Risk with Inspection Activities …

283. Regarding managing risk with inspection activities, one of the key parameters that can
affect the future risk is Inspection Tools & Techniques. The selection and usage of the
appropriate inspection tools and techniques can be optimized to:

A) Better quantify the risk

B) Produce an acceptable level of risk
C) Cost effectively & safely quantify POF
D) Result in a risk reduction or elimination

Ans: C, Par 13.4  RM w/Insp activities Managing Risk with Inspection Activities …

284. Inspection procedures and the actual inspection practices can impact the ability of
inspection activities to:

A) Identify damage mechanisms

B) Identify and measure damage mechanisms
C) Identify, measure and/or monitor damage mechanisms
D) None of the above are correct

Ans: C, Par 13.4  RM w/Insp activities Managing Risk with Inspection Activities …

285. Risk quantification by internal, on-stream and external inspections should be assessed
because often external inspection with effective on-stream inspection techniques can:

A) Better quantify the risk

B) Produce an acceptable level of risk
C) Cost effectively & safely quantify POF
D) Provide useful data for risk assessment

Ans: D, Par 13.4  RM w/Insp activities Managing Risk with Inspection Activities …

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286. Invasive inspections, in some cases, may cause deterioration and increase the risk of
the item. Examples where this may happen include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Moisture ingress to equip leading to stress corrosion cracking or polythionic acid cracking
B) Internal inspection of fragile (easily broken/cracked) glass lined pressure vessels
C) Increased risks associated with operating equipment at elevated temps
D) Removal of passivating (protecting) films during cleaning

Ans: C, Par 13.4  RM w/Insp activities Managing Risk with Inspection Activities …
Increased risks associated with shutting down and starting up equipment

287. The five key parameters (Insp frequency, coverage, tools & techniques, procedures &
practices, Internal/On-Stream/Ext) can be adjusted by the API 580 user to obtain the
OPTIMUM INSPECTION PLAN that:

A) Manages risk, is cost effective, and is practical

B) Achieves lowest life cycle costs and is practical
C) Reduces risk and is cost effective and is practical
D) None of the above is correct

Ans: A, Par 13.4  RM w/Insp activities Managing Risk with Inspection Activities …
Increased risks associated with shutting down and starting up equipment

288. Regarding managing risk with inspection, Inspection costs can be more effectively
managed through the utilization of:
A) RBI B) Well-trained/qualified/experienced inspectors
B) Proper inspection tools & techniques D) Effective inspection procedures

Ans: A, Par 13.5  RM w/Insp activities  Managing Inspection Costs with RBI

289. Regarding managing risk with inspection, which of the following inspection actions
does not result in increased inspection cost effectiveness?
A) Insp resources can be reduced in areas where Insp has little or no effect on associated risks
B) Resources can be applied or shifted to those areas targeted based on the strategy selected
C) Resources can be applied or shifted to those areas identified as having risks
D) Inspection resources can be applied wherever they are most needed

Ans: C, Par 13.5  Managing Insp Costs with RBI  Identified as having HIGHER risk

290. An opportunity for managing inspection costs is by identifying items in the inspection
plan that can be inspected:
A) During Turnarounds
B) During planned Unit Shut Downs
C) During unplanned Unit Shut Downs
D) Non-intrusively on-stream

Ans: D, Par 13.5  RM w/Insp activities  Managing Inspection Costs with RBI
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291. Regarding managing risk with inspection, if the item considered is the main driver for
bringing an operational unit down, the non-intrusive inspection may contribute to:

A) Significant risk reduction

B) Increased uptime of the unit
C) Significant cost savings based on inspection
D) None of the above is correct

Ans: B, Par 13.5  RM w/Insp activities  Managing Inspection Costs with RBI

292. The API 580 user should recognize that while there is a potential for the reduction of
inspection costs through the utilization of RBI, the focus should remain on:

A) Inspection cost optimization only

B) Increased equipment integrity only
C) Decreased equipment risk associated with inspection costs
D) Both Increased equipment integrity and inspection cost optimization

Ans: D, Par 13.5  RM w/Insp activities  Managing Inspection Costs with RBI

293. A documented mitigation action plan should be developed for any equipment item
requiring repair or replacement and should describe all of these EXCEPT:

A) Appropriate QA/QC controls

B) Date plan should be completed
C) Extent of repair (or replacement)
D) All viable repair method options considered

Ans: D, Par 13.6  Assessing Insp results & Determining corrective actions  Action Plan
Should describe only those recommendations and repair methods employed or performed

294. Non-inspection risk mitigation activities fall into all of these categories EXCEPT:

A) Enhance the survivability of the facility and people to the consequence

B) Mitigate the primary source of consequence
C) Reduce the magnitude of consequence
D) Reduce the COF

Ans: D, Par 14.1  Other Risk Mitigation Activities  General  Reduce the POF

295. When equipment deterioration has reached a point that the risk of failure cannot be
managed to an acceptable level, what is often the only way to mitigate the risk?

A) Replacement or repair of equipment

B) Reduce magnitude of COF
C) Mitigate primary COF
D) Decommissioning
Ans: A, Par 14.2  Equipment Replacement & Repair  Common Sense Really

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296. Which of these may be performed to determine if the equipment may continue to be
safely operated when serious flaws are identified in the equipment?

A) A sensitivity analysis considering details of the damage mechanism

B) A Fitness-for-Service assessment per API 579-1/ASME FFS-1
C) A normal RBI assessment considering the POF and COF
D) None of these

Ans: B, Par 14.3  Evaluating Flaws for Fitness-For-Service  API 579-1/ASME FFS-1

297. Examples where Modification and redesign of equipment, utilizing a rigorous MOC
process, can provide mitigation of POF include all of these except:

A) Change metallurgy, add protective linings and coatings, or increased corrosion allowance
B) Removal of Deadlegs, perform physical changes to help to control/minimize deterioration
C) Injection point design changes and resizing of the relief device
D) Insulation system elimination

Ans: D, Par 14.4  Equip Modification, Redesign & Rerating Insulation improvements

298. Which of these is usually required to provide significant risk reduction regarding
isolation valves?

A) Proper location at a safe distance from the equipment

B) Proper location anywhere in the unit
C) Remote Operation
D) None of these

Ans: C, Par 14.5  Emergency Isolation Location & Operation of isolation valves

299. Key process parameters for IOWs should be identified and implemented, upper and
lower limits established, as needed, and deviations from these limits should be:

A) Brought to the attention of Operations Management

B) Brought to the attention of Inspection/Engineering personnel
C) Brought to the attention of the entire RBI responsible for an assessment
D) Acted on immediately to assure that key IOW process limits are never exceeded

Ans: B, Par 14.8  Emergency Isolation Location & Operation of isolation valves

300. This other mitigation method can reduce fire damage and minimize or prevent
escalation and greatly reduce the probability that a vessel exposed to fire will BLEVE:

A) Water Curtain
B) Water Spray/Deluge System
C) Blast-resistant Fireproofing Construction
D) None of these
Ans: B, Par 14.10  Emergency Isolation WATER SPRAY/DELUGE SYSTEM

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301. Regarding reassessments, it is important to maintain and update an RBI program to

ensure that:

A) All past and present inspection, process, and maintenance information is included
B) The most recent inspection, process, and maintenance information is included
C) All inspection, process, and maintenance assumptions are included
D) None of these

Ans: B, Par 15.1  RBI Reassessments Most recent information is vital

302. RBI is a dynamic tool that can:

A) Provide past, present and future risk evaluations

B) Provide current and projected future risk evaluations
C) Mitigation for all equipment using inspection in the facility
D) None of these is correct

Ans: B, Par 15.1  4 items (RBI Reassessments Triggered)  Risk assess premise change

303. Which of these is NOT a key factor that can trigger an RBI reassessment?

A) Process and Hardware Changes

B) The Effect of Mitigation Strategies
C) RBI Program Data Validation Results
D) Damage Mechanisms and Inspection Activities

Ans: C, Par 15.2  4 items (RBI Reassessments Triggered)  Risk assess premise change

304. It is important that the facility have which of the following to identify when a
reassessment is necessary?

A) A Good Risk Analyst

B) An effective MOC process
C) Optimized Inspection Program
D) None of these

Answer: B, Par 15.2.1  WHY … RBI Reassessments

305. Which statement is false regarding main function & responsibility of a Team Leader?

A) He should integrate inputs, outputs, organizational structure, & communications of his team
B) He assures a study is conducted properly & prepares an assessment report & distributes it
C) He forms the team & verifies members have necessary skills, experience and knowledge
D) He follows up to assure that an appropriate risk analysis has been performed

Ans: D, Par 16.2.2  Team Leader  Main Function & Responsibilities  Follows up to
assure that appropriate risk mitigation actions have been implemented

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306. Who is responsible for the formation of the team and verifying that the team members
have the necessary skills, experience and knowledge?

A) Equipment Inspector or Inspection Specialist

B) Process Specialist
C) Risk Analyst
D) Team Leader

Ans: D, Par 16.2.2  Team Leader  Main Function & Responsibilities

307. Which statement is false regarding the usual responsibilities of Equipment Inspector
or Inspection Specialist?

A) He alone implements the recommended inspection plan derived from the RBI assessment
B) He assesses effectiveness of past inspections with aid from Materials & Corrosion Specialist
C) He alone is responsible to gather data on the condition and history of equipment in the Study
D) He alone provides predictions of current equipment condition if condition data is unavailable

Ans: D, Par 16.2.3  Equip Inspector/Insp Specialist  Responsibilities He + Corr SP

308. Who is generally responsible for gathering data on the condition and history of
equipment in the study?

A) Equipment Inspector or Inspection Specialist B) Process Specialist

C) Risk Analyst D) Team Leader

Ans: A, Par 16.2.3  Equip Inspector/Insp Specialist  Responsibilities He + Corr SP

309. Who is usually responsible for implementing the recommended inspection plan
derived from the RBI assessment?

A) Equipment Inspector or Inspection Specialist B) Process Specialist

C) Risk Analyst D) Team Leader

Ans: A, Par 16.2.3  Equip Inspector/Insp Specialist  Responsibilities He + Corr SP

310. Which statement is false regarding the usual responsibilities of Operations &
Maintenance Personnel?

A) They verify facility/equipment is being operated within process operating window parameters
B) They provide data on process deviations & past unit run operating trends (incl. data on IOWs)
C) They implement recommendations pertaining to process or equip modifications & monitoring
D) They provide general data regarding all of the equipment repairs/replacements/modifications

Ans: D, Par 16.2.6  Ops & Maint Personnel  ResponsibilitiesThey verify data from
Inspection regarding equipment repair/replacement/mods is correct  No unauthorized or
undocumented work  BAD MAINT GROUPS REPAIR EQUIP with NO records or data

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311. Who is responsible for verifying that equipment repairs/replacements/additions have

been included in the equipment condition data supplied by the equipment inspector?

A) Operations & Maintenance personnel B) Process Specialist

C) Risk Analyst D) Team Leader

Ans: A, Par 16.2.6  Ops & Maint Personnel  ResponsibilitiesThey verify data from
Inspection regarding equipment repair/replacement/mods is correct  No unauthorized or
undocumented work  BAD MAINT GROUPS REPAIR EQUIP with NO records or data

312. Who is responsible for assembling all of the data and carrying out the RBI analysis?

A) Equipment Inspector or Insp Specialist

B) The Materials and Corrosion specialist
C) The RBI Team Leader
D) The Risk Analyst

Ans: D, Par 16.2.8  Risk Analyst  Responsibilities None of these … Risk Analyst

313. Which statement is false regarding RBI documentation and recordkeeping?

A) It is important that sufficient information is fully captured to document RBI assessments

B) RBI methodology used (type of assessment performed) should be documented clearly
C) A record of the team members (and their skill sets) involved should be documented
D) Persons responsible for implementation of any mitigation shall be documented

Ans: D, Sect 17.1 General Knowledge  Should be documented  No SHALLs in 580

314. Important RBI Assessment documentation to be captured includes all these EXCEPT:

A) Time frame over which the assessment is applicable

B) Inputs and sources used to determine risk & assumptions made during the assessment
C) Risk assessment results (excluding information on probability and consequence);
D) Follow-up mitigation strategy, if applicable, to manage risk & mitigated risk levels

Ans: C, Section 17.1 General Knowledge  Including info on POF & COF

315. Regarding RBI Methodology documentation, which statement below is FALSE?

A) Basis for both the probability and consequences of failure should be documented
B) Any specific software program used to perform the assessment should be documented
C) Methodology for RBI analysis should be documented to show the type of assessment done
D) Documentation should be adequate so that the basis & logic for the decision making process
does not have to be replicated at a later time.

Ans: D, Section 17.2 RBI Methodology  Must be documented to be REPEATABLE

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API 580 Questionnaires Bank … (250+ Q&A)

312. Which statement is false regarding RBI Personnel & documentation/recordkeeping?

A) Assessment of risk depends on knowledge/exp/judgment of any team members doing analysis

B) This practice is helpful in understanding the basis for risk assessment if analysis is repeated
C) This practice is helpful in determining who made erroneous assumptions & can be blamed
D) Record of team members involved should be captured, as well as their RBI skill sets/exp

Ans: C, Section 17.3 RBI Personnel  Documentation & Recordkeeping

313. Regarding RBI Assessment documentation & recordkeeping, which statement below is
TRUE regarding the TIME FRAME?

A) The level of risk is usually a function of time, so the time frame over which the RBI analysis
is applicable should be defined and captured in the final documentation
B) The level of risk is a function of time as a result of the time dependence of a failure mode
C) The level of risk is a function of time as a result of potential for operation error in equipment
D) None of these are correct

Ans: A, Section 17.4 Time Frame  Documentation & Recordkeeping

314. The probability of a fire = (Probability of Failure) X (Probability of ignition). The

Analysis showed 0.0001 (POF) per year X 0.01 (ignition) = 0.000001 or 1 X 10-6 per year as
the probability of a fire. If this is value is correct, then what is the probability of no fire?

A) 0.9999 per year B) 0.99999 per year

C) 0.999999 per year D) None of these are correct

Ans: C, Sect 12 Fig. 5 Example & Note! … Probability of all consequence Must equal 1.0 !!!
Solution = 0.000001 (Probability of fire) + value “x” = (Probability of no fire)
1.0 minus 0.000001 equals 0.999999  6 numbers to left of “decimal” … So “C” is correct

Exam Tips:
Control “F” your 580 … RBI is … RBI can … “Example” …
Important = Key = Vital = Essential …
So many good test Qs included these words

MUST KNOW
Know all figures & tables & practice the calcs using the calculator …
Section 12.2 Example

Saudi Aramco: Company General Use 64