1. What is the definition of nursing?

A) The use of drugs and other medical

treatments to cure diseases B) The act of caring for patients who are sick
or injured C) The management of hospital staff and resources D) The
development of new medical technologies
2. What is the role of a nurse in healthcare? A) To diagnose and treat
patients B) To administer medication and perform medical procedures
C) To provide emotional and physical care to patients D) To manage the
finances of the healthcare organization
3. Which of the following is not a core value of nursing? A) Compassion B)
Integrity C) Professionalism D) Profitability
4. What is the purpose of the nursing process? A) To diagnose diseases
and illnesses B) To develop treatment plans for patients C) To assess,
diagnose, plan, implement, and evaluate patient care D) To manage the
hospital's resources and finances
5. What is the purpose of nursing theory? A) To provide a framework for
understanding the nursing profession B) To develop new medical
technologies C) To diagnose and treat patients D) To manage hospital
staff and resources
6. What is the difference between a licensed practical nurse (LPN) and a
registered nurse (RN)? A) An LPN has more education than an RN B) An
RN has more education than an LPN C) An LPN can perform more
medical procedures than an RN D) An RN can perform more medical
procedures than an LPN
7. What is evidence-based practice in nursing? A) The use of anecdotal
evidence to make medical decisions B) The use of research-based
evidence to make medical decisions C) The use of intuition to make
medical decisions D) The use of trial and error to make medical
decisions
8. What is the definition of health according to the World Health
Organization (WHO)? A) The absence of disease or infirmity B) The
ability to perform daily activities without assistance C) The ability to pay
for healthcare services D) The ability to maintain good physical fitness
9. What is the difference between acute care and long-term care? A) Acute
care is for short-term illnesses, while long-term care is for chronic
illnesses B) Acute care is for chronic illnesses, while long-term care is for
short-term illnesses C) Acute care is provided in a hospital, while long-
term care is provided in a nursing home D) Acute care is provided in a
nursing home, while long-term care is provided in a hospital
10. What is the purpose of the American Nurses Association (ANA)? A) To
provide education and support to nurses B) To regulate the nursing
profession C) To provide medical treatment to patients D) To develop
new medical technologies
11. What is the nursing code of ethics? A) A set of moral principles that
guides the nursing profession B) A set of medical procedures that nurses
must follow C) A set of guidelines for managing hospital staff and
resources D) A set of guidelines for developing new medical
technologies
12. What is the definition of patient-centered care? A) The focus on treating
the patient's physical symptoms only B) The focus on treating the
patient's emotional and physical needs C) The focus on treating the
patient's family members D) The focus on treating the hospital's
financial needs
13. What is the difference between a nurse practitioner and a physician
assistant? A) A nurse practitioner has more education than a physician
assistant B) A physician assistant has more education than a nurse
practitioner C) A nurse practitioner can prescribe medication, while a
physician assistant cannot D) A physician assistant can
14. Who is considered the founder of modern nursing? A) Florence
Nightingale B) Clara Barton C) Mary Eliza Mahoney D) Lillian Wald
15. During what war did nursing become a recognized profession in the
United States? A) The Revolutionary War B) The Civil War C) World War I
D) World War II
16. What was the name of the first nursing school in the United States,
founded in 1873? A) Bellevue Hospital School of Nursing B) Johns
Hopkins School of Nursing C) Yale School of Nursing D) Massachusetts
General Hospital School of Nursing
17. What was the name of the first African American woman to graduate
from a nursing school in the United States? A) Clara Barton B) Mary Eliza
Mahoney C) Lillian Wald D) Dorothea Dix
18. What is the definition of nursing informatics? A) The use of computers
and information technology to manage patient care B) The use of
medical devices to monitor patients' vital signs C) The study of the
history and philosophy of nursing D) The development of new medical
technologies for patient care
19. What is the purpose of the Institute of Medicine (IOM) report on the
Future of Nursing? A) To identify current nursing trends and issues B) To
regulate the nursing profession C) To develop new medical technologies
for patient care D) To provide education and support to nurses
20. What is the definition of the nursing shortage? A) The lack of nursing
programs in the United States B) The lack of funding for nursing
research C) The lack of qualified nurses to fill open positions D) The lack
of interest in the nursing profession
21. What is the purpose of the National Council of State Boards of Nursing
(NCSBN)? A) To develop new medical technologies for patient care B) To
regulate the nursing profession C) To provide education and support to
nurses D) To manage hospital staff and resources
22. What is the definition of evidence-based practice in nursing? A) The use
of anecdotal evidence to make medical decisions B) The use of research-
based evidence to make medical decisions C) The use of intuition to
make medical decisions D) The use of trial and error to make medical
decisions
23. What is the definition of telehealth? A) The use of technology to provide
healthcare services remotely B) The use of medical devices to monitor
patients' vital signs C) The study of the history and philosophy of
nursing D) The development of new medical technologies for patient
care.

24. What is the definition of health according to the World Health

Organization (WHO)? A) The absence of disease or infirmity B) The state
of complete physical, mental, and social well-being C) The ability to
perform daily activities without assistance D) The presence of positive
health behaviors
25. Which of the following is NOT one of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs? A)
Safety and security B) Self-actualization C) Social belonging D)
Intellectual stimulation
26. Which of the following is an example of a physiological need? A) Love
and belonging B) Self-esteem C) Food and water D) Self-actualization
27. What is the definition of illness? A) The presence of a disease or
condition B) The inability to perform daily activities without assistance C)
The presence of negative health behaviors D) The absence of positive
health behaviors
28. Which of the following is an example of a psychological need? A)
Oxygen and circulation B) Safety and security C) Love and belonging D)
Food and water
29. What is the definition of wellness? A) The absence of disease or infirmity
B) The state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being C) The
ability to perform daily activities without assistance D) The presence of
positive health behaviors
30. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic human needs identified
by Virginia Henderson? A) Breathing B) Sleep C) Education D)
Elimination
31. Which of the following is an example of a safety and security need? A)
Love and belonging B) Self-esteem C) Shelter and protection D) Self-
actualization
32. Which of the following is an example of a love and belonging need? A)
Food and water B) Oxygen and circulation C) Emotional intimacy and
support D) Intellectual stimulation
33. Which of the following is an example of a self-esteem need? A) Sleep B)
Recognition and respect from others C) Shelter and protection D)
Intellectual stimulation
34. What is the definition of homeostasis? A) The body's ability to maintain
a stable internal environment B) The body's ability to fight off infection
C) The body's ability to regenerate damaged tissue D) The body's ability
to produce energy
35. What is the definition of stress? A) A state of physical, emotional, and
mental tension B) The absence of positive health behaviors C) The
presence of a disease or condition D) The inability to perform daily
activities without assistance
36. Which of the following is an example of a coping mechanism? A) Taking
medication for pain relief B) Engaging in regular physical exercise C)
Avoiding stressful situations D) Seeking social support from friends and
family
37. What is the definition of adaptation? A) The ability to change one's
behavior or thinking to fit new circumstances B) The ability to fight off
infection C) The body's ability to maintain a stable internal environment
D) The body's ability to produce energy
38. Which of the following is an example of a cognitive need? A) Food and
water B) Oxygen and circulation C) Intellectual stimulation D) Shelter
and protection
39. Which of the following is an example of a spiritual need? A) Love and
belonging B) Self-esteem C) Meaning and purpose in life D) Intellectual
stimulation
40. What is the definition of pain? A) An unpleasant sensory and emotional
experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage B) The
inability to perform daily activities without assistance C) The presence of

41.
42. What is a polyvalent nurse? A) A nurse who works in a hospital
emergency room B) A nurse who specializes in wound care C) A nurse
who has expertise in multiple areas of nursing D) A nurse who provides
care for critically ill patients
43. Which of the following is a benefit of having polyvalent nurses on staff?
A) Increased efficiency in providing patient care B) Higher patient
satisfaction rates C) Reduced healthcare costs D) All of the above
44. What skills and knowledge does a polyvalent nurse typically possess? A)
Basic medical knowledge and skills B) Specialized knowledge and skills
in multiple areas of nursing C) Advanced practice nursing skills D) None
of the above
45. How does the role of a polyvalent nurse differ from that of a specialized
nurse? A) Polyvalent nurses are more versatile and adaptable B)
Specialized nurses have more in-depth knowledge and skills in a specific
area C) Both roles are equally important and necessary in healthcare D)
None of the above
46. Which of the following is an example of a task that a polyvalent nurse
might perform? A) Administering chemotherapy drugs B) Inserting a
urinary catheter C) Assisting with a surgical procedure D) All of the
above
47. How can a nurse become a polyvalent nurse? A) By completing a
specialized nursing program B) By gaining experience in multiple areas
of nursing through on-the-job training C) By earning advanced degrees
and certifications D) None of the above
48. What is the importance of having polyvalent nurses in healthcare? A)
They can provide care to patients with a variety of healthcare needs B)
They can improve patient outcomes by providing comprehensive care C)
They can fill gaps in nursing staffing needs D) All of the above
49. How does the role of a polyvalent nurse differ from that of a nurse
generalist? A) Polyvalent nurses have more specialized knowledge and
skills B) Nurse generalists have a broader knowledge base but less
specialized skills C) Both roles are the same D) None of the above
50. In which healthcare settings are polyvalent nurses commonly employed?
A) Hospitals B) Clinics C) Long-term care facilities D) All of the above
51. What is the future outlook for polyvalent nursing? A) The demand for
polyvalent nurses is expected to decrease B) The demand for polyvalent
nurses is expected to increase C) The demand for polyvalent nurses is
expected to remain the same D) None of the above
52. Which of the following is not a type of healthcare institution? a) Hospital b) Pharmacy c)
Nursing home d) Law firm
53. What is the primary function of a hospital? a) To provide long-term care for elderly
patients b) To provide outpatient services c) To provide emergency care and inpatient
services d) To provide mental health services
54. Which of the following healthcare institutions is primarily focused on providing
preventive care? a) Hospital b) Urgent care center c) Community health center d)
Rehabilitation center
55. Which of the following healthcare institutions is typically associated with specialized
care for cancer patients? a) Hospice care center b) Home health agency c) Oncology
clinic d) Rehabilitative care center
56. Which of the following is not a type of nursing home? a) Skilled nursing facility b)
Memory care facility c) Assisted living facility d) Urgent care center
57. Which of the following healthcare institutions is typically associated with treating
patients with substance abuse disorders? a) Urgent care center b) Rehabilitation center c)
Hospice care center d) Home health agency
58. Which of the following healthcare institutions is focused on providing care for women
during pregnancy and childbirth? a) Pediatric clinic b) Gynecology clinic c) Obstetrics
clinic d) Oncology clinic
59. Which of the following healthcare institutions is focused on providing care for children?
a) Pediatric clinic b) Oncology clinic c) Cardiology clinic d) Geriatric clinic
60. Which of the following healthcare institutions is focused on providing care for seniors? a)
Geriatric clinic b) Pediatric clinic c) Cardiology clinic d) Oncology clinic
61. Which of the following healthcare institutions is focused on providing mental health
services? a) Hospice care center b) Home health agency c) Psychiatric hospital d) Urgent
care center
62. Which of the following healthcare institutions is focused on providing care for patients
with heart conditions? a) Cardiology clinic b) Neurology clinic c) Gynecology clinic d)
Oncology clinic
63. Which of the following healthcare institutions is focused on providing care for patients
with neurological conditions? a) Neurology clinic b) Cardiology clinic c) Gynecology
clinic d) Oncology clinic
64. Which of the following healthcare institutions is focused on providing care for patients
with respiratory conditions? a) Pulmonary clinic b) Cardiology clinic c) Gynecology
clinic d) Oncology clinic
65. Which of the following healthcare institutions is focused on providing care for patients
with kidney conditions? a) Nephrology clinic b) Cardiology clinic c) Gynecology clinic
d) Oncology clinic
66. Which of the following is not one of the core values of nursing ethics? a) Compassion b)
Autonomy c) Honesty d) Competition
67. Which of the following ethical principles requires nurses to treat patients with respect and
dignity? a) Non-maleficence b) Beneficence c) Autonomy d) Respect for persons
68. Which of the following ethical principles requires nurses to avoid causing harm to their
patients? a) Non-maleficence b) Beneficence c) Autonomy d) Justice
69. Which of the following ethical principles requires nurses to act in the best interests of
their patients? a) Non-maleficence b) Beneficence c) Autonomy d) Justice
70. Which of the following ethical principles requires nurses to respect the rights of patients
to make their own decisions about their healthcare? a) Non-maleficence b) Beneficence
c) Autonomy d) Justice
71. Which of the following legal concepts refers to a nurse's obligation to provide care to a
patient? a) Duty b) Negligence c) Malpractice d) Intentional tort
72. Which of the following legal concepts refers to the failure of a nurse to provide care to a
patient? a) Duty b) Negligence c) Malpractice d) Intentional tort
73. Which of the following legal concepts refers to a nurse's failure to meet the standard of
care expected of them? a) Duty b) Negligence c) Malpractice d) Intentional tort
74. Which of the following legal concepts refers to a nurse's intentional act that causes harm
to a patient? a) Duty b) Negligence c) Malpractice d) Intentional tort
75. Which of the following legal concepts refers to a nurse's failure to obtain informed
consent from a patient? a) Duty b) Negligence c) Malpractice d) Battery
76. Which of the following legal concepts refers to a nurse's violation of a patient's privacy?
a) Duty b) Negligence c) Malpractice d) Invasion of privacy
77. Which of the following legal concepts refers to a nurse's disclosure of confidential patient
information? a) Duty b) Negligence c) Malpractice d) Breach of confidentiality
78. Which of the following legal concepts refers to a nurse's misuse of a patient's property? a)
Duty b) Negligence c) Malpractice d) Conversion
79. Which of the following legal concepts refers to a nurse's inappropriate conduct towards a
patient, such as sexual harassment? a) Duty b) Negligence c) Malpractice d) Harassment
80. Which of the following legal concepts refers to a nurse's intentional act that causes
emotional distress to a patient? a) Duty b) Negligence c) Malpractice d) Intentional
infliction of emotional distress
81. Which of the following is not a common tool used by nurses to assess a patient's vital
signs? a) Stethoscope b) Blood pressure cuff c) Thermometer d) Pulse oximeter e)
Electrocardiogram machine
82. Which of the following is a tool used by nurses to administer medications and fluids
intravenously? a) Syringe b) Intravenous (IV) catheter c) Intramuscular (IM) injection
needle d) Subcutaneous (SC) injection needle
83. Which of the following is a tool used by nurses to measure a patient's oxygen saturation
levels? a) Stethoscope b) Blood pressure cuff c) Thermometer d) Pulse oximeter
84. Which of the following is a tool used by nurses to perform a physical examination of a
patient's abdomen? a) Otoscope b) Ophthalmoscope c) Reflex hammer d) Goniometer e)
Stethoscope
85. Which of the following is a tool used by nurses to monitor a patient's electrocardiogram
(ECG) readings? a) Stethoscope b) Blood pressure cuff c) Thermometer d) Pulse
oximeter e) Electrocardiogram machine
86. Which of the following is a tool used by nurses to measure a patient's urine output? a)
Stethoscope b) Blood pressure cuff c) Thermometer d) Foley catheter e) Urine dipstick
87. Which of the following is a tool used by nurses to assist with wound care? a)
Sphygmomanometer b) Thermometer c) Gauze and tape d) Pulse oximeter e) Reflex
hammer
88. Which of the following is a tool used by nurses to help with mobility and transferring
patients? a) Stethoscope b) Blood pressure cuff c) Wheelchair d) Pulse oximeter e)
Intravenous (IV) catheter
89. Which of the following is a tool used by nurses to assess a patient's mental status and
cognitive function? a) Stethoscope b) Blood pressure cuff c) Reflex hammer d) Mini-
Mental State Examination (MMSE) e) Electrocardiogram machine
90. Which of the following is a tool used by nurses to measure a patient's weight? a)
Stethoscope b) Blood pressure cuff c) Thermometer d) Scale

91. What is the most important reason for cleaning hospital equipment regularly? a) To
maintain its appearance b) To prevent the spread of infection c) To improve its
performance d) To increase its lifespan
92. Which of the following cleaning agents should NOT be used on electronic equipment? a)
Water b) Alcohol c) Ammonia d) Chlorine
93. How often should hospital mattresses be replaced? a) Every 2 years b) Every 5 years c)
Every 10 years d) Every 15 years
94. When making a hospital bed, where should the top sheet be placed? a) Under the mattress
b) Over the blanket c) Over the mattress d) Under the blanket
95. Which of the following bed positions is most appropriate for a patient with respiratory
distress? a) Fowler's position b) Supine position c) Prone position d) Trendelenburg
position
96. What is the purpose of using a drawsheet on a hospital bed? a) To keep the patient warm
b) To protect the mattress from soiling c) To elevate the patient's head d) To provide
extra cushioning for the patient
97. Which of the following is NOT a recommended guideline for handling hospital linens? a)
Wear gloves when handling soiled linens b) Place soiled linens in a designated dirty linen
bag c) Shake linens to remove excess dirt before washing d) Use a bleach solution when
washing contaminated linens
98. Which of the following is NOT a recommended guideline for using hospital equipment?
a) Follow the manufacturer's instructions b) Inspect equipment for damage before use c)
Use equipment only for its intended purpose d) Modify equipment as needed to fit the
patient's needs
99. What is the purpose of a bed cradle? a) To keep the patient's sheets from touching their
feet b) To elevate the patient's head and shoulders c) To provide support for the patient's
back d) To prevent the patient from falling out of bed
100. Which of the following bed positions is most appropriate for a patient with a
feeding tube? a) Fowler's position b) Supine position c) Prone position d) Trendelenburg
position
101. Which of the following is a recommended guideline for cleaning hospital
equipment? a) Use abrasive cleaners to remove stubborn stains b) Disassemble
equipment before cleaning c) Clean equipment immediately after use d) Use a high-
pressure hose to rinse equipment
102. Which of the following bed positions is most appropriate for a patient with
hypotension? a) Fowler's position b) Supine position c) Prone position d) Trendelenburg
position
103. What is the purpose of using a waterproof pad on a hospital bed? a) To provide
extra cushioning for the patient b) To protect the mattress from soiling c) To elevate the
patient's head d) To prevent the patient from sliding down in bed
104. Which of the following bed positions is most appropriate for a patient with a
lower extremity amputation? a) Fowler's position b) Supine position c) Prone position d)
Trendelenburg position
105. What is the purpose of using a bed rail on a hospital bed? a) To keep the patient's
sheets from touching their feet b) To elevate the patient's head and shoulders c) To
provide support for the patient's back
106. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of asphyxia? a) Suffocation b)
Choking c) Carbon monoxide poisoning d) Dehydration
107. Which of the following types of hemorrhage is characterized by bright red,
spurting blood? a) Arterial hemorrhage b) Venous hemorrhage c) Capillary hemorrhage
d) Petechial hemorrhage
108. What is the first step in treating a victim of shock? a) Elevate the legs b)
Administer oxygen c) Stop the bleeding d) Call for medical assistance
109. Which of the following types of fractures involves a break in the bone that does
not penetrate the skin? a) Compound fracture b) Greenstick fracture c) Comminuted
fracture d) Simple fracture
110. What is the primary cause of carbon monoxide poisoning? a) Inhalation of toxic
fumes b) Ingestion of contaminated food or water c) Direct contact with a poisonous
substance d) Exposure to extreme heat or cold
111. Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of a snake bite? a) Pain at the
site of the bite b) Swelling and discoloration c) Nausea and vomiting d) Flushed skin and
increased heart rate
112. Which of the following types of shock is caused by a severe allergic reaction? a)
Hypovolemic shock b) Cardiogenic shock c) Neurogenic shock d) Anaphylactic shock
113. What is the first step in treating a victim of severe bleeding? a) Apply direct
pressure to the wound b) Elevate the affected limb c) Apply a tourniquet above the
wound d) Administer oxygen
114. Which of the following types of fractures involves a bone that has broken into
multiple pieces? a) Compound fracture b) Greenstick fracture c) Comminuted fracture d)
Simple fracture
115. Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of heat stroke? a) Confusion
and disorientation b) Rapid pulse and breathing c) Pale, cool skin d) Seizures and loss of
consciousness
116. What is the first step in treating a victim of poisoning? a) Administer an antidote
b) Call for medical assistance c) Induce vomiting d) Remove the victim from the source
of the poison
117. Which of the following types of shock is caused by a loss of blood or other fluids?
a) Hypovolemic shock b) Cardiogenic shock c) Neurogenic shock d) Anaphylactic shock
118. Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of a spider bite? a) Pain at
the site of the bite b) Redness and swelling c) Nausea and vomiting d) Muscle cramps
and spasms
119. What is the first step in treating a victim of a broken bone? a) Immobilize the
affected limb b) Elevate the affected limb c) Apply a tourniquet above the fracture d)
Administer oxygen
120. Which of the following types of shock is caused by a failure of the heart to pump
blood effectively? a) Hypovolemic shock b) Cardiogenic shock c) Neurogenic shock d)
Anaphylactic shock

121. Who is the founder of the Hierarchy of Needs theory? a) Abraham Maslow b)
B.F. Skinner c) Sigmund Freud d) Carl Rogers
122. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, which need must be satisfied first? a)
Esteem Needs b) Safety Needs c) Self-Actualization Needs d) Physiological Needs
123. Which of the following is an example of a physiological need? a) Love and
Belongingness b) Self-Actualization c) Food and Water d) Esteem
124. Which of the following is not a part of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs? a) Self-
Actualization Needs b) Esteem Needs c) Social Needs d) Safety Needs
125. According to Maslow, which need is related to the desire for personal growth? a)
Esteem Needs b) Self-Actualization Needs c) Social Needs d) Safety Needs
126. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs theory suggests that needs are satisfied in what
order? a) Random order b) Order of importance c) Order of preference d) Order of ease
127. Which of the following is not a part of the safety needs? a) Financial Security b)
Physical Safety c) Emotional Safety d) Love and Belongingness
128. Which of the following is not a part of the esteem needs? a) Respect from others
b) Self-Respect c) Confidence d) Physical Safety
129. Which of the following is an example of a social need? a) Self-Actualization b)
Financial Security c) Love and Belongingness d) Esteem
130. Which need is the highest level in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs? a) Esteem
Needs b) Safety Needs c) Self-Actualization Needs d) Physiological Needs
131. Which of the following is an example of self-actualization? a) The desire for food
and water b) The desire for love and belongingness c) The desire to achieve one's full
potential d) The desire for financial security
132. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs suggests that self-actualization needs can only be
met when all other needs are met. True or False? a) True b) False
133. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a self-actualized person? a) High
levels of creativity b) Strong sense of purpose c) Low levels of confidence d) Ability to
appreciate life's experiences
134. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs theory is based on empirical research. True or
False? a) True b) False
135. Which of the following is an example of esteem needs? a) The need for financial
security b) The need for love and belongingness c) The need for self-respect d) The need
for safety
136. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs theory has been criticized for being too
individualistic. True or False? a) True b) False
137. According to Maslow, which need is related to the desire for love, affection, and
belongingness? a) Esteem Needs b) Self-Actualization Needs c) Social Needs d) Safety
Needs
138. Which of the following is not a part of the physiological needs? a) Food and
Water b) Sleep c) Shelter d) Emotional Safety

142. Which of the following is NOT one of Erick Erickson's stages of psychosocial
development? a. Trust vs. Mistrust b. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt c. Intimacy vs.
Isolation d. Identity vs. Inferiority
143. Erickson believed that development is influenced by both innate factors and: a.
Environmental factors b. Social factors c. Genetic factors d. Economic factors
144. According to Erickson, which stage of development occurs during infancy? a.
Trust vs. Mistrust b. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt c. Initiative vs. Guilt d. Industry vs.
Inferiority
145. Which stage of Erickson's theory occurs during adolescence? a. Trust vs. Mistrust
b. Identity vs. Role Confusion c. Initiative vs. Guilt d. Generativity vs. Stagnation
146. Which of the following is NOT a key task or challenge during the stage of
Identity vs. Role Confusion? a. Exploring different roles and identities b. Establishing a
sense of personal identity c. Developing strong emotional bonds with peers d. Struggling
with conflicting values and beliefs
147. Erickson's theory emphasizes the importance of: a. Genetics in shaping
personality b. Social interactions in shaping personality c. Biological factors in shaping
personality d. Individual choice in shaping personality
148. According to Erickson, which stage of development occurs during early
childhood? a. Trust vs. Mistrust b. Initiative vs. Guilt c. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
d. Integrity vs. Despair
149. During which stage of Erickson's theory do individuals typically form close,
intimate relationships with others? a. Trust vs. Mistrust b. Identity vs. Role Confusion c.
Intimacy vs. Isolation d. Generativity vs. Stagnation
150. Which of the following is NOT a key task or challenge during the stage of
Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt? a. Developing a sense of independence b. Learning to
control bodily functions c. Exploring the environment and testing limits d. Establishing
emotional bonds with caregivers
151. Which stage of Erickson's theory is characterized by the task of developing a
sense of purpose and contributing to society? a. Trust vs. Mistrust b. Initiative vs. Guilt c.
Industry vs. Inferiority d. Generativity vs. Stagnation
152. According to Erickson, which stage of development occurs during young
adulthood? a. Identity vs. Role Confusion b. Intimacy vs. Isolation c. Industry vs.
Inferiority d. Trust vs. Mistrust
153. During which stage of Erickson's theory do individuals typically experience a
mid-life crisis? a. Identity vs. Role Confusion b. Intimacy vs. Isolation c. Generativity vs.
Stagnation d. Trust vs. Mistrust
154. Which of the following is NOT a key task or challenge during the stage of
Initiative vs. Guilt? a. Learning to take initiative and assert oneself b. Developing a sense
of purpose and direction c. Learning to follow rules and respect authority d. Exploring the
environment and testing limits
155. According to Erickson, which stage of development occurs during late adulthood?
a. Trust vs. Mistrust b. Industry vs. Inferiority c. Integrity vs. Despair d. Autonomy vs.
Shame and Doubt