Since 1949

23 SET
PYQ
BILINGUAL (ENGLISH + HINDI)


 Common Paper (Child Development and Pedagogy,

Language (Hindi & English) Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning
Ability and G.K. & Awareness)
 Quantitative Aptitude & Reasoning Ability Explanation
 PGT, TGT, PRT
65
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Acknowledgement

Dedicated to Dear Papa Ji

(K.C. Sharma)
whose sweet and loving memories
Dwell in my heart and soul.

Motivation Support

Ansh, Kavya

# My Achievers

Teaching Exams

Nisha Sharma
Acknowledgement

RBD Publication
Lots of Love for My Cute Daughter - Pallavi

Acknowledgement

Dedication
To my Parents (Mr. Mahender Singh and Mrs. Saroj Devi), who have endless faith in me and always
supported me to do the Best.
and
To my Wonderful readers.
Gratitude
Pardeep Sir, Nisha Sharma Ma'am, Lalit Pabra, RBD Publication, My family members & My Friends
who have taught me something good and supported me in some way or the other and special one who are reading the
book at present.
With Best Wishes
Sonu MaheriaT
‘HTET 23 SETS PYQ ’
HTET

|
1. HTET Model Paper-1 ................................................................................................................. 1

2. HTET Model Paper-2 ............................................................................................................... 11

3. HTET Model Paper-3 ............................................................................................................... 22

4. HTET Model Paper-4 ............................................................................................................... 33

5. HTET Model Paper-5 ............................................................................................................... 43

6. HTET Model Paper-6 ............................................................................................................... 53

7. HTET Model Paper-7 ............................................................................................................... 64

8. HTET Model Paper-8 ............................................................................................................... 75

9. HTET Model Paper-9 ............................................................................................................... 85

10. HTET Model Paper-10 ............................................................................................................. 96

11. HTET Model Paper-11 ........................................................................................................... 107

12. HTET Model Paper-12 ............................................................................................................118

13. HTET Model Paper-13 ........................................................................................................... 129

14. HTET Model Paper-14 ........................................................................................................... 140

15. HTET Model Paper-15 ........................................................................................................... 151

HTET PGT Paper 2020 .......................................................................................................... 161

HTET PGT Paper 2021 .......................................................................................................... 169

HTET TGT Paper 2021 .......................................................................................................... 177

HTET PGT Paper 2022 .......................................................................................................... 185

HTET TGT Paper 2022 .......................................................................................................... 194

HTET PRT Paper 2022 ........................................................................................................... 202

HTET TGT Paper 2023 .......................................................................................................... 209

HTET PGT Paper 2023 ................................................................................................... 217-224

Since 1949

HTET Model Test Papers 1

Model Paper
I (PART-I)

(CHILD DEVELOPMENT & PEDAGOGY)

  Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting
the most appropriate option.
1. 1. A process by which a parent assumes that his child's
all trait are positive because one trait is positive is
termed as:
(1) (2) (1) Context effect (2) Result effect
(3) Hawthorne effect (4) Reverse effect
(3) (4)
2. Which of the following is not true about development?
2.
(1) Development is the result of interaction.
(1)
(2) Development follows a systematic series.
(2) (3) Development is an individual process.
(3) (4) Development proceeds from specific to general.
(4) 3. What affects the most to learning process.
3. (1) Attention (2) Interest
(1) (2) (3) Intelligence (4) Environment
(3) (4) 4. What is sign of learning disability?
4. (1) Tendency to run away (2) Lack of motivation
(1) (2) (3) Attention deficit
(3) (4) Disturbed, energetic and destructive
(4) 5. A child has mental score 110. He is not good in
5. 110 studies. That child is:
(1) Normal child (2) Clever child
(3) Adjusted child (4) Backward child
(1) (2)
6. According to the sociological view of Sprenger in
(3) (4)
which type of personality poet, writer and philosopher
6.
are included?
(1) Social (2) Theoretical
(1) (2) (3) Political (4) Aesthetic
(3) (4) 7. Which of the following statement is not true about
7. interest?
(1) (1) Interests are both innate and acquired.
(2) (2) Interests keep changing with time.
(3) (3) Interests are not related to abilities and aptitudes.
(4) (4) Interest in not a reflection of attraction and repulsion
in behaviour
8. 8. Non verbal intelligence test can be used for?
(1) (1) persons of all age groups.
(2) (2) uneducated persons
(3) children
(3)
(4) both educated and illitrate persons
(4)
Since 1949

2 HTET Model Test Papers

9. 9. A person forgetting his existence and imitating the
merits and demerits of another person is called.
(1) (2) (1) Regression (2) Suppression
(3) Projection (4) Identification
(3) (4)
10. Exponent of child delinquency psychology is-
10. (1) William Wundt (2) William James
(1) (2) (3) Jean Piaget (4) Cesar Lombrosom
(3) (4) 11. According to Erickson the psychological development
11. of children occurs in eight stages. What stage of
3 9 development does a class 3 student (around 9 years
old) correspond to?
(1) (2) (1) Industry v/s Inferiority
(2) Initiative vs guilt
(3)
(3) Intimacy vs isolation
(4) (4) Autonomy vs shame and doubt
12. 12. Which theory of child development states that
children who grow above average are found to be
very advanced in physical, social and emotional
development?
(1) (1) Principle of interrelationship
(2) (2) Principle of uniformity of development
(3) Principle of Integration.
(3)
(4) Principle of direction of development.
(4) 13. 'Learning is the process of acquiring new knowledge
13. and new experiences' is the definition given by which
psychologist.
(1) (2) (1) Gates and others (2) Crow and Crow
(3) (4) (3) Woodworth (4) Skinner
14. 14. When the conditioned stimulus and natural stimulus
are presented together in the process of conditioning
the method is called.
(1) Simultaneous conditioning
(1) (2) (2) delayed conditioning
(3) (4) (3) residual conditioning
15. (4) Backward conditioning
(1) (2) 15. Which of the following is the basic instinct described
(3) (4) by Mc Dougall.
16. 5 (1) Curiosity (2) Assertion
(3) Escape (4) All of the above
16. Ram is 5 years old, who begins to feel the stone alive.
(1) (2)
According to Jean Piaget this behaviour of Ram is:
(3) (4) (1) self-centred (2) Animism
17. (3) Ego centred language (4) Conservation
17. According to Vygotsky, that work which is too
difficult for a child alone, but possible to do with the
(1) (2) help of an adult and more skilled partner, is called-
(3) (1) Guided Participation (2) Scaffolding
(3) Zone of Proximal Development
(4)
(4) Level of Actual Development
18. 18. The development progresses during the particular
period but pauses for the adjustment of this period.
Which law of development does it follow?
(1) (1) Law of co-ordination
(2) (2) Law of continuity
(3) (3) Law of spiral development
(4) (4) Law of same pattern
Since 1949

HTET Model Test Papers 3

19. 19. Ram and Shyam have same age. But there is a big
difference in their social and mental development.
This is due to which principle of development–
(1) (1) Principle of finiteness
(2) (2) Principle of definite and predictable pattern
(3) (3) Principle of individuality
(4) Principle of common pattern
(4)
20. Which course did Mahatma Gandhi emphasize for
20.
basic education?
(1) Handicraft centered (2) book art centered
(1) (2) (3) work centered (4) music art centered
(3) (4) 21. Psychologist Thorndike has divided personality on
21. the which bases?
(1) On the basis of thinking and imagination power.
(1) (2) On the basis of dominant and Subordinate.
(2) (3) On the basis of independence and dependence.
(3) (4) None of these.
(4) 22. Two students read the same passage, yet give a
22. completely different meaning to it. Which of the
following is true about them?
(1) is possible, becuase the teacher has not explained
(1) the passage.
(2) is not possible and the students should read it again.
(2)
(3) it is possible because different factors effect the
(3)
learning of an individual in different ways.
(4) not possible because the meaning of the act is not
(4) to imply.
23. 23. Who is propounder of Dalton method?
(1) (2) (1) Crowder (2) Helen Parkhurst
(3) (4) (3) T.F. Guilbert (4) Plato
24. 24. 'Intelligence is what intelligence test measures'. Who
has given the definition?
(1) (2) (1) Binet (2) Buckingham
(3) (4) (3) Boring (4) Terman
25. I II 25. Match the List-A and List-B
List-A List-B
I II A. Bruner 1. Basic teaching model
A. 1. B. Ausubel 2. Synetics teaching model
B. 2. C. Glasser 3. Advance organiser teaching model
C. 3. D. Gorden 4. concept attainment teaching model
D. 4. 5. Inquiry training model.
5. A B C D
A B C D (1) 4 3 2 1
(1) 4 3 2 1 (2) 1 2 3 5
(2) 1 2 3 5 (3) 3 1 2 5
(3) 3 1 2 5 (4) 4 3 1 2
(4) 4 3 1 2 26. According to Albert Bandura, four conditions are
26. necessary in observational learning. The right
sequence of these conditions is:
(1) (1) Motivation – Attention – Retention – Reproduction
(2) (2) Attention – Motivation – Retention – Reproduction
(3) (3) Attention – Retention – Reproduction – Motivation
(4) (4) Attention – Retention – Motivation – Reproduction
Since 1949

4 HTET Model Test Papers

27. 27. The terms of project method are respectively?
1. 2 1. Planning 2. Evaluation
3 4 3. Implementation 4. Accounting
5 5. Selection and objective
(1) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (2) 5, 1, 3, 2, 4 (1) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (2) 5, 1, 3, 2, 4
(3) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 (4) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 (3) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 (4) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
28. 28. Piaget has defined intelligence as the ability to adjust
to what?
(1) (1) Physical and social environment
(2) (2) Innate growth
(3) (3) Demand of family
(4) (4) Demand for work life
29. 29. In which of the following minimum attention is
required?
(1) (2) (1) Habit (2) Learning
(3) (4) (3) Concept (4) Problem solving
30. 30. Which of the following is not a source of motivation?
(1) (2) (1) Habit (2) Drive
(3) (4) (3) Motive (4) Stimulus

II (PART-II)

31.
37.
(a) (b)
(c) (d) (a) (b)
32. (c)
(d)
(a) (b)
38.
(c) (d)
(a)
33.
(b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
39.
34.
(a)
(a) (b)
(b)
(c) (d)
(c)
35. (d)
40.
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(c)
36.
(d)
(a)
41.
(b)
(a) (b)
(c)
(c) (d)
(d)
Since 1949

HTET Model Test Papers 5

42. 44.
(a) (b)
(c) (d) (a) (b)
43. (c) (d)
(a) (b) 45.
(c) (d) (a) (b)
(c) (d)

LANGUAGE (ENGLISH)

46. Fill in the blank with appropriate modals. (c) a large crowd had assembled
He ............ play football when he was young. (d) No error
(a) could (b) used to 53. Choose the correct form of verb to complete the sen-
(c) would (d) might tence.
47. Which part have an error? As soon as Ramesh ......... home, he sits and talks to
(a) Did you hear (b) many news his children asking them about their day.
(c) about the political situation while you were in that (a) is coming (b) comes
country? (c) come (d) has come
(d) No error 54. Which one is adjective in the following sentence. Give
48. Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given be- this chocolate to the crying baby.
low each sentence should replace the underlined (a) baby (b) chocolate
phrase to make the sentence grammatically correct. (c) crying (d) Give
We met him immediately after the session in which 55. Choose the part of sentence that is grammatically
he had been given a nice speech. incorrect.
(a) Would be giving (b) has been given (a) We will pack not only
(c) will have given (d) had given (b) the material properly
49. Which of the options given below is the correct pas- (c) but will also deliver it
sive form of the following sentence? (d) to your valued customers
You did not respect him. 56. Fill in the blanks.
(a) He will no be respected by you. The growing number of visitors .......... the footpaths.
(b) He was not respected by you. (a) are damaging (b) is damaging
(c) He had not been respected by you. (c) were damaged (d) was damanged
(d) He has not been respected by you. 57. Monday is the first day ......... the week.
50. 'Have you done your home work?' The teacher said (a) of (b) after
to the boys. (c) during (d) before
(Choose the correct reported speech). 58. ........ Gandhiji ......... in Rajkot?
(a) The teacher asked the boys whether they had done (a) When, studied (b) Did, study
their home work.
(c) Was, study (d) Does, studied
(b) The teacher asked the boys had they done home work.
59. Choose the correct antonym for the word given be-
(c) The teacher told the boys if they had done home work. low.
(d) The teacher enquired the boys had you done your Protects
home work.
(a) Defends (b) Deserts
51. Select correctly spelt word.
(c) Deprives (d) Devises
(a) Omitted (b) Ommitted
60. ........ (drink) milk is good for health.
(c) Ommited (d) Omited
(a) Drunk (b) Drinks
52. Among these which part have an error?
(c) Drank (d) Drinking
(a) On the time
(b) of the opening ceremony of the theatre
Since 1949

6 HTET Model Test Papers

III (PART-III) (GENERAL STUDIES)

(
(QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE, REASONING ABILITY AND G.K. & AWARENESS)
61. ,d ekyh dks isM+ksa dh leku la[;k okyh drkjksa esa ikSèks 61. A gardener has to plant trees in rows containing
yxkus gSA ;fn og 6] 8] 10 ;k 12 dh iafä;ksa esa jksirk equal number of trees. If he plants in rows of 6,
gS rks ik¡p o`{k fcuk jksis jg tkrs gSaA ysfdu vxj og 8,10 or 12, then five trees are left unplanted. But
13&13 isM+ksa dh drkj esa yxk ns] rks dksbZ isM+ ugha if he plants in rows of 13 trees each, then no tree
cpsxkA ekyh fdrus isM yxkrk gS\ is left. What is the number of trees that the
(1) 485 (2) 725 gardener plants?
(3) 845 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (1) 485 (2) 845
62. ;fn çR;sd 3 esa ls 2 'kVZ ds d‚yj esa ifjorZu dh (3) 725 (4) None of these
vko';drk gS] çR;sd 4 esa ls 3 dks vkLrhu esa ifjorZu 62. If every 2 out of 3 readymade shirts need alterations
dh vko';drk gS] vkSj çR;sd 5 esa ls 4 dks 'kjhj esa in the collar, every 3 out of 4 need alterations in the
ifjorZu dh vko';drk gS] rks 60 'kVZ ds fy, fdrus sleeves, and every 4 out of 5 need it in the body, how
ifjorZu dh vko';drk gksxh\ many alterations will be required for 60 shirts?
(1) 123 (2) 143
(1) 123 (2) 143
(3) 133 (2) 24
(3) 133 (4) 24
63. A number is doubled and 9 is added. If the resultant
63. ,d la[;k dks nksxquk djds mlesa 9 tksM+ fn;k tkrk gSA
is trebled, it becomes 75. What is that number?
;fn ifj.kkeh dks frxquk dj fn;k tk, rks og 75 gks
(1) 3.5 (2) 6
tkrk gSA og la[;k D;k gS\ (3) 8 (4) None of these
(1) 3-5 (2) 6
64. In limestone, 40% is calcium and the rest is carbon
(3) 8 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha and oxygen. If in 20 kg of limestone, there is 9.4
64. pwuk iRFkj esa 40% dSfY'k;e vkSj 'ks"k dkcZu vkSj v‚Dlhtu kg of oxygen, then what is the percentage of carbon
gksrk gSA ;fn 20 fdxzk pwuk iRFkj esa 9-4 fdxzk v‚Dlhtu gS] in it?
rks mlesa dkcZu dk çfr'kr fdruk gS\ (1) 12% (2) 13%
(1) 12 izfr'kr (2) 13 izfr'kr (3) 14% (4) 15%
(3) 14 izfr'kr (4) 15 izfr'kr 65. A man bought goods worth 6000 and sold half of
65. ,d vkneh us 6000 dk lkeku [kjhnk vkSj mldk vk/ them at a gain of 10%. At what gain percent must
kk 10 % ds ykHk ij csp fn;kA mls 'ks"k dks fdrus he sell the remainder so as to get a gain of 25% on
çfr'kr ykHk ij cspuk pkfg, rkfd mls iwjs ij 25 % the whole?
dk ykHk çkIr gks\ (1) 25% (2) 30%
(1) 25 % (2) 30 % (3) 35 % (4) 40 % (3) 35% (4) 40%
66. 30 etnwj çfrfnu 7 ?kaVs dke djds ,d dke dks 18 66. 30 labourers, working 7 hours a day can finish a
fnuksa esa iwjk dj ldrs gSaA ;fn etnwj çfrfnu 6 ?kaVs piece of work in 18 days. If the labourers work 6
dke djrs gSa] rks mlh dke dks 30 fnuksa esa iwjk djus hours a day, then the number of labourers to finish
okys etnwjksa dh la[;k gksxhA the same piece of work in 30 days, will be:
(1) 15 (2) 21 (1) 15 (2) 21
(3) 22 (4) 25 (3) 22 (4) 25
67. A, B vkSj C vyx&vyx ,d dke dks Øe'k% 12]15 67. A, B and C can separately do a work in 12,15 and
vkSj 20 fnuksa esa dj ldrs gSaA os ,d lkFk dke djuk 20 days respectively. They started to work together
'kq: djrs gSa ysfdu C 2 fnu ckn dke NksM+ nsrk gSA but C left after 2 days. The remaining work will be
esa cpk gqvk dke iwjk dj fy;k tk,xkA finished in
(1) 4 fnu (2) 6 fnu (1) 4 days (2) 6 days
(3) 5 fnu (4) 15 fnu (3) 5 days (4) 15 days
68. nks Vªsu] ç;sd 100 ehVj yach] foijhr fn'kkvksa esa pyrh 68. Two trains, each 100 m long, moving in opposite
gqbZ] ,d nwljs dks 8 lsdaM esa ikj djrh gSaA ;fn ,d directions, cross each other in 8 seconds. If one is
moving twice as fast the other, then the speed of the
nwljs ls nqxquh xfr ls py jgk gS] rks rst Vªsu dh xfr
faster train is :
gSA
(1) 30km/hr (2) 45 km/hr
(1) 30 fdeh@?kaVk (2) 45 fdeh@?kaVk
(3) 60 km/hr (4) 75 km/hr
(3) 60 fdeh@?kaVk (4) 75 fdeh@?kaVk
Since 1949

HTET Model Test Papers 7

69. pØof) C;kt ij fuos'k dh xbZ jkf'k 2 lky esa 4624 69. A sum of money invested at compound interest
vkSj 3 lky esa 4913 gks tkrh gSA /ku jkf'k gSA amounts to 4624 in 2 years and to 4913 in 3 years.
(1) 4096 (2) 4260 The sum of money is :
(3) 4335 (4) 4360 (1) 4096 (2) 4260
70. ;fn ,d ?kukHk ds fMCcs ds rhu vklUu Qydksa dk (3) 4335 (4) 4360
{ks=Qy Øe'k% 120 lseh 2] 72 lseh 2 vkSj 60 lseh 2 gS] rks 70. If the areas of the three adjacent faces of a cuboidal
fMCcs dk vk;ru Kkr dhft,A box are 120 cm2,72 cm2 and 60 cm2 respectively, then
(1) 720 lseh3 (2) 864 lseh3 find the volume of the box.
3
(3) 7200 lseh (4) 722 lseh3 (1) 720 cm3 (2) 864 cm3
3
71. "RANGE" "FIQEW" (3) 7200 cm (4) (72)2 cm3
"ARAGE" "FIDVF" 71. In a certain code language "RANGE" is written as
"PRANK" "FIQEW" and "ARAGE" is written as "FIDVF".
(1) MQEWV (2) LPDVU How is "PRANK" written in that code language?
(3) UVDPL (4) VWEQM (1) MQEWV (2) LPDVU
72. (3) UVDPL (4) VWEQM
72. Arrange the following words in a logical and
1. 2. meaningful order.
3. 4. 1. Write 2. Publish
5. 3. Author 4. Reader
(1) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 (2) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 5. Sale
(3) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 (4) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 (1) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 (2) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
73. (3) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 (4) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
(1) ZKXJ (2) CMAL 73. Direction : Select the odd word from the given
(3) TGRF (4) FRTK alternatives.
74. (1) ZKXJ (2) CMAL
(3) TGRF (4) FRTK
5+3  8-12  4=3 74. Which of the following interchange of signs would
(1) - and  (2) + and  make the given equaiton correct?
(3) + and  (4) + and - 5+3  8-12  4=3
75. 90
0
(1) - and  (2) + and 
0
(3) + and  (4) + and -
135 75. I am facing West. I turn 90° in clockwise direction,
then 135° in anticlockwise direction. What direction
(1) (2) am I facing?
(3) (4) (1) South (2) North
76. K, L, P, R T (3) North-West (4) South-West
K, T 76. Five articles K, L, P, R and T, are kept one above
R L, P the other (not necessarily in the same order). K is
T just above T and just below R. L is just above P and
just below T. Which article is at the second position
(1) T (2) P from the bottom?
(3) K (4) L (1) T (2) P
77. (3) K (4) L
3 77. If two days before yesterday was Sunday. What day
(1) (2) will be 3 days after tomorrow?
(3) (4) (1) Saturday (2) Monday
78. (3) Sunday (4) Tuesday
" 78. Pointing to a woman in a photograph a man says she
" is the mother-in-law of the wife of the fathers of my
(1) (2) only son. How is the woman related to man?
(3) (4) (1) daughter (2) wife
(3) daughter-in-law (4) mother
Since 1949

8 HTET Model Test Papers

79. 79. Statements :
Some skirts are benches.
No bench is a table
Conclusion:
I. Some skirts are tables.
I. II.
II. Some benches are skirts.
III. IV.
III. All benches are skits.
(1) I IV. Some tables are skirts.
(2) II (1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows
(3) II IV (3) Only II and IV follow (4) Only I and III follow
(4) I III 80. Find the number of triangles in the given figure:
80.

(1) 6 (2) 7
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9
(3) 8 (4) 9 81. Player Sarabjot Singh from which district of
81. Haryana has won bronze medal in Paris Olympics
2024?
(1) (2) (1) Ambala (2) Panchkula
(3) (4) (3) Yamunanagar (4) Hisar
82. gfj;k.kk esa dkSu &lh >hy vlksy k HkkVh oU;tho 82. Which lake in Haryana is near Asola Bhati Wildlife
vHk;kj.; ds fudV gS \ Sanctuary?
(1) Brahma Sarovar Lake (2) Kama Lake
(1) czã ljksoj >hy (2) d.kZ >hy
(3) Surajkund Lake (4) Badkhal Lake
(3) lwjtdqaM >hy (4) cM+[ky >hy
83. Which Governor of Haryana has worked on daily
83. gfj;k.kk ds fdl jkT;iky us 3 o"kZ rd çfrfnu ds wage basis for 3 years-
osru ds vkèkkj ij dk;Z fd;k gS& (1) Mr. Dharambir
(1) Jh èkeZchj (2) Jh ch- ,u- pØorÊ (2) Shri B.N. Chakraborty
(3) Jh vksih oekZ (4) Jh èkfud yky eaMy (3) Shri O.P. Verma
84. Qrsgkckn fdys dk fuekZ.k fnYyh lYrur ds fdl (4) Mr. Dhanik Lal Mandal
lqYrku us djok;k Fkk \ 84. Which Sultan of Delhi Sultanate got the Fatehabad
(1) x;klqíhu rqxyd (2) eqgEen&fcu&rqxyd fort built?
(3) fQjkst'kkg rqxyd (4) bczkfge yksnh (1) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
85. jkT; ljdkj }kjk jkT; esa csjkstxkjh HkÙkk ;kstuk dc (2) Muhammad-bin-Tughluq
(3) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
vkjEHk dh xbZ \ (4) Ibrahim Lodi
(1) o"kZ 2004 (2) o"kZ 2010 85. When was the unemployment allowance scheme
(3) o"kZ 2008 (4) o"kZ 2005 started in the state by the State Government?
86. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft, A (1) Year 2004 (2) Year 2010
dFku A : gfj;k.kk esa ?kXxj unh }kjk fufeZr ck<+ ds (3) Year 2008 (4) Year 2005
eSnkuksa dks usYyh dgk tkrk gSA 86. Consider the following statements.
dFku B : gfj;k.kk esa ekd±Mk unh }kjk fufeZr ck<+ ds Assertion A : The flood plains formed by the
eSnkuksa dks ?kj dgk tkrk gSA Ghaggar river in Haryana are called Nellie.
(1) dFku A lgh gS] dFku B xyr gSA Statement B : The flood plains created by the
(2) dFku B xyr gS] dFku B lgh gSA Markanda river in Haryana is called home.
(1) Statement A is correct, statement B is incorrect.
(3) dFku C vkSj dFku B lgh gSaA
(2) Statement A is wrong, statement B is correct.
(4) dFku D vkSj dFku B xyr gSA
(3) Statement A and Statement B are correct.
87. gfj;k.kk jkT; —f"k foi.ku cksMZ] lksuhir ds xUuksj esa (4) Statement A and statement B are false.
fodflr dj jgk gSA 87. Haryana State Agricultural Marketing Board is
(1) bafM;k baVjus'kuy g‚fVZdYpj (IIHM) developing at Gannaur in Sonipat.
(2) gksVy çcaèku ds fy, varjkZ"Vªh; laLFkku (1) India International Horticulture Market (IIHM)
(3) LokLF; çcaèku ds fy, ,dh—r laLFkku (2) International Institute for Hotel Management
(4) ,dh—r LokLF; vkSj fpfdRlk ds fy, laLFkku (3) Integrated Institute for Health Management
(4) Institute for Integrative Health and Medicine
Since 1949

HTET Model Test Papers 9

88. 88. Who has started trip monitoring service for the
safety of women passengers in Haryana?
(1) (2) (1) Ministry of Defence (2) Haryana Police
(3) (4) (3) Education Department(4) CID
89. Which person from Haryana has been appointed as
89. gfj;k.kk ds fdl O;fä dks xkSlsok vk;ksx dk okbl
the Vice Chairman of Gauseva Aayog?
ps;jeSu fu;qä fd;k x;k gSa\ (1) Shravan Kumar Garg
(1) Jo.k dqekj xxZ (2) iw.kZey ;kno (2) Poornmal Yadav
(3) fnfXot; pkSVkyk (4) bues ls dksbZ ugh (3) Digvijay Chautala
90. og unh tks 'kkgiqj xkao ls fudydj ykMok uked (4) None of these
LFkku ij pkSVkax unh ls feyrh gS A mls ...... unh Hkh 90. The river that emerges from Shahpur village and
dgrs gSaA meets the Chautang river at a place called Ladwa.
(1) nksgku (2) pkSVkax It is also called................river.
(3) —".kkorh (4) jk{kh (1) Daohan (2) Chowtang
(3) Krishnavati (4) Rakshi

(Answer Key)
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (4)
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (4) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (1)
21. (1) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (4) 26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (1) 29. (1) 30. (1)
31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (3) 36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (1)
41. (3) 42. (3) 43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (4) 49. (4) 50. (1)
51. (1) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (1) 56. (2) 57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (2) 60. (4)
61. (3) 62. (3) 63. (3) 64. (2) 65. (4) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (3) 69. (1) 70. (1)
71. (2) 72. (1) 73. (4) 74. (1) 75. (4) 76. (4) 77. (3) 78. (4) 79. (2) 80. (4)
81. (1) 82. (4) 83. (2) 84. (3) 85. (1) 86. (1) 87. (1) 88. (2) 89. (2) 90. (4)

61. (3) L.C.M. of 6, 8, 10, 12 = 120.  30(100  x)  4200  100  x  140  x  40%
Required number is of the form 120k + 5. 66. (2) Let the required number of labourers be x. Then,
Least value of k for which (120k + 5) is divisible by 13 is Less working hrs/day, More labourers (Indirect Proportion)
k = 7. More days, Less labourers (Indirect Proportion)
Required number = (120 × 7 + 5) = 845
62. (3) Number of alternations required in 1 shirt Working Hrs/Day 6:7 
 : :30 : x
 2 3 4  133 Days 30 : 18
=     = .
3 4 5 60  6  30  x  7  18  30  6 x  126  x  21.
Number of alterations required in 60 shirts 67. (1)
 133   1 1 1  12 1
=   60  = 133. (A + B + C)’s 1 day’s work =     
 60   12 15 20  60 5
63. (3) Let the number be x.
1  2
Then, 3 (2x + 9) = 75  2 x  9  25 (A + B + C)’s 2 days’ work =   2   .
5  5
 2 x  16  x  8.
 2 3
 9.4  Remaining work =  1    .
64. (2) Percentage of oxygen =   100  % = 47%  5 5
 20 
Percentage of carbon = [100 – (40 + 47)]% = 13%  1 1 9 3
65. (4) Let the required gain percent be x%. (A + B)’s 1 day’s work =     
 12 15  60 20
Then, (110% of 3000) + [(100 + x)% of 3000]
= 125% of 6000 3
Now, work is done by A and B in 1 day..
 110   (100  x )  125 20
  3000     3000    6000
 100   100  100 3  20 3 
 work will be done by A and B in    =4
5  3 5
Since 1949

10 HTET Model Test Papers

days. 74. (1) 5 + 3 × 8 – 12 ÷ 4 = 3
68. (3) Let the speed of the slower train be x m/sec. 5 + 3 × 8 ÷ 12 – 4 = 3
Then, speed of the faster train = 2x m/sec. 5+2–4=3
Relative speed = (x + 2x) m/sec = 3x m/sec. 75. (4) Clockwise = 90o
(100  100) 25 Anticlockwise = 180o + 90o = 270o
  3x  24 x  200  x  . Anticlockwise 270o – Clockwise 90o = Anticlockwise 180o
8 3 After rotate anticlockwise 180o he will face South-East
So, speed of the faster train direction.
50  50 18  N.W.
= m/sec. =    km/hr = 60 km/hr.. South-East
3  3 5
69. (1) S.I. on ` 4624 for 1 year = ` (4913 – 4624) = ` 289.
 100  289  1 S.E.
Rate =  %  6 % 76. (4) As per given data, sitting arrangement of persons
 4624  1  4 are in the following sequence :
2 Top - R - K - T - L - P - Bottom
 25  17 17 Hence, L is at the second position from the bottom.
Now, x  1    4624 or x    4624 77. (3)
 4  100  16 16
2nd day before 3rd day after
 16 16  Yesterday tomorrow
or x   4624    = ` 4096.
 17 17 
70. (1) Let the length, breadth and height of the box be l, b
and h respectively. Then,
Volume = Sunday Today Sunday
2
lbh  (lbh)  lb  bh  lh  120  72  60 Ans = Sunday
= 720 cm3 78. (4) Male
71. (2) As,
R A N G E F I Q E W Female
+1
+2
woman
+3
+4 Mother
+5

And,
A R A G E F I D V F Man Wife
+1
+2
+3
+4
Son
+5
The woman is mother of the man.
Similarly,
P R A N K L P D V U
+1 79. (2) Skirts Benches Table
+2
+3
+4 Conclusion :
+5
(I)  (II) 
72. (1) (3) Author (1) Write (III)  (IV) 
(2) Publish (5) Sale A
(4) Reader 80. (4)
1 1
F
73. (4) Z K X J C M A L
B C
  D E
1 7 The triangles are :
T G R F F R T K ABC; ABD; FAD;
FAE; FDE; AEC;
  ADE; ABE; ADC


Since 1949

HTET Model Test Papers 209

(CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY)

I (PART-I)

1. 1. Which educational intervention is not suitable for slow

learners ?
(1) (2) (1) Acceleration
(3) (4) (2) Remedial teaching
2. (3) Drill work
(4) Cooperative teaching method
2. Which of the following characteristics is not related
(1) to the concrete operational stage of the cognitive
(2) Development theory propounded by Piaget ?
(3) (4) (1) Reversibility (2) Serialization
3. (3) Animism (4) Conservation
3. A learning difficulty that create problem for a child
to distinguish letters and words is :
(1) (2)
(1) Dysplasticia (2) Dyslexia
(3) (4)
4. (3) Dysgraphia (4) Dyscalculia
4. When the lesson to be learned by a child is long and
difficult and requires a lot of understanding, then
which method of learning will be appropriate ?
(1) (2) (1) Spaced method (2) Whole method
(3) (4) (3) Massed method (4) Incidental method
5.
5. Inclusive Education means :
(1)
(1) Education for socially deprived children
(2)
(2) Education for disabled children
(3)
(3) Education for normal and disabled children
(4)
(4) Education for all children
6.
6. Which three aspects of intelligence are emphasized
in the triarchic theory of Sternberg?
A. B.
A. Componential B. Experiential
C. D.
C. Operational D. Contextual
Choose the correct code :
Code :
(1) A, B C (2) B, C D
(1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D
(3) A, B B (4) A, C D
(3) A, B and D (4) A, C and D
7.
7. Which of the following laws is not related to heredity?
(1) (2) (1) Law of Similarity (2) Law of Variation
(3) (4) (3) Law of Regression (4) Law of Progression
8. 8. Which teaching learning strategy is most useful for
students in context of social learning ?
(1) Field trip (2) Lecture
(1) (2)
(3) Experiment (4) Brain stroming
(3) (4)
Since 1949

210 HTET Model Test Papers

9. 9. Choose the correct code of the following factors, which
affects learning :
A. B. A. Motivation B. Aptitude
C. D. C. Interest D. Attention
Code :
(1) C D (2) A, B D (1) C and D (2) A, B and D
(3) A C (4) A, B, C D (3) A and C (4) A, B, C and D
10. 10. Which of the following factors does not affect the
teaching learning process ?
(1) (1) Physical appearance of teacher
(2) (2) Mental health of teacher
(3) (3) Content knowledge of teacher
(4) (4) Communication skills of teacher
11. 11. Which of the following is not a principle of development?
(1) (1) Development is the product of heredity and environment.
(2) (2) Developmental pattern is predictable.
(3) (3) Development follows linear path.
(4) (4) Development proceeds from general to specific
12. 12. Which of the following is not a common characteristic
of social development in adolescence ?
(1) (1) Harmonious relationship with parents
(2) (2) New social grouping
(3) (4) (3) Search for identity (4) Hero-worship
13. 13. Which teaching maxim is not beneficial for the
learning disabled children ?
(1) (2) (1) Simple to complex (2) Abstract to concrete
(3) (4) (3) Direct to indirect (4) Known to unknown
14. 14. Which of the following is not a principle of effective
learning ?
(1) Motivation (2) Individual approach
(1) (2)
(3) Passive attendance (4) Feedback
(3) (4)
15. Which of the following is not a performance test of
15.
intelligence ?
(1) Koh's Block Design Test
(1)
(2) Alexander's Pass Along Test
(2)
(3) Saguine Form Board Test
(3)
(4) Standford-Binet Test
(4)
16. Which statement is not correct in context of individual
16. differences ?
(1) (1) Two persons are not exactly same.
(2) (2) Individual differences are deviation in regards to
(3) characteristics.
(3) Individual differences distinguish individuals in their
(4) totality
(4) Individual differences are the sole result of heredity.
17. 17. The education which promotes 'learning by doing' and
ensures the students interaction with their
environment to learn, that is known as :
(1) (2) (1) Special education (2) Progressive education
(3) (4) (3) Integrated education (4) Inclusive education
18. 18. Which of the following pair is not correct regarding
motivational theories and their proponents ?
Motivational Theories Proponent
(1) (1) Instinct theory Atkinson
(2) (2) Need Hierarchical theory Maslow
(3) (3) Drive theory Woodworth
(4) (4) Achievement Motivation theory Mc'Clelland
Since 1949

HTET Model Test Papers 211

19. 19. The true meaning of continuous and comprehensive
A. evaluation is :
B. A. Taking frequent tests
B. Taking continuous tests at appropriate intervals
C.
C. To evaluate scholastic and co-scholastic both aspects
D. D. Measuring only educational achievements
Choose the correct code :
Code :
(1) B D (2) B C (1) B & D (2) B & C
(3) A, B C (4) B, C D (3) A, B & C (4) B, C & D
20. 20. In Pavlov's conditioning theory, which factor does not
positively affect the conditioning between natural and
artifical stimuli ?
(1) Appropriate timing of stimuli presentation
(1)
(2) Repetition of stimuli
(2) (3) Controlled environemnt
(3) (4) Lack of motive
(4) 21. Which of the following is not an objective type question?
21. (1) Matching questions
(1) (2) (2) Analytical questions
(3) (4) (3) Multiple choice questions
22. (4) Blank space questions
22. According to Moral Development theory of Piaget,
(1) adolescent period is :
(1) Stage of moral realism
(2)
(2) Stage of morality constraint
(3) (3) Stage of heteronomous morality
(4) (4) Stage of autonomous morality
23. 23. Which teaching support material is not useful for
visually impaired students ?
(1) (2) (1) Braille materials (2) Talking books
(3) (4) (3) Film strips (4) Embossed map
24. 24. Which stages of Kohlberg's moral development theory
are not related to level of conventional morality ?
A. Individualism and exchange
A.
B. Good interpersonal relations
B. C. Maintaining the social order
C. D. Social contracts and indiviual rights
D. Choose the correct code :
Code :
(1) A & B (2) B & C
(1) A B (2) B C (3) A & D (4) C & D
(3) A D (4) C D 25. Which of the following factor does not influence the
25. development of child under environmental factors ?
(1) Nutrition
(2) Mental stress of the mother during pregnancy
(1)
(3) Accidents
(2) (4) Endocrine glands
(3) 26. According to Gagne, to what highest level of learning
(4) should a teacher strive to take students?
26. (1) Concept learning
(2) Problem solving learning
(3) Rule learning
(1) (2) (4) Discrimination learning
(3) (4) 27. 'Law of use' and 'Law of disuse' is related with which
law of learning according to Thorndike's learning
27. theory ?
(1) Law or readiness
(2) Law of exercise
(1) (2) (3) Law of effect
(3) (4) (4) Law of multiple response
Since 1949

212 HTET Model Test Papers

28. 28. Choose the correct code for the approved social
behaviour pattern in adolescence :
A. B. A. Leadership skills B. Empathy
C. D. C. Ego-centrism D. Stereotyping
Codes :
(1) A B (2) B D (1) A & B (2) B & D
(3) A, B C (4) A, C D (3) A, B & C (4) A, C & D
29. 29. According to which psychologist, the role of social and
cultural factors are important in the cogntitive
development of children ?
(1) (2) (1) Vygotssky (2) Piaget
(3) (4) (3) Bruner (4) Hull
30. 30. Learning through mental processes like attention and
reflection is called :
(1) (2) (1) Imitative learing (2) Motor learing
(3) (4) (3) Cognitive learing (4) Affective learning

II (PART-II)

31. 38.
(1) (1) eSaus
(2) dksbZ
(2) (3) blh
(3) (4)
39.
(4) (1) (2)
(3)
32. (4)
(1) (2) 40.
(3) (4)
33. (1) (2)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) (4) 41.
34. (1) (2)
(3) (4)
(1) 42.
(2) (1) (2)
(3) (3) (4)
(4) 43.
35. (1)
(1) (2)
(3)
(2) (4)
44.
(3) lkB (1)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(4)
36.
45.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(1)
37.
(2)
(3)
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (4)
Since 1949

HTET Model Test Papers 213

LANGUAGE (ENGLISH)
46. Choose the correct tense form to fill in the blank : (1) moved (2) had moved
The Headmaster ............... to meet you. (3) has moved (4) was moving
(1) want (2) wants 54. Choose the most appropriate preposition to fill in the
(3) is wanting (4) was wanting blank :
47. Choose the option that gives the correct meaning of Mohan gazed .............. the sky in the hope of rain.
the given phrasal verb : (1) at (2) unto
Send for (3) besides (4) into
(1) start on a journey (2) reach to a decision 55. Choose the correct preposition to fill in the blank :
(3) call someone in (4) improve He told all ......... the incident.
48. Change the narration to Reported speech and choose (1) between (2) among
the right option : (3) beside (4) about
I said to him, "Do you know when she will go home?" 56. Choose the most appropriate preposition to fill in the
(1) I told him if he knew when she will go home ? blank :
(2) I said to him that did he knew when she would go I am going home the day .............. tomorrow.
home. (1) in (2) on
(3) I asked him if he knew when she would go home. (3) after (4) at
(4) I said to him that did he know when will she go home? 57. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank :
49. Choose the part of sentence which is incroorect : .............. had the police reached than the thievesmed.
Has Sachin / not breaked / the (1) As soon as (2) No sooner
(A) (B) (3) Scarcely (4) As well
record held / by Bradman who 58. Choose the option that gives the correct meaning of
(C) (D) the phrasal verb :
made 10,000 runs in his career ? Turn out
(1) A (2) B (1) to evict someone
(3) C (4) D (2) to kill someone
50. Choose the correct option for the given one word : (3) to ridicule someone
Sinecure (4) go give legal notice to someone
(1) one who lives by himself 59. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate meaning
(2) an office with no work but high pay of the underlined idiom :
(3) surgery without anesthesia Rakesh had to deal with all his problems by himself,
(4) cure by naturopathy because he didn't want to depend on his fair weather
51. Choose the option that gives the correct meaning of friends.
the given phrasal verb : (1) Friends who come from rich family.
(1) distribute (2) deposit (2) Friends who are loyal only during a time of success.
(3) donate (4) surrender (3) Friends with whom one lived in one's college time.
52. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate modal (4) Friends who no longer live with you.
auxiliary : 60. Choose the correct option that gives the correct passive
Your mother is seriously ill. You .............. leave for voice of the given sentence :
home at one. (obligation) Have they done the work ?
(1) needs (2) might (1) Have the work been done ?
(3) could (4) must (2) Has the work been done ?
53. Choose the correct tense form to fill in the blank : (3) Had the work been done ?
She jumbped off the train while it ............. (4) Will the work be done ?

III (PART-III) (GENERAL STUDIES)

(
(QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE, REASONING ABILITY AND G.K. & AWARENESS)
61. A B C D 61. If A denotes 'divided by', B denotes 'added to', C
20 C 12 B 8 A 2 D 6 denotes 'subtracted from' and D denotes 'multiplied
(1) 16 (2) 18 by', then 20 C 12 B 8 A 2 D 6 is equal to:
(3) 32 (4) 36 (1) 16 (2) 18
62. 12 3 18 (3) 32 (4) 36
9 24 62. A person covers 12 km at 3 km/hr, 18 km at 9 km/hr
4 and 24 km at 4 km/hr. The average speed in covering
the whole distance is :
(1) 4 (2) 4.2 (1) 4 km/hr (2) 4.2 km/hr
(3) 4.4 (4) 4.5 (3) 4.4 km/hr (4) 4.5 km/hr
Since 1949

214 HTET Model Test Papers

63. 63. Find the odd word from the given alternatives :
(1) (2) (1) Violin (2) harp
(3) (4) (3) Guitar (4) Flute
64. 16 – 4 = 2, 9 – 3 = 2, 81 – 3 = 4 64 – 4 64. If 16 – 4 = 2, 9 – 3 = 2, 81 – 3 = 4 then the value 64 – 4
is :
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 6 (3) 4 (4) 6 (1)
65. 65. The missing term of the following series is :
DBC, KIJ, QOP, ? , ZXY DBC, KIJ, QOP, ? , ZXY
(1) VUW (2) USV
(1) VUW (2) USV
(3) UTV (4) VTU
(3) UTV (4) VTU
 2
66. 10  5 8  2
  66. If 10 persons can complete   th of a work in 8 days,
12  5
then how many persons are required to complete the
(1) 6 (2) 8 remaining work in 12 days ?
(3) 10 (4) 12 (1) 6 (2) 8
67. A 7 B (3) 10 (4) 12
12 67. In a row of boys, A is 7th from the left and B is 12th
A 22 from the right. If they interchange their positions A
becomes 22nd from the left. How many total boys are
(1) 27 (2) 31 there in a row ?
(3) 33 (4) 34 (1) 27 (2) 31
68. A, 8 (3) 33 (4) 34
2 5 68. A travels 8 km from East to West and turns right and
travel 2 km. Now again he turn right and travel 5
km. In which direction is he now positioned with
(1) (2) reference to starting point ?
(3) (4) (1) South-West (2) North-West
69. A, X B, Y X (3) North-East (4) South-East
Z Y 69. In a family, A is the father of X, B is the mother of Y.
The sister of X and Z is Y. Which of the following
(1) B, A (2) B statement is definitely not true ?
(3) X, A (4) Y, Z (1) B is the wife of A (2) B has a daughter
70. A 8 (3) X is the son of A (4) Y is the sister of Z
6 70. If A walks 8 km South then turn right and walks 6 km
10 A and again turns North-East and walks 10 km. How
far is A from the starting point ?
(1) 0 (2) 8 (1) 0 km (2) 8 km
(3) 10 (4) 12 (3) 10 km (4) 12 km
71. 'PROJECT' 'CEOPRT' 71. If 'PROJECT' is coded as 'CEOPRT' and 'PLANE'
'PLANE' 'ELNP' 'ORGANISED' is coded as 'ELNP' then the 'ORGANISED' will be
coded as :
(1) ADEGIOSR (2) ADEGIROS (1) ADEGIOSR (2) ADEGIROS
(3) ADEGOIRS (4) ADEGIORS (3) ADEGOIRS (4) ADEGIORS
72. 72. The base of a right prism is a triangle whose perimeter
32 6 is 32 cm and the inradius of the triangle is 6 cm. If the
576 volume of the prism is 576 cc, then its height is :
(1) 4 (2) 5 (1) 4 cm (2) 5 cm
(3) 6 (4) 8 (3) 6 cm (4) 8 cm
73. 27 73. If the number of diagonals of a regular polygon is 27,
then the number of sides is :
(1) 6 (2) 9 (1) 6 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 12 (3) 10 (4) 12
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HTET Model Test Papers 215

74. A B 74. In two alloys A and B, the ratio of copper and zinc is
5:2 3:4 A 7 5 : 2 and 3 : 4 respectively. 7 kg of alloy A and 21 kg of
the alloy B are mixed together to form a new alloy.
B 21
What will be the ratio of copper and zinc in the new
alloy ?
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 1
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 1 75. If 7 cosec  – 3 cot  = 7 where  is in first quadrant,
75. 7 cosec – 3 cot = 7  then the value of 7 cot  – 3 cosec  is equal to :
7 cot – 3 cosec  (1) 3 (2) 5
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 3/7 (4) 5/7
(3) 3/7 (4) 5/7 76. If an equilateral triangle ABC be inscribed in a circle,
76. ABC then the tangents at their vertices will form another
triangle is :
(1) Scalene triangle
(1) (2) Isosceles triangle
(2) (3) Equilateral triangle
(3) (4) Right angled triangle
(4) 77. A shopkeeper sells an article at 15% gain. Had he
77. 15% sold it for Rs. 18 more; he would have gained 18%.
The cost price (in Rs.) of the article is :
18 18%
(1) 600 (2) 540
(3) 350 (4) 380
(1) 600 (2) 540
78. Find the wrong number in the given series :
(3) 350 (4) 380
0, 3, 9, 12, 36, 39, 42, 120, 360
78.
(1) 12 (2) 39
0, 3, 9, 12, 36, 39, 42, 120, 360
(3) 42 (4) 360
(1) 12 (2) 39
79. The difference between two positive numbers is 3. If
(3) 42 (4) 360 the sum of their squares is 369, then sum of the
79. 3 numbers is :
369 (1) 25 (2) 27
(1) 25 (2) 27 (3) 31 (4) 33
(3) 31 (4) 33 80. In a division sum, the divisor is 12 times the quotient
80. 12 and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 36,
5 36 then the dividend is :
(1) 2706 (2) 2736
(1) 2706 (2) 2736 (3) 2796 (4) 2766
(3) 2796 (4) 2766 81. In Haryana, where the Vulture Conservation Centre
81. is located ?
(1) (2) (1) Jind (2) Pinjore
(3) (4) (3) Mahendragarh (4) Ambala
82. 82. The UPSC Chairman, who subsequently became the
Governor of Haryana :
(1) Dr. A.R. Kidwai
(1)
(2) Shri Muzaffar Husain Berney
(2)
(3) Shri B.N. Chakravarti
(3)
(4) Shri Mahabir Prasad
(4)
83. In which district of Haryana, the Khelo India
83. Women's Archery rank ing competition was
organised ?
(1) (2) (1) Sonipat (2) Panipat
(3) (4) (3) Karnal (4) Yamunanagar
84. 84. Where in the Haryana, the National Institute of
Fashion Technology is located ?
(1) (2) (1) Panipat (2) Ambala
(3) (4) (3) Panchkula (4) Kurukshetra
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85. 85. She Scheme, which is being run by the Haryana
government to replace paddy crop with more tradition
crops is :
(1)
(1) Meri Fasal Mera Byora
(2)
(2) Meri Virasat
(3)
(3) Mera Pani Meri Virasat
(4)
(4) Hamara Dhan
86.
86. How many Tehsils are there in Haryana ?
(1) 95 (2) 49
(1) 95 (2) 49
(3) 143 (4) 74
(3) 143 (4) 74
87.
87. Who among the following Sages of Haryana was
popularly known as Puran Bhagat ?
(1) (1) Baba Mast Nath
(2) (2) Baba Gorakh Nath
(3) (3) Baba Chaurangi Nath
(4) (4) Baba Puran Nath
88. 88. Who is the Chief Information Officer of Haryana?
(1) (1) Smt. Jyoti Arora
(2) (2) Dr. Jagbir Singh
(3) (3) Shri Vijay Vardhan
(4) (4) Smt. Kamaldeep Bhandari
89. 1857 89. During the revolt of 1857, who among the following
attacked British establishments in Rohtak?
(1) (2) (1) Tafzal Husain (2) Imam Ali
(3) (4) (3) Mohar Singh (4) Harsukh Rai
90. 90. The Morni hills of Haryana belongs to :
(1) (1) Aravali range
(2) (2) Hindukush range
(3) (3) Outer range of Himalayas
(4) (4) Inner range of Himalayas

(Answer Key)
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (4) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. ( 4 )
21. (2) 22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (1) 29. (1) 30. (3)
31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (1) 35. (4) 36. (1) 37. (1) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (4)
41. (2) 42. (4) 43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (3) 49. (2) 50. (2)
51. (4) 52. (4) 53. (4) 54. (1) 55. (4) 56. (3) 57. (2) 58. (1) 59. (2) 60. (2)
61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (4) 64. (1) 65. (4) 66. (3) 67. (3) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (1)
71. (4) 72. (3) 73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (1) 76. (3) 77. (1) 78. (3) 79. (2) 80. (2)
81. (2) 82. (1) 83. (1) 84. (3) 85. (3) 86. (1) 87. (3) 88. (3) 89. (1) 90. (3)
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HTET Model Test Papers 217

(CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY)

I (PART-I)

1. 1. Which type of education would be appropriate for

socially deprived children?
(1) (2) (1) Informal education (2) Special deucation
(3) (4) (3) Inclusive education (4) Religious education
2. 2. Which of the following statement is correct regarding
adolescence, under Erikson's Psycho-social
development theory?
(1) Ego-identity is a positive psycho-social aspect.
(1) (2) Ego-identity is a negative psycho-social aspect.
(2) (3) Ego-identity is a neutral psycho-social aspect.
(3) (4) Ego-identity is not just a psycho-social aspect.
(4) 3. Which of the following characteristic is not seen in a
3. creative child?
(1) Divergent thinking
(1) (2) (2) Extreme curiosity
(3) (4) (3) High imaginations
4. (4) Conventional thoughts
4. Which of the following characteristics does not have
(1) a positive effect on the process of socialization?
(2) (1) Socially approved behaviour
(3) (2) Playing approved social roles
(4) (3) Development of social attitude
5. (4) Development of social prejudices
(1) 5. Vygotsky's 'Zone of Proximal Development' refers to:
(2) (1) What the child can do independently
(3) (2) What the child can't do indepndently
(3) What the child can do with guidance of knowledgeable
(4) person
(4) What the child can't do even under guidance of
6. knowledgeable person
6. If a learner does not achieved the expected
performance, what type o testing is done to find out
the reason?
(1) (2) (1) Formative (2) Diagnostic
(3) (4) (3) Remedial (4) Summative
7. 7. "Inclusion is not confined to the disable but it also
mean no exclusion of any child."
This meaning of inclusion in education has been
clarified by :
(1) 2005 (2) (1) NCF 2005 (2) NCERT
(3) (4) (3) UNESCO (4) UNICEF
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8. 8. Which type of changes occur in growth and development?
(A) (A) Change in body size
(B) (B) Change in body proportion
(C) (C) Disappearance of old features
(D) (D) Acquistion of new features
Choose the correct code :
Code :
(1) (A), (B) (C) (2) (A), (B) (D) (1) (A), (B) & (C) (2) (A), (B) & (D)
(3) (A), (C) (D) (4) (A), (B), (C) (D) (3) (A), (C) & (D) (4) (A), (B), (C) & (D)
9. 9. Which of the following statements does not explain
the positive impact of motivation on learning?
(1) (1) Motivation impairs learning behaviour
(2) (2) Motivation provide definite direction to learning
behaviour
(3) (3) Motivation energizes learning behaviour
(4) (4) Motivation make learning
10. 10. Match the stages of morality with their level, under
the Moral Development theory of Kohlberg :
Stages of Morality Level of Morality
(A) (I) (A) Good interpersonal relations (I)
(B) (II) (B) Individualism and exchange (II)
(C) (III) (C) Social contracts and (III)
individual rights
(D) (D) Universal principles
Choose the correct code :
Code :
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (I) (III) (I) (I)
(1) (I) (III) (I) (I)
(2) (III) (II) (III) (I)
(2) (III) (II) (III) (I)
(3) (II) (III) (I) (II)
(3) (II) (III) (I) (II)
(4) (II) (I) (III) (III)
(4) (II) (I) (III) (III)
11.
11. When the learner learns a task automatically, without
any desire or prupose, then it is called:
(1) (2)
(1) Massed learning (2) Whole learning
(3) (4)
(3) Part learning (4) Incidental learning
12.
12. Which of the following statement is not true regarding
biological motives?
(1) (2)
(1) They are universal (2) They are inborn
(3)
(3) They are essential to survival
(4)
(4) They are not related to the homeostasis of the individual
13.
13. Which o the following examinations are the basis of
continuous and comprehensive evaluation?
(A) (B)
(A) Written (B) Oral
(C) (D)
(C) Behavioural (D) Practical
Choose the correct code :
(1) (A), (B) (D) (2) (A), (B) (C) Code :
(3) (A), (C) (D) (4) (A), (B), (C) (D) (1) (A), (B) & (D) (2) (A), (B) & (C)
14. (3) (A), (C) & (D) (4) (A), (B), (C) & (D)
14. Which of the following statement is not correct in
(1) reference to intelligence tests?
(2) (1) Alexander's Pass along test is a performance test.
(2) Verbal test can be either individual or group.
(3) (3) Illiterate people cannot do performance test.
(4) (4) In non-verbal tests intelligence is measured through
pictures and figures.
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HTET Model Test Papers 219

15. 15. Which of the following pair is not correct regarding
elements and intelligence and their dimension under
the Three Dimensional Intelligence theory of Guilford?
Element of Intelligence Dimension
(1) Unit Product
(1) (2) Cognition Operation
(2) (3) Evaluation Operation
(3) (4) Relations Content
(4) 16. Which one of the following is not key feature of child
16. centred learning approach?
(1) Meaningful learning opportunities
(1) (2) (2) Single learning pathway
(3) (4) (3) Continuous assessment
17. (4) Accessible learning settings
17. According to Bandura, which is not the interrelated
processes of observational learning?
(1) (2) (1) Attentional Processes
(3) (4) (2) Retentional Processes
18. (3) Motivational Processes
(4) Combinatorial Processses
18. According to Bandura's Social Learning theory, what
(1) (2) is it called when a person learns the same behaviour
(3) (4) by observing and repeating the behaviour of others?
19. (1) Adaptation (2) Self-observation
(3) Modeling (4) Efficacy expectation
19. Which sub-component is not included in componential
(1) (2) intelligence under the Sternberg Triarchic Theory?
(3) (1) Meta component
(4) (2) Experimental component
20. (3) Performance component
(4) Knowledge acquisition component
(1) (2) 20. A learning disability that affects the acquisition of
(3) (4) arithmetical skill is :
21. (1) Dyscalculia (2) Dysgraphia
(3) Dyslexia (4) Dysmagnisia
(1)    21. Choose the correct sequence of the five stages of
Freud's Psycho sexual development theory :

(1) Oral stage  Phallic stage  Latency stage  Anal
(2)    stage  Genital stage
 (2) Anal stage  Latency stage  Phallic stage 
(3)    Genital stage  Oral stage
 (3) Oral stage  Anal stage  Phallic stage  Latency
(4)    stage  Genital stage
 (4) Latency stage  Anal stage  Oral stage  Genital
stage  Phallic stage
22.
22. According to Pavlov's Classical Conditioning theory of
learning, which temporal sequence presentation of
natural and conditioned stimuli will most affect learning?
(1) (2) (1) Simultaneous (2) Delay
(3) (4) (3) Trace (4) Backward
23. 23. In which stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development
theory does the ability of abstract thinking and
(1) (2) generalization develop?
(3) (4) (1) Sensory motor (2) Pre-operational
24. (3) Concrete-operational (4) Formal operational
24. Which of the following educational arrangements
shouldn't be made for talented students?
(1) (1) Opportunities for independent project work
(2) (2) Acceleration
(3) (4) (3) Remedial teaching (4) Enrichment program
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25. 25. Which one of the following is not a principle o inclusive
education?
(1) (2) (1) Principle of segregation
(3) (2) Principle of cooperation
(3) Principle of celebrating diversity
(4)
(4) Principle of right to education
26.
26. Which of the following way does not support the
teaching according to individual differences?
(1) (1) Large group of students
(2) (2) Individualized instruction
(3) (3) Curriculum adaptation
(4) (4) Knowledge of student's abilities
27. 27. Which is not a role of educational institutions in
addressing the needs of children with special need?
(1) (1) Admission to school without discrimination
(2) (2) Provide accessible infrastructural facilities
(3) (3) Identify their special needs and exclude them from
mainstreaming
(4) Provide necessary support services
(4)
28. Which of the following statement is not correct in
28. context of development.
(1) Development is the product of maturation and learning.
(1) (2) Later development is more critical than early
(2) development.
(3) Development proceeds from head to foot.
(3) (4) Development proceeds from central axis to
(4) extremities.
29. 29. The three dimensional model of the inclusive education
propounded by whom?
(1) Griffith, Cooper and Ringlaben
(1)
(2) Gartuer and Lipsky
(2) (3) Kauffman and Hallahan
(3) (4) Levenski, Davis and Hooper
(4) 30. "Socialization means attaining of maturity in social
30. relationships"
This definition of socialization is given by whom?
(1) (2) (1) John Dewey (2) Garret
(3) (4) (3) Sorenson (4) Hurlock
II (PART-II)

31. (1) = (2) =

(1) (3) = (4) = (4)
(2) 35.
(3)
(4) (1) (2)
32. (3) (4)
(1) 36.
(2) (1) (2)
(3) (3) (4)
(4) 37.
33. (1) (2)
(1) (3) (4)
(2) 38.
(3) (1)
(4) (2)
34. (3)
(4)
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HTET Model Test Papers 221

39. (3) fy[kokrk
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (4)
40. egkRek xk¡/kh Hkkjr
43.
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
41.
(1) 44.
(2) (1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3)
45.
(4)
(1)
42.
(2)
(1)
(3)
(2) (4)

LANGUAGE (ENGLISH)
46. Fill in the black with the correct option : (1) If I were a bird, I would fly to you.
Note it down ............ you should forget it. (2) If you touch a live wire, you will get a shock.
(1) that (2) because of (3) If you will read this book, you will learn grammar.
(3) till (4) lest (4) If I had reached in time, I could have saved her.
47. Choose the correct option that gives the meaning of 54. Choose the part of the sentence that is grammatically
the given idiom : incorrect :
Spill the beans He thought / he will be able to do /
(1) increase work (2) face a great loss A B
(3) to leak a secret (4) segregate whatever he wartted / with his job.
48. Fill in the black with the correct option : C D
The Pak army turned hostile .......... ISIS. (1) A (2) B
(1) to (2) for (3) C (4) D
(3) at (4) with 55. Choose the part of the sentence that is grammatically
49. Choose the correct passive o the given sentence : incorrect :
Please give me some more time. The Jews were / most reluctant /
(1) Some more time might please be given to me. A B
(2) Some more time may please be given to me. to contribute / in the Palestinian cause.
(3) Some more time could please be given to him. C D
(4) Some more time should please be given to him. (1) A (2) B
50. Which of the following options express the correct (3) C (4) D
meaning of the sentence given below? 56. The word 'slither' means :
No sooner did I reach the college than the bell rang. (1) lick (2) venomous
(1) The sooner I reached the college the earlier the bell (3) hinder (4) slide
rings. 57. Fill in the balck with the correct form of verb :
(2) I reached the college and the bell was rang after. When I last ......... her, she was deeply involved in debt.
(3) Although I reached the college the bell began to ring. (1) have met (2) met
(4) As soon as I reached the college, the bell rang. (3) has met (4) did met
51. Change the narration : 58. Fill in the balck with the correct option :
He said, "What a charming sight!" How did the thief ............ the padlock.
(1) He exclaimed with joy that it was a very charming (1) open (2) opened
sight. (3) had opened (4) had been opening
(2) He exclaimed with joy that what a charming sight it 59. Fill in the balck with the correct 'Modal Auxiliary' :
is ! ................... you mind lending me you pen? (Request)
(3) He tole with joy that is a charming sight. (1) Should (2) Ought
(4) He said to me what a charming sight it is ! (3) Would (4) Must
52. Fill in the balnk with the correct form of the verb : 60. Arrange the following jumbled options in the correct
I ................... a lot of calls today. order and then choose the correct option :
(1) had have (2) has had (A) is heartening (B) is going abroad
(3) have had (4) had had (C) the news (D) that she
53. Which of the following senences is the correct option (1) C, D, B, A (2) D, A, C, B
to express a probable condition? (3) D, C, B, A (4) D, C, A, B
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222 HTET Model Test Papers

III (PART-III) (GENERAL STUDIES)

(
(QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE, REASONING ABILITY AND G.K. & AWARENESS)
61. A 61. If A stands on his head with his face towards North,
in which direction will his left hand point?
(1) (2) (1) North-East (2) West
(3) (4) (3) East (4) North-West
62. 20 62. A boat goes 20 km downstream in one hour and the
same distance upstream in two hours. The speed of
2 the boat in still water is :
(1) 10 km/h (2) 12 km/h
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 13 km/h (4) 15 km/h
(3) 13 (4) 15 63. In a group of 15 people, 7 read Hindi, 8 read English,
63. 15 7 8 while 3 of them read none of these two. How many of
3 men read Hindi and English both?
(1) 0 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
(1) 0 (2) 3 64. In a class of 35 students, A is placed 7th from the
(3) 4 (4) 5 bottom whereas B is placed 9th from the top and C is
64. 35 A 7 placed exactly between these two. What is A's position
from C?
B 9 C
(1) 9th (2) 10th
C A
(3) 11th (4) 12th
(1) 9 (2) 10
65. In a certain code language 'CEG' is written as 'TSR'
(3) 11 (4) 12 and 'FHJ' is written as 'QPO', then in the same code
65. 'CEG' 'TSR' 'FHJ' language 'IKM' is written as :
'QPO' 'IKM' (1) NOP (2) NOL
(3) NMK (4) NML
(1) NOP (2) NOL 66. How many meaningful words can be formed with the
(3) NMK (4) NML letter EAML?
66. EAML (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) 3 (4) 4 67. The ratio of an interior angle to the exterior angle of
67. a regular polygon is 7 : 2. The number of sides of the
7:2 polygon is :
(1) 7 (2) 8 (1) 7 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 11 (3) 9 (4) 11
68. 68. Find the next term of the following number series :
2, 3, 10, 15, 26, ? 2, 3, 10, 15, 26, ?
(1) 33 (2) 34 (1) 33 (2) 34
(3) 35 (4) 36 (3) 35 (4) 36
69. A 8 B 69. Pipe A alone can fill a tank in 8 hours. Pipe B alone
can fill it in 6 hours. If both the pipes are opened and
6 after 2 hours pipe A is closed, then pipe B will ill the
2 A tank in :
B (1) 2 hours (2) 2½ hours
(1) 2 (2) 2½ (3) 3 hours (4) 3½ hours
(3) 3 (4) 3½ 70. In a certain pattern, i 38 * 15 = 32, 62 * 91 = 7 and 74
70. 38 * 15 = 32, 62 * 91 = 7 * 81 = 29, then in the same pattern the value of 47 *
74 * 81 = 29 47 * 33 33 is :
(1) 40 (2) 41 (1) 40 (2) 41
(3) 38 (4) 53 (3) 38 (4) 53
71. 17 2002 22 71. If on was Saturday on 17 December, 2002, what was
2004 the day on 22nd December, 2004?
(1) (2) (1) Sunday (2) Saturday
(3) (4) (3) Monday (4) Tuesday
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HTET Model Test Papers 223

72. 72. The next of the series is :
ZIA, X2D, V6G, T21J, ? ZIA, X2D, V6G, T21J, ?
(1) R87M (2) R87N (1) R87M (2) R87N
(3) R88P (4) R88M (3) R88P (4) R88M
73. 73. In English alphabet, the number of letters skipped in
between adjacent letter in the series is decreased by
one. Which of the following series observes the rule?
(1) DJOTV (2) DJOSV
(1) DJOTV (2) DJOSV
(3) DJOSW (4) DIOSU
(3) DJOSW (4) DIOSU
74. The radius of the circumcircle of the triangle made
74. x- y- 4x + 3y = 12 by x-axis, y-axis and 4x + 3y = 12 is :
(1) 2 Unit (2) 2.5 Unit
(1) 2 (2) 2.5 (3) 3 Unit (4) 4 Unit
(3) 3 (4) 4 75. Find the least number which must be added to 15463
75. 15463 so that the resulting number is exactly divisible by
107 107 :
(1) 52 (2) 55 (1) 52 (2) 55
(3) 71 (4) 76 (3) 71 (4) 76
76. 76. What proportion of water must be added to milk to
20% gain 20% by selling it at the cost price?
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 2 : 5 (1) 1 : 5 (2) 2 : 5
(3) 3 : 5 (4) 4 : 5 (3) 3 : 5 (4) 4 : 5
77. 4% 2 77. The ratio of compound interest and simple interest
on a certain sum at the rate of 4% per annum or 2
years is :
(1) 52 : 51 (2) 52 : 50
(1) 52 : 51 (2) 52 : 50
(3) 51 : 50 (4) 53 : 50
(3) 51 : 50 (4) 53 : 50
7 4 6 78. If A, B and C enter into a partnership with shares in
78. A, B : :
2 3 5 7 4 6
4 A the ratio : : . After 4 months, A increases his
2 3 5
50% 21,600 share by 50%, If the total profit at the end of one
B year be Rs. 21,6000, then B's share in the profit is :
(1) 2,400 (2) 3,600 (1) Rs 2,400 (2) Rs 3,600
(3) 4,000 (4) 4,200 (3) Rs 4,000 (4) Rs 4,200
79. 20% 79. A man sold an article at a loss of 20%. If he sells the
12 10% article for Rs. 12 more, he would have gained 10%.
The cost price of an article is :
(1) 22 (2) 30 (1) Rs 22 (2) Rs 30
(3) 36 (4) 40 (3) Rs 36 (4) Rs 40
1 1 1 1 1 1

a2 a 2 1 a 2 a2 a 2 1 a 2
80. 80. is equal to :
1 a 1 a 1 a 1 a
a a 1 a a 1
(1) (2) (1) (2)
a 1 2 a 1 2
2 2 2 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
a 1 1 a a 1 1 a
81. 81. Historical village Sugh is located in :
(1) (2) (1) Ambala district (2) Kurukshetra district
(3) (4) (3) Yamunanagar district (4) Panchikula distric
82. 2023 82. Which Haryanvi conquered Mount Elbrus in August,
2023?
(1) (2) (1) Sandeep Bishnoi (2) Rohtash Bishnoi
(3) (4) (3) Ajay Khichad (4) Mohit
Since 1949

224 HTET Model Test Papers

83. 83. Who among the following Governors of Haryana was
an ICS officer?
(1) (1) Shri Dharma Vir
(2) (2) Shri Muzaffar Hussain Burney
(3) (3) Shri Hari Anand Barari
(4) (4) Shri Surjit Singh Sandhawalia
84. The evidence o Stupa of Mauryan period is found at :
84.
(1) Topara (2) Bhiwani
(1) (2)
(3) Thanesar (4) Rohtak
(3) (4)
85. Geeta Jayanti Samaroh is celebrated in the month
85. of:
(1) (2) (1) Kartik (2) Margshirsh
(3) (4) (3) Ashvin (4) Shravana
86. 86. Who is the Chief Commissioner of Haryana Right to
Service Commission?
(1) (2) (1) Shri T.C. Gupta (2) Shri Vijay Vardhan
(3) (4) (3) Shri Rajesh Khullar (4) Shri Vikas Gupta
87. 87. Read the following statements about Sadhu Nischal
(i) Das :
(ii) (i) He was a Dadu's disciple.
(ii) He compiled a book 'Vichar Sagar' which is in
form of dialogue.
(1) (i) Choose the correct code :
(2) (ii) (1) Only statement (i) is correct.
(3) (i) (ii) (2) Only statement (ii) is correct.
(4) (i) (ii) (3) Neither statement (i) nor statement (ii) are correct.
88. (4) Both the statement (i) and (ii) are correct.
(1) (2) 88. In Haryana, where the Chinkara Breeding Centre is
(3) (4) located?
89. (1) Pinjore (2) Panipat
(3) Jhajjar (4) Bhiwani
(1) 1967 (2) 1966 89. When the Haryana State Co-operative Agriculture
and Rural Development Board Ltd. was established?
(3) 1980 (4) 1996
(1) January, 1967 (2) November, 1966
90.
(3) March, 1980 (4) January, 1996
90. Where in Haryana, the Indian Institute of Information
(1) (2) Technology is located?
(3) (4) (1) Sonipat (2) Panipat
(3) Ambala (4) Kurukshetra

(Answer Key)
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (3) 15. (4) 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (1)
21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (2) 29. (1) 30. (4)
31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (2) 36. (2) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (2) 40. (3)
41. (4) 42. (2) 43. (3) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (1) 49. (2) 50. (4)
51. (1) 52. (3) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (4) 56. (4) 57. (2) 58. (1) 59. (3) 60. (3)
61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (2) 64. (2) 65. (4) 66. (3) 67. (3) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (2)
71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (2) 74. (2) 75. (1) 76. (1) 77. (3) 78. (3) 79. (4) 80. (4)
81. (3) 82. (2) 83. (1) 84. (3) 85. (2) 86. (1) 87. (4) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90. (1)