G650 Pilot Initial Study Guide

FlightSafety International
Savannah Learning Center
301 Robert B. Miller Road
Index
Savannah, GA 31408
www.FlightSafety.com

REVISION 2.87
REVISION
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_81
( R
INDEX
Aircraft General .................................................................... 3
Avionics .................................................................................. 7
Fuel ....................................................................................... 23
Electrical .............................................................................. 25
Powerplant ........................................................................... 31
Hydraulics ............................................................................ 37
Flight Controls .................................................................... 39
APU....................................................................................... 46
Landing Gear & Brakes ..................................................... 49
Pneumatics ........................................................................... 54
Air Conditioning ................................................................. 56
Pressurization ...................................................................... 57
Ice & Rain Protection ......................................................... 59
Fire Protection ..................................................................... 62
Oxygen.................................................................................. 65
Water & Waste .................................................................... 67

WARNING
This document contains technical data whose export is restricted by the Arms Export
Control Act (Title 22, U.S.C., Sec 2751, et seq.) or the Export Administration Act of
1979, as amended (Title 50, U.S.C., App. 2401 et seq.). Violations of these export
laws are subject to severe criminal penalties.

2 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
Aircraft General
1. What is Gulfstream’s Cabin Essential It’s incorporated into cabin systems to
design? enhance reliability of entertainment,
lighting and service systems. Major cabin
systems are designed with redundancy so
single-point failure doesn’t result in loss
of cabin functionality.

Ref: Gulfstream’s website

2. What dampens main entry door during Trapped fluid
opening?

Ref: AOM 2A
3. What happens when outside door Circuit energizes to CLOSE provided
switch is selected to CLOSE? EXTERNAL BATTERY switch is
selected ON, aux pump operates, and the
door closes. Once the door is closed and
electrically latched, circuit deenergizes,
aux pump shuts off, and EXTERNAL
BATTERY is selected to OFF.

Ref: PTH
4. What’s the purpose of DOOR When depressed, it prevents the door from
SAFETY switch? closing.

Ref: PTH
5. How could you investigate baggage A peep hole is provided to inspect
compartment from main cabin without baggage compartment in the event of
opening the baggage compartment onboard fire in baggage area.
door?

Ref: AOM 2A
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 3
6. Describe the seal on external baggage It features a passive seal to maintain
door. pressurization.

Ref: AOM 2A
7. What is EVAS? Emergency Vision Assurance System
(EVAS) is provided in cockpit (one unit
for each pilot). In the event of smoke in
cockpit, Inflatable Vision Unit (IVU) is
deployed to provide improved visibility of
flight displays and aircraft flight path
through windscreen.

Ref: AOM 2A
8. What are the primary escape routes on Main entry door and four (4) emergency
G650? exit windows

Ref: AOM 2A
9. What information is stored on cockpit Most recent two (2) hours of all audio
voice recorder (CVR)? signals transmitted and received by
aircraft crew members, including all
conversation in cockpit: last 30 minutes of
data is safely stored in solid state
memory.

Ref: AOM 2A
10. What are the requirements for erasing Aircraft must be stationary with main
CVR? cabin door open and WOW system in
ground mode.

Ref: AOM 2A

4 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
Lighting
11. What happens when ANN LIGHTS All lights and digital readouts illuminate in cockpit
test switch is pressed and held? except for:
. Cabin Pressure Indicating panel indicates all 8’s
and cabin rate of climb pointer rotates
counterclockwise to 6000 fpm down
. OXYGEN “PASSENGER” ON light
. Fire handles
. Fuel switch lights
. ELT switch panel, red light on
. EMER & MIC selections on ACP’s
Ref: PTH
12. What happens when MASTER Aircraft is configured for night flying: as knob is
CONTROL knob on COCKPIT rotated from OFF to nighttime setting, annunciator
LIGHTS panel is rotated clockwise lights dim and panel backlighting illuminates.
from OFF to small tick mark? Ref: AOM 2A
13. What happens when MASTER Full clockwise rotation brings all annunciator
CONTROL knob is rotated clockwise lights to full bright and further rotation to ORIDE
to ORIDE? illuminates the cockpit overhead dome light and
side console floodlights

Ref: AOM 2A
14. What’s the purpose of VEST LTS Used as alternate means for turning off vestibule or
ORIDE switch on side console panel? companionway lights for aircrew convenience.
When selected, blue ON displays inside
switchlight, and vestibule lights extinguish if
they’re illuminated.
Ref: AOM 2A
15. How many flashlights are in the Two: one (1) for captain and one (1) for copilot
cockpit? Ref: AOM 2A
16. When do No Smoking indicator signs When passenger masks are deployed either
in cabin come on automatically? manually or automatically
Ref: AOM 2A
17. Describe function of RAMP light It illuminates pylon lights for loading bags and
switch in baggage compartment. possibly for maintenance related activities: one
light shines out from under each pylon.
Ref: AOM 2A
18. Do utility lights in tail compartment No, they extinguish when tail compartment door is
need to be turned OFF prior to exiting closed unless the switch in baggage compartment
the compartment? is also selected to ON.
Ref: AOM 2A
19. What’s the purpose of beacon / When illuminated, it alerts outside observers that
recognition light? something is powered. During flight, it functions
as warning and recognition light.
Ref: G650-PI-PIE-PR-LTS presentation
20. How many strobe lights are on G650? Three (3) LED assemblies: one (1) light assembly
installed in aft portion of the tailcone and one (1)
in each wing tip.
Ref: AOM 2A

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 5
21. Describe navigation light location. They’re located on each wing-tip (green on right
and red on left) and one in aft tailcone fairing
(white).
Ref: AOM 2A
22. How would you know if NAV or A fault indicator light is integrated into each
strobe has failed? assembly and provides indication of LED failure.
For single LED failure, the light illuminates solid
amber color which indicates that servicing is
required. For multiple LED failures, the light
flashes and clearly alerts ground crews that aircraft
cannot be dispatched.

Ref: AOM 2A
23. What are logo lights? They’re mounted on underside of left and right
horizontal stabilizer and illuminate the aircraft logo
on vertical stabilizer.
Ref: AOM 2A
24. Describe the landing lights on G650. They’re fixed aim, one on each side, mounted in a
light tunnel. They’re high intensity discharge
lamps: not LED.
Ref: AOM 2A
25. When is use of landing lights Strongly encouraged for takeoff and landing and
recommended? during any operations below 10,000’ or within 10
NM of airport.
Ref: FAR/AIM
26. Describe the taxi lights. They consist of three LED taxi light assemblies
(left, center and right) mounted on steerable portion
of nose landing gear actuator assembly.
Ref: AOM 2A
27. When do taxi lights automatically Gear retraction
extinguish?
Ref: AOM 2A
28. How many wing tip flood lights are Two (2) LED lights on each wing tip: one shines
there on G650? forward and one shines downward
Ref: AOM 2A
29. Which exterior lights on G650 are not Landing lights
LED?
Ref: AOM 2A
30. Where can you turn on wheel well Controlled from two places: one switch is inside
lights? and one outside. Inside: controlled from switch on
Exterior Lights Control Panel labeled WHL WELL.
Outside: controlled from switch on Security / Gnd
Svc panel labeled WHEEL WELL LTS.
Ref: AOM 2A
31. There are a number of exterior There are three (3) overwing lights for each wing,
evacuation lights provided to assist two (2) underwing lights mounted on wing to body
passengers while exiting the airplane fairing, and a main entry door light.
in the dark. Where are they located?
Ref: AOM 2A

6 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
Avionics
32. Describe Modular Avionics Units They’re the main computers and processors that
(MAU’s). control most avionics related applications on the
aircraft.

Ref: PTH
33. Describe the function of Touch When pressed and held, it momentarily interrupts the
Control Steering (TCS) button. autopilot.

Ref: PTH
34. Which display units (DU’s) are DU #2 and #3
referred to as Multifunction Displays
(MFD’s)?

Ref: PTH
35. Which DU can be failed for DU #3
dispatch?
Ref: MMEL
36. What limitation is placed on use of They’re for ground use only (i.e., for MEL dispatch
the switches located on DISPLAY ability)
SYSTEM CONTROL panel?
Ref: AOM 2B
37. What’s the primary purpose of To display Standby Flight Display (SFD)
SMC?
Ref: AOM 2B
38. Name some occasions when SFD is Loss of:
automatically displayed. PFD
Unusual attitudes
Break power transfer
Instrument comparison issues
SFD failure of either

Ref: AOM 2B
39. Can you dispatch with failure of Yes, you can dispatch with failure of one or both
cursor control device (CCD)? CCD’s.

Ref: MMEL
40. What part of the displays is the ADI; otherwise, it can move anywhere in a display
cursor restricted from entering? window on its associated DU’s. It’s further restricted
with SVS.

Ref: AOM 2B
41. What happens if both cursors are Last cursor wins and first cursor is removed from the
selected to same DU? display.

Ref: AOM 2B
42. What’s the purpose of Guidance It provides most of controls for operation of
Panel (GP)? Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS).

Ref: AOM 2B

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 7
43. An ATC cleared altitude should Pilot monitoring
always be set into GP preselect
window by whom?
Ref: PTH
44. What does RAAS stand for? Runway Awareness and Advisory System; runway
advisories can be inhibited by depressing RAAS
INHIBIT switch

Ref: AOM 2B
45. Name some functions of MCDU. Calculates lateral and vertical navigation guidance
for display and coupling to Flight Guidance System,
develops composite position using multiple sensor
inputs, calculates all performance information, and
provides radio and SSPC interface. Remember four
(4) major functions: navigation, performance, radio
and SSPC interface.

Ref: AOM 2B
46. What’s the source of information to Three (3) MAU’s, three (3) MCDU’s and other
DU’s? sensors

Ref: AOM 2B
47. How can a default value be restored Generally by using *DELETE* function on the
on MCDU during performance appropriate line
initialization?
Ref: AOM 2B
48. How are pilot entries generally Large characters
displayed on MCDU?
Ref: AOM 2B
49. How are configuration mismatches In INVERSE VIDEO (i.e., highlighted)
indicated on MCDU?
Ref: AOM 2B
50. Name some functions controlled and Tire pressure display, semi-mode CPCS controller,
monitored from UTIL menu of refuel controller which also continuously displays
SMC. fuel quantity, engine oil display, and hydraulic fluid
quantity display

Ref: AOM 2B
51. The line select adjacent to 25,000 feet. When LSK is pressed, the CAS/MACH
CAS/MACH display on PFD ADI display does not box. The only annunciation is the
menu toggles the airspeed tape change of display units in the airspeed tape
between calibrated airspeed and
mach number only when the aircraft
is above what altitude?
Ref: PTH
52. What’s the primary symbol used to Flight Path Vector (FPV): displayed as green circle
control the aircraft with the HUD? with one green line on top and one on each side of
the circle. It represents where the mass of airplane is
going. Note: caged FPV is open on the bottom.

Ref: AOM 2B
8 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
53. What is a lateral discontinuity? Lateral gap in flight plan

AOM 2B
54. How do you know if a chart is GEO
referenced? A white or green icon appears in
right corner of chart’s title bar which enables
aircraft’s actual position (displayed as green airplane
symbol) to be displayed

Ref: AOM 2B
55. While checking the SENSOR page During power up, FGC and AT alternates between 1
of SMC, what selection would you and 2 every flight.
expect to see for FGC and AT?
Ref: AOM 2B
56. What does an amber MAG2 indicate It alerts the crew that both pilots are using same
on both PFD’s? source for heading information: in this case, IRS #2.

Ref: AOM 2B
57. What does an amber RA2 indicate It alerts the crew that both pilots’ flight instruments
on both PFD’s? are receiving radio altimeter data from same source
(i.e., on sensor page of SMC)

Ref: AOM 2B
58. What does it mean when ALT is Indicates the engine is operating in alternate control
boxed in cyan on ENG ALT CTRL mode (i.e., engine computer controlling the speed of
page of SMC? LP)

Ref: AOM 2B
59. When are V speeds displayed with Once the FMS receives necessary data for
an asterisk on FLT REF page of computation. When all FMS parameters for takeoff
SMC? are met, the speeds displayed on SMC automatically
box, asterisks are removed and speeds are displayed
on both PFD airspeed tapes.

Ref: AOM 2B
60. How does the FMS compute VREF It’s based solely on flap handle position, current
speed? aircraft weight and altitude

Ref: AOM 2B
61. What does it mean to preview a PREVIEW prompt on SMC enables the crew to
course? select a short range NAV source for display on HSI
even though FMS (long range navigation) is still the
active Nav source.

Ref: AOM 2B
62. What do the top “T” and bottom Upper and lower limit of data displayed on the HUD
inverted “T” represent on the
combiner during HUD test?
Ref: AOM 2B

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 9
63. What’s the normal display location When 2/3 window format is selected for DU2 and
of primary engine instruments and DU3, primary engine instrument information is
CAS? always displayed in upper 1/6 window on DU2. CAS
information is normally displayed in upper 1/6
window on DU3.

Ref: AOM 2B
64. What’s the restriction on selection of Full window cannot be selected on both DU2 and
full windows on DU2 and DU3? DU3 at the same time.

Ref: AOM 2B
65. What’s the source of HUD symbols? HUD computer

Ref: AOM 2B
66. What’s the source of EVS image? EVS camera, unlike the HUD, uses infrared
technology and is optimized to detect runway
lighting.

Ref: AOM 2B
67. How should cloth cover be removed Rockwell Collins recommends removing the cloth
from the combiner? cover after combiner is moved to the operating
position. In like fashion, they recommend reattaching
cloth cover before moving combiner to the stow
position.

Ref: PTH
68. What would indicate that combiner “ALIGN HUD” message appears on combiner
not placed in correct operating display. If this occurs, carefully reposition combiner
position? glass and allow it to snap into detents. Don’t use the
HUD if “ALIGN HUD” message continues to be
displayed.

Ref: PTH
69. Why does the combiner have a It’s a safety feature that allows combiner glass to
breakaway position? rotate toward windscreen with head impact and lock
in place during sudden deceleration of the aircraft.
This minimizes head injury.

Ref: PTH
70. What is NUC? NUC stands for Non-Uniformity Correction. It’s a
calibration process that results in cleaner picture and
occurs during camera power-up, flaps selected from
0° to 10° or, manual NUC selected.

Ref: AOM 2B
71. How do you know when EVS image After camera cool down, the system performs NUC
is available for display? check, then FLIR flashes on combiner and goes
steady or EVS A, H, or L is displayed. If aircraft is
cold or hot soaked, cool down may take up to 35
minutes.
Ref: AOM 2B
10 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
72. HUD symbols are described as being Conformal symbol has real-world counterpart (e.g.,
either conformal or non-conformal. horizon line represents the horizon degree for
What’s the difference? degree). Altitude dial is considered non-conformal
since it doesn’t represent anything in real world.

Ref: AOM 2B
73. What does Aircraft Reference Projected centerline of aircraft (boresight)
symbol (or Boresight symbol)
represent on the HUD?
Ref: AOM 2B
74. Why does the horizon line flash on To indicate that it’s no longer conformal
HUD at nose high and nose low
attitudes?
Ref: AOM 2B
75. What’s the difference between In UNCAGED mode, FPV is free to roam horizontally
uncaged and caged modes on HUD? and vertically. In CAGED mode, FPV is free to move
vertically; however, it’s locked in horizontal center.
This is necessary to keep FPV from drifting off the
lateral limits of combiner in high cross winds. In
CAGED mode, FPV indicates the plane’s heading and
ghost FPV represents track. In UNCAGED mode,
boresight represents heading and FPV represents track.

Ref: AOM 2B
76. Describe the three (3) levels of EVS AUTO, H for high, and L for low. Select AUTO if
camera gain. you want camera to automatically adjust the gain, H
for low visibility, and L for night VMC or day with
smog. Selection indications appear on upper left
portion of combiner: EVS A for AUTO, EVS H for
high, or EVS L for low.

Ref: AOM 2B
77. Describe operation of EVS WSHLD When selected, switchlight indicates blue ON and
HT switch. two minutes of continuous heat is provided to EVS
windshield. Otherwise, operation is automatic if
aircraft is airborne and cowl anti-ice is ON.

Ref: AOM 2A
78. How is heat depicted on EVS Hotter items from IR camera are depicted on FLIR
image? synoptic video page as lighter while items with less
heat are depicted as darker

Ref: G650-P-AVN presentation

79. Describe some factors that affect Thick clouds, thermal crossover, blooming, and
EVS performance. misalignment

Ref: G650-P-AVN presentation

80. How can you increase chances of Make sure the lights are set to full bright prior to
seeing approach and runway lights commencing the approach and select high gain
with EVS in low visibility?
Ref: PTH
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 11
81. What are the requirements for You need EVS lights to descend below DA and you
descending below DA with EVS? need visual cues without the aid of EVS at 100 ft
above TDZE in order to continue and land.

Ref: FAR 91.176(b)

82. Flight director or autopilot with An obstacle-free path is present if runway is served
vertical guidance, either ILS or FMS by an approach to a Decision Altitude (DA).
vertical path, is required for all IMC
EVS approaches. How do you
determine if an obstacle-free path is
present?
Ref: FAA Order 8900.1, AFM 01-34-70
83. At what altitude does airport symbol 2000’ above airport
normally appear on the HUD?
Ref: AOM 2B
84. When does runway symbol replace At 350 ft RA, runway symbol joins the airport
the airport symbol? symbol and at 325 ft RA, the airport symbol
disappears. Runway symbol is removed from display
at 60 ft RA.

Ref: AOM 2B
85. When does flare cue appear? Flare cues appear at 100 ft and move upward as
aircraft approaches the ground and provides flare
guidance.

Ref: AOM 2B
86. What is provided on HUD unusual G-load digital readout
attitude display to prevent you from
over stressing aircraft during
recovery?
Ref: HUD II Pilot’s Guide.pdf
87. What is RNP? Required Nav performance is the accuracy in NM
required for navigation in the area the aircraft is
flying and affects CDI sensitivity (i.e., lower RNP
equates to greater CDI sensitivity).

Ref: AOM 2B
88. What is EPU? Estimated position uncertainty is the calculated
estimate of accuracy of navigation equipment aboard
the aircraft. If EPU exceeds RNP, numbers are
highlighted by cautionary amber overlay and CDI
needle turns amber.

Ref: AOM 2B
89. What does the magenta dashed line Actual track from IRS
extending from nose of aircraft to
the compass arc represent on map
display?

Ref: AOM 2B

12 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
90. The alerting function is performed FWC for Fault Warning Computer
by Monitor Warning Function
(MWF) installed within MAU. How
is this labeled on SMC?
Ref: AOM 2B
91. How are CAS messages arranged? Chronologically: most recent at the top

Ref: AOM 2A-31-00

92. What color messages can be scrolled Blue and amber messages can be scrolled: red cannot
off the CAS display?
Ref: AOM 2B
93. Describe what happens when red or Message displays in inverse video on CAS display,
amber message becomes active. an aural alert sounds (i.e., three chimes for red or two
for amber), and respective annunciator on master
warning panel illuminates (i.e., red W for red or
amber C for amber). When annunciator/button is
pushed on master warning panel, the annunciator
extinguishes, tone silences, and message displays
normally on CAS display. If there are red messages
already on CAS display when new red message
becomes active, new message is placed at top of red
message stack. If there are amber messages already
on CAS display when new amber message becomes
active, new message is placed at top of amber
message stack.

Ref: AOM 2B
94. Describe what happens when a blue Blue messages flash for five (5) seconds on CAS
message becomes active. display and then display normally, and blue message
aural alert sounds (one chime). No pilot action is
required to acknowledge blue messages: you get one
(1) chime only. If there are blue messages already on
CAS display when new blue message becomes
active, new message is displayed at the top of blue
message stack.

Ref: AOM 2B
95. What’s the difference between the Red relates to injury or loss of life; amber relates to
meaning of red and amber CAS damage to or loss of equipment.
message?

Ref: AOM 2A-31-00

96. What color CAS message means DO Amber
NOT DISPATCH?
AFM 01-45-50
97. Depressing GPWS ORIDE switch Windshear
on either Master Warning panel
inhibits all GPWS aural warnings
and cautions except for what?
Ref: AOM 2B

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 13
98. In what kind of situation would you Used to inhibit GPWS alerts while flying day VFR
depress GPWS ORIDE switch? approach in areas of high terrain

Ref: PTH
99. What callouts are inhibited with GPWS Mode 6 advisory callouts of altitudes during
selection of RAD ALT switch? approach and landing except for “minimums” and
“bank angle”

Ref: AOM 2B
100. If you were intentionally flying Depress amber BELOW GS / cyan GS INHIBIT
below ILS glide slope, how could switch on Master Warning panel
you inhibit below glide slope
callouts?
Ref: AOM 2B
101. When INHIBIT switch is depressed, Aural tones for most amber and blue CAS messages
which aural tones are inhibited?
Ref: AOM 2B
102. When is INHIBIT automatically On takeoff or go-around at 400 feet AGL if landing
deselected? gear is retracted. After landing, it remains selected
until shutdown unless manually cancelled.

Ref: AOM 2B
103. When would pilot’s PFD Failure of DU #1 (or respective AGM)
automatically be placed onto DU #2?
Ref: AOM 2B
104. When would copilot’s PFD Failure of DU #4 (or respective AGM)
automatically be placed onto DU #3?
Ref: AOM 2B
105. Describe AGM assignments. AGM #1 controls data and graphics displays for DU #1.
AGM #2 controls data and graphics displays for DU #2.
AGM #3 controls data and graphics displays for DU #3.
AGM #4 controls data and graphics displays for DU #4.

Ref: AOM 2B
106. What would a big red X indicate on Loss of data (i.e., failure of associated AGM)
a DU?
Ref: AOM 2B
107. What would be indicated if a DU DU has failed or is unpowered
had a black display?
Ref: AOM 2B
108. What’s the purpose of DISPLAY Allows aircraft to dispatch with single AGM failed
SYSTEM CONTROL switches?
Ref: AOM 2B
109. With airplane on ground, if AGM 1, DU 3 will “Red X” and DU associated with failed
2 or 4 fails, selecting corresponding AGM receives graphics from one of the remaining
DISPLAY SYSTEM CONTROL AGM’s.
switch to ALT position causes what
to occur?
Ref: AOM 2B

14 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
110. What happens if DISPLAY Power is removed from DU and the display turns
SYSTEM CONTROL switch is black.
selected to OFF on ground?
Ref: AOM 2B
111. What happens if DISPLAY Nothing
SYSTEM CONTROL switch is
selected to OFF during flight?
Ref: AOM 2B
112. Which displays are considered most In terms of hierarchy, PFD’s are considered most
important? important followed by engine instrument display and
CAS.

Ref: AOM 2B
113. If DU1 fails and is subsequently In flight, you’ll need to hold SMC “2/3” selection
regained by performing Display Unit switch capsule in depressed position for three (3)
(DU) Failure procedure in QRH, the seconds
PFD comes back on DU1 and also
remains displayed on DU2. How can
you unlatch the display and regain
your MAP or synoptic?
Ref: QRH
114. With DU #2 and #3 failed, how You’d have to first unlatch DU’s by pressing and
would you replace one PFD with a holding 2/3 button on SMC for three seconds: then
synoptic page? select MAP button on the side you want the synoptic
page followed by selection of a synoptic.

Ref: AOM 2B
115. What happens when the pilot One channel of autopilot is connected to autopilot
engages autopilot with AP switch on system servos that move control wheel and column in
Guidance Panel? much the same way as pilot.

Ref: AOM 2B
116. What tone is associated with Three (3) tone chime (low – high – low)
autopilot disengagement?
Ref: AOM 2B
117. The autopilot is fail operational or If one fails, it automatically switches to the other
fail passive. What does that mean?
Ref: AOM 2B
118. What happens when PFD CMD All lateral and vertical modes are cancelled except
button is pressed to change which for PIT and ROL, and have to be re-engaged. Though
PFD is coupled to FGC? all lateral and vertical modes are cancelled, autopilot
remains engaged.

Ref: PTH
119. When engaged on ILS approach and Both navigation receivers’ data is being averaged by
below 1200 feet RA, both green FGC.
triangles illuminate on PFD CMD
switch. What does this mean?
Ref: PTH

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 15
120. Describe the methodology behind In all cases, a green mode annunciation (right side of
flight mode annunciations on the mode window) indicates the particular mode is
PFD. engaged, while a white mode annunciation (left side
of mode window) indicates the particular mode is
armed only. Whenever a mode transitions from
armed to engaged, that mode is surrounded by green
box for five (5) seconds to alert the crew that a mode
has engaged.

Ref: PTH
121. What must the source of navigation Since all VNAV vertical modes are based on FMS
be when selecting VNAV? altitude and/or constraints, FMS must be the selected
NAV source.

Ref: PTH
122. What is FLCH mode? In all cases, FLCH modes are speed hold modes (IAS
or MACH), meaning the aircraft changes pitch as
required to maintain whatever speed is being
displayed in GP’s speed window.

Ref: PTH
123. How does climb or descent rate vary It varies depending on whether the altitude change is
with FLCH? less than or greater than 6,000 feet (i.e., < 6,000 feet
uses a throttle setting proportional to the amount of
climb or descent, and > 6,000 feet uses full power or
idle).

Ref: PTH
124. What’s the recommended technique Sync the heading knob, select heading mode, and
when given a heading? then spin the heading knob

Ref: PTH
125. What’s the purpose of LOW BANK Used to toggle between HIGH bank angle and LOW
switch? bank angle while engaged lateral mode is Heading
Select

Ref: PTH
126. When VGP is the engaged vertical It’ll be ignored by AFCS just as in the case of an ILS
mode, what’s the effect of any approach
altitude set in GP’s altitude preselect
window?
Ref: PTH
127. What happens when the altitude hold If ALT not active, vertical mode immediately
button is pressed? changes to ALT, green cue light illuminates and the
altitude that existed at the instant the button was
pressed is held. If ALT is active, ALT hold is
deselected and the aircraft goes into PIT hold mode.

Ref: PTH
16 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
128. When is retard mode activated? Radio altitude < 50 feet and gear down

Ref: PTH
129. What’s the indication of normal AT AT1 or AT2 flashes amber for five (5) seconds along
disengagement? with an aural tone (e.g., lo-lo-lo)

Ref: PTH
130. What does the thrust director Difference between EPR command bug and EPR
represent? target bug

Ref: AOM 2B
131. True/False: GPS is capable of SBAS True
or WAAS signals which enables
G650 to execute Localizer
Performance with Vertical Guidance
(LPV) approaches.
Ref: AOM 2B
132. What are the long range sensors on Two (2) GPS’s and three (3) IRU’s. Hybrid IRS’s are
G650? primary source of navigation input to MCDU’s: they
receive GPS input which greatly improves accuracy
and reduces drift rate. If both GPS’s fail or entire
GPS network goes down, FMS or MCDU uses a
performance based sensor selection scheme that
looks at the EPU of each sensor to select best
performing sensor.
Ref: AOM 2B

133. What are the primary short-range VOR/DME and DME/DME

sensors on G650?

Ref: AOM 2B
134. Where is the navigation sensor PROGRESS page 1
currently selected for use displayed
on MCDU?
Ref: AOM 2B
135. What should be considered during Minimum equipment list which specifies the
the preflight and prior to minimum equipment required for conducting
commencing an RNP approach? approaches with specific RNP’s.

Ref: AOM 2B
136. What does the “U” indicate on It indicates the sensor is being used for navigation
position sensor page of FMS?
Ref: AOM 2B
137. What kind of information do IRU’s Using positional changes detected on each axis, a
provide? microprocessor within IRU calculates position,
velocity, heading and attitude data for the aircraft.

Ref: AOM 2B

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 17
138. Following shutdown, what Respective amber ON BAT lights illuminate on IRS
indications would you have if you Mode Select panel as well as ON BATT light in
forgot to select the IRU’s to OFF? Security / Ground Service panel.

Ref: AOM 2A

139. What would an amber HDG or ATT A heading or attitude different from the other pilot’s
comparator warning indicate on
PFD?
Ref: AOM 2B
140. What would red HDG FAIL and red IRS failure
ATT FAIL annunciations indicate on
PFD?
Ref: AOM 2B
141. What’s the default heading and Attitude / Heading Reference System (AHRS) unit
attitude reference for each SFD? and magnetometer: attitude from AHRS and heading
from magnetometer

Ref: AOM 2B
142. True/False: If the aircraft is in-air True
and onside selected heading source
becomes invalid, the SMC
automatically switches to next valid
source.
Ref AOM 2B
143. How can you select another heading Pressing the M on BRT knob and select either HDG
reference for SFD? 1, 2, or 3 (IRS 1, 2 or 3 selection for heading source).
Default is Standby but you can select IRS 1, 2 or 3.

Ref: AOM 2B
144. Describe the purpose of Air Data It measures pressure and temperature of outside air
System (ADS). and supplies this data to using systems. Processed air
data provided by ADC’s include things like pressure
altitude, calibrated airspeed, vertical speed, true
airspeed, mach number, AOA, and side slip.

Ref: AOM 2A
145. Why are TAT probes aspirated by To improve accuracy of temperature readings
bleed air on the ground?

Ref: AOM 2A
146. Which Audio Control Panels All: pilot’s, copilot’s and flight observer’s
(ACP’s) are powered by emergency
batteries? Ref: AOM 2B
147. What’s the normal operating mode Simplex mode (SIMPL) and Upper sideband voice
for HF radios? (UV)

Ref: AOM 2B

18 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
148. What do the letters “A”, “R”, “M” or “A” stands for automatic while “R” indicates the
“V” represent next to a Nav frequency has been remotely tuned. “M” indicates
frequency on MCDU? the frequency can only be tuned on MCDU RADIO
page (i.e., FMS TUNE selected OFF on sub-level
page). A “V” indicates that automatic tuning is
suspended or inhibited because that Nav Aid is
selected for use.

Ref: AOM 2B
149. Describe some features of G650’s It controls antenna scan, collects weather and terrain
weather radar. info, and stores it in three-dimensional (3-D)
volumetric memory that is continuously updated and
compensated for aircraft movement. Some
operational modes include ground mapping,
turbulence detection and predictive windshear
feature.

Ref: AOM 2B
150. What is primary and secondary Primary weather is defined as weather along your
weather and how is it depicted? flight path or flight plan altitude: it’s depicted in
solid colors. Secondary weather is the weather
outside of your flight path or flight plan altitude: it’s
depicted with cross hatching.

Ref: AOM 2B
151. What’s the best policy regarding Avoiding thunderstorms is the best policy. Avoid by
thunderstorms? at least 20 miles any thunderstorm identified as
severe or giving an intense radar echo.

Ref: AIM
152. What color is turbulence displayed Magenta
on the weather radar?
Ref: AOM 2B
153. What happens when GND ORIDE is This mode overrides forced standby and allows
selected? operation of radar on ground: it’s deselected when
you get airborne.

Ref: AOM 2B
154. True/False: If WX is selected and True
there’s a terrain threat, EGPWS
displays threats on map and PFD,
regardless of previous display
selection.
Ref: AOM 2B
155. How is predicted windshear By series of red and black bands in the area of
displayed? windshear event followed by searchlights (amber
lines outside of black lines) extending from far edge
of windshear event on each side and to the edge of
WX data buffer

Ref: AOM 2B
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 19
156. What does EGPWS use to predict Internal worldwide terrain database along with
potential conflicts between aircraft geographic position information
flight path and terrain?

Ref: AOM 2B
157. Where can terrain be displayed? On PFD and/or MAP (including VSD)

Ref: AOM 2B

158. What are the two VSD terrain Terrain under Flight Plan and Terrain under Track.
display modes? When VSD mode is Terrain under Track, green
TRACK is displayed below horizontal axis of the
display. When the mode is Terrain under Flight Plan,
the mode annunciation is removed.

Ref: AOM 2B
159. What’s the relative elevation of At or above aircraft’s altitude.
terrain depicted in red or yellow?

Ref: AOM 2B
160. The caution look ahead distance is 40 to 60
computed from aircraft ground speed
and turn rate to provide advanced
warning and adequate time for crew
response. Depending on the
situation, this distance roughly
corresponds to how many seconds of
advance warning.

Ref: AOM 2B
161. What’s the difference between Amber WINDSHEAR is for proverse (increasing
amber and red WINDSHEAR performance) windshear. Red WINDSHEAR is for
warnings? adverse (decreasing performance) windshear
condition.

Ref: AOM 2B
162. What’s the difference between Amber TERRAIN indicates that terrain ahead may
amber and red TERRAIN warnings? be higher than airplane altitude. Red TERRAIN
indicates that terrain ahead is higher than airplane
altitude.

Ref: AOM 2B
20 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
163. What is Windshear / CFIT vertical 1. Disconnect autopilot / autothrottle and apply
escape maneuver? power to mechanical forward limit.
2. Rotate at 3 to 4° per second to increase pitch
attitude to highest possible value, not to exceed 30°,
while simultaneously retracting speed brakes, if
deployed.
3. When PLI appears on PFD, maintain pitch attitude
/ flight path angle slightly below the PLI.
4. If shaker is encountered, reduce pitch rate / angle-
of-attack to maintain V2/VREF ± 10 knots.
5. DO NOT retract flaps or landing gear until safe
climbout is assured.

Ref: QRH
164. When would you select the The terrain awareness display feature shall be
TERRAIN INHIBIT switch to ON? selected OFF (TERRAIN INHIBIT switch selected
ON) when within 15 NM of the departure or
destination airport when the airport is not contained
in the EGPWS terrain database. Searching for an
airport within the
EPIC EGPWS terrain database, or downloading the
entire EPIC EGPWS terrain database, can be
performed at the following
Honeywell web site:
https://ads.honeywell.com/search/egpwsSearch

Ref: AFM Limitations

165. When would you select GPWS/ In accordance with checklist: to ensure automatic
GND SPLR FLAP ORIDE switch to ground spoiler deployment occurs with wheel spin up
ON? if flaps < 22° and all other parameters are satisfied.
Also to inhibit GPWS voice alarm,
“TOO LOW, FLAPS.”

Ref: AOM 2B
166. Where can traffic be displayed? Three places: HSI, MAP, and TCAS synoptic page

Ref: AOM 2B
167. What’s the normal TCAS vertical Auto range is ±2700’, +9900’/-2700’ for climbing, &
display range? +2700’/-9900’ for descending

Ref: AOM 2B
168. What indications do you get on PFD Amber DH annunciator is displayed in raster cutout:
at decision height? it flashes for five (5) seconds and then remains
steady.

Ref: AOM 2B
169. How is the altitude preselect window As green dashed line across the display and digital
on GP depicted on VSD? readout in upper left corner of the display

Ref: AOM 2B
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 21
170. What type of approaches can be Any approach in FMS data base, except localizer
flown in blue data? based approaches (e.g., ILS, back course, LDA &
SDF).

Ref: AOM 2B
171. What’s the difference between a Messages from aircraft to ground are referred to as
downlink and uplink message? downlink messages (indicated by down arrow) and
messages from ground to aircraft are referred to as
uplink messages (indicated by up arrow). Downlink
messages are blue and uplink messages are green.

Ref: AOM 2B

172. What’s the difference between the Honeywell uses the term ATC Comm to describe
terms “ATC Comm” and “AOC?” datalink communications with ATC, and uses the
term Aeronautical Operational Communications
(AOC) to refer to everything else. Think of AOC as
All Other Communication.

Ref: AOM 2B

173. What’s the Automatic Dependent It permits ATC center to request the aircraft to
Surveillance (ADS) function? automatically transmit (using data link connection)
aircraft data derived from on-board navigation
systems (FMS). An LOA is required.

Ref: AOM 2B

174. What is CPDLC? Controller Pilot Datalink Communications (CPDLC /

ATC Comm) is an Air Traffic Services application
that permits pilots and air traffic controllers to
exchange messages using data link connection. An
LOA is required.

Ref: AOM 2B

22 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
Fuel
175. Where is fuel stored? In wing tanks that are part of internal wing structure:
there are no bladders.

Ref: AOM 2A
176. Describe location and capacity of Inside each wing tank, adjacent to centerline rib, is a
hopper tanks. hopper that holds approximately 190 gallons of fuel.

Ref: AOM 2A
177. What’s the purpose of ventilation It protects from over and under pressurization by
system? allowing air, fuel vapors, and fuel to move about or
flow freely.

Ref: AOM 2A
178. Vent tubes are connected to an They provide for 2% fuel expansion
empty chamber or plenum which is
located at wing tip, just outboard of
the fuel tanks. What’s the capacity Ref: AOM 2A
of plenum and vent tubes?
179. What’s indicated if the red light High level sensors are wet and Fuel Quantity Signal
illuminates on refuel panel? Conditioner (FQSC) has closed the respective refueling
valve

Ref: AOM 2A
180. What happens when REMOTE Both pressure fueling shutoff valves close and CLSD
FUELING SHUTOFF switch is legend illuminates in blue
selected to CLSD?
Ref: AOM 2A
181. What are the different methods of Single point pressure fueling or over-the-wing
refueling? Ref: AOM 2A
182. How is automatic refueling Via Standby Multifunction Controller (SMC) or refuel
controlled? panel located at fueling station.

Ref: AOM 2A
183. How many methods are there for Two: by moving fuel from hopper to hopper through
maintaining fuel balance? intertank valve, or by directing fuel from one hopper to
opposite engine using crossflow valve.

Ref: AOM 2A
184. How many boost pumps does G650 There are four (4) identical and interchangeable fuel
have and where are they located? boost pumps in the main wheel wells attached to aft
portion of each hopper.

Ref: AOM 2A
185. What’s the purpose of fuel boost They deliver fuel to engines and APU at relatively low
pumps? pressure through various fuel distribution lines and
shutoff valves.

Ref: AOM 2A

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 23
186. How does fuel flow into the Ejector pumps and three one way flapper type
hopper? check valves

Ref: AOM 2A
187. How do ejectors operate? They require only fuel boost pump pressure to operate:
they’re low pressure, high volume jet pumps. As long
as there’s boost pump pressure, ejector pumps deliver
steady flow of fuel into each hopper.

Ref: AOM 2A
188. What happens when crossflow Boost pump manifolds are joined allowing pressurized
valve is opened? fuel from functioning pumps to flow to both engines.

Ref: AOM 2A
189. When does the color of blue Fuel After five (5) minutes
Crossflow Valve Open message
change to amber?
Ref: AOM 2A
190. What’s the warning associated with Always OPEN crossflow valve before turning OFF
use of crossflow valve? both boost pumps on one side. Without boosted
pressure above 20,000’, Gulfstream says the engine will
run erratically and flameout.

Ref: AOM 2A
191. What happens when intertank valve Fuel can gravity flow between the two hopper tanks
is opened? allowing the tanks to balance.

Ref: AOM 2A
192. What action does Gulfstream Establish a sideslip (i.e., rudder trim in direction of
recommend before opening the heavy tank)
intertank valve?
Ref: QRH
193. What happens when FUEL OFF caption extinguishes and the system allows heated
RETURN switch is selected to fuel into the tanks when fuel tank temperature is
AUTO? approximately 0°C or colder. When tank temperatures
warm to approximately +10°C, heated fuel stops
flowing to the tanks.

Ref: AOM 2A
194. There are several abnormal Crossflow valve open or engine at high power setting
conditions which inhibit the heated
fuel return system from operating Ref: AOM 2A
(e.g., fire handle pulled, low fuel
pressure signal, low fuel quantity
signal). What types of normal
conditions inhibit this system from
operating?

24 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
Electrical
195. What types of components Aircraft components incorporating some type of
generally use AC power? movement or motor function (e.g., motors, heaters, and
chargers).

Ref: AOM 2A
196. What types of components Normally used for control functions or steady-state
generally use DC power? operations.

Ref: AOM 2A
197. How many TRU’s convert AC to Five (5)
DC power?
Ref: AOM 2A
198. What’s the difference between red Red CB’s are related to essential circuits and black CB’s
and black circuit breakers? are considered non-essential

Ref: AOM 2A
199. What’s the rating of IDG’s? They’re rated at 40 kVA and provide three-phase, 400
Hz, 115 VAC power

Ref: AOM 2A
200. How can a GCU be reset? By cycling associated generator control switch (L GEN,
R GEN or APU GEN) to OFF and then ON. This action
causes the software to re-initialize.

Ref: AOM 2A
201. Describe the APU generator. It’s mounted on APU, is usable on ground, or in flight
and produces 3-phase, 400 Hz, 115V AC power. It’s
physically and distinctly different from IDG’s but
produces the same type of power.

Ref: AOM 2A
202. What’s the purpose of GCU’s? They work with aircraft electrical system to provide
“quality power”

Ref: AOM 2A
203. True/False: All non-failure AC True
power transfers are NBPT’s,
except between external AC power
and APU power sources. Ref: AOM 2A
204. Would transfer of power between APU generator and external AC power are not frequency
the APU generator and external controlled by GCU and BPCU; therefore, power transfer
AC power be a break or no-break between these two sources are, break power transfers and,
power transfer? result in momentary power loss during transfer.

Ref: AOM 2A
205. How is electrical power normally By two (2) BPCU’s and three (3) GCU’s. BPCU’s are
controlled? the brains of the system and control most of the
contactors.

Ref: AOM 2A
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 25
206. What causes “AC” legend of Fault in Main AC or Emergency AC bus, logic fault
AC/DC RESET switchlight to within BPCU, or by relay or component failure
activate?
Ref: AOM 2A
207. What happens when you depress It resets lockout and allows tripped contactors to close if
RESET switch? the fault no longer exists

Ref: AOM 2A
208. When would you select L/R Bus When directed by checklist. It prevents the associated
Tie to ISLN? contactor from closing and isolates respective main AC
bus from other power sources.

Ref: AOM 2A
209. If both AC and DC external power External AC
is connected, which has priority?
Ref: AOM 2A
210. Describe RAT deployment. It’s totally manual and is accomplished by pulling the
guarded RAT DEPLOY handle.

Ref: AOM 2A
211. What’s the rating of the RAT? 15 kVA

Ref: AOM 2A
212. What does the RAT power once it FCC UPS bus and EBHA bus through Emerg AC bus,
reaches operating speed (usually and both Essential DC buses through Left and Right
5-8 seconds)? ESS TRU’s

Ref: AOM 2A
213. How is the RAT stowed? On ground using an installed hand-operated piston
pump that is mounted above RAT assembly: it cannot
be stowed in flight.

Ref: AOM 2A
214. What happens as airspeed falls RAT stops operating and Main, UPS and EBHA
below the limit of RAT operation batteries begin to power flight critical systems for up to
(180 knots)? 16 minutes.

Ref: AOM 2A
215. What’s the source of power for 50 or 60 Hz power system comprised of two converters.
personal electronic devices, One converter is active while the other operates in
electric razors, hair dryers, standby. New architecture has converters operating in
blender, toaster, etc.? parallel for more power: if one fails, it reverts to single
converter operation.

Ref: AOM 2A
216. True/False: CABIN / GALLEY True. CABIN / GALLEY Master switch also controls
and 60 HZ Master switches are 28 VDC to cabin. It’s a single switch for load shedding
wired in series (i.e., both must be all power to cabin.
selected ON for converters to
produce power). Ref: AOM 2A

26 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
217. When are L and R AUX DC buses During single generator operation, Aux TRU is not
load shed? powered, or when Aux TRU is powering another DC
bus. Load shed feature is inhibited on ground.

Ref: AOM 2A
218. Describe the purpose of fifth or It serves as backup to primary TRU’s. When not serving
Aux TRU. in backup role, Aux TRU powers Left and Right Aux
DC buses which provide 28 VDC power to cabin loads.

Ref: AOM 2A
219. What causes “DC” legend of Fault in Main DC, Essential DC or Aux DC buses, logic
AC/DC RESET switchlight to fault within BPCU, or by relay or component failure
activate?
Ref: AOM 2A
220. When L MAIN TRU switch is It means the Left Main TRU is powered by Right Main
depressed, the switchlight AC bus.
indicates R AC. What does this
mean?
Ref: PTH
221. Describe the main batteries. Two main batteries are located in tail compartment:
they’re Ni-Cad (28V DC, 53 amp/hour).

Ref: AOM 2A
222. The batteries have three modes of Charge, discharge, and TR
operation. What are they?

Ref: AOM 2A
223. What are main battery charging AC power applied, battery switches must be on and
requirements? battery voltage > 22 volts

Ref: AOM 2A
224. When is battery/charger TR mode If battery switches are selected ON, main AC buses are
initiated? powered, and the following occur – APU start switch is
selected ON, aux pump is turned on, or essential DC
buses require power from batteries.

Ref: AOM 2A
225. What mode of battery/chargers is Charger and TR mode
lost with loss of Main AC buses?
Ref: AOM 2A
226. The batteries have a split bus Only the left battery is involved in APU start. Both
configuration. What does that batteries power the aux pump.
mean?

Ref: AOM 2A
227. When should you remove the Cold soak conditions (-20°C)
batteries?
Ref: AOM 2A

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 27
228. When would MAIN BATTERY When starting APU (left battery discharge only),
switches indicate amber ON? operating aux pump, or powering ESS DC buses if
MAIN BATTERY switches are selected ON and ESS
DC buses have no other source of power

Ref: AOM 2A
229. What additional function does the It’s used to power ground service bus when not powered
right battery have on ground? by the right main DC bus or external DC power

Ref: AOM 2A
230. What’s the minimum battery 22 volts
voltage required during cockpit
preflight inspection?
Ref: AOM 2A
231. What action should be taken if Refer to GVI (G650) Maintenance Manual
voltage on either of the main
batteries is < 22 volts?

Ref: QRH
232. On a dark airplane, what occurs Power is provided from both main aircraft batteries and
when EXTERNAL BATTERY the anti-collision beacon illuminates
switch is selected to ON?

Ref: AOM 2A
233. What’s the Aux TRU priority? Essential before main and left before right

Ref: AOM 2A
234. What’s the function of EBHA It provides power to MCE’s on electric backup
battery? hydraulic actuators (EBHA’s)

Ref: AOM 2A
235. What’s the purpose of UPS It’s a dedicated source of power for FCC Channel 1A,
battery? FCC Channel 2B, BFCU, and EBHA remote electronics
units (REU’s).

Ref: AOM 2A
236. Describe the emergency batteries. There are two (2) 24V DC, 10.5 amp/hour lead acid
emergency batteries on the aircraft: one located up
forward in LEER and one located back aft on left side of
baggage compartment in Auxiliary EER.

Ref: AOM 2A
237. What are the three modes of Like the main batteries, they have three (3) modes of
emergency batteries? operation: charge, discharge, and charger in TR mode.

Ref: AOM 2A

28 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
238. If all sources of power are lost, 45 minutes
how many minutes will emergency
batteries provide electrical power
to the left and right emergency DC
buses, essential flight instrument
bus, and inertial reference units to
support equipment essential for
safety of flight as well as
emergency lighting?
Ref: AOM 2A
239. How are emergency batteries ON switch is depressed or they’re ARMED and the left
activated? or right essential DC bus drops below 20 VDC (even
momentarily)

Ref: AOM 2A
240. How many MCDU’s can be used Two: third MCDU indicates “SSPC SYSTEM BUSY,
to simultaneously control SSPC’s? MAXIMUM OF TWO MCDU’S ALREADY
CONNECTED.”

Ref: AOM 2A
241. What items are powered down to Both SFD’s without air data
emergency batteries? Both clocks
IRU’s
MCDU#1 displays STBY ENGINE page
MCDU#3 displays Backup radio tuning page
All three ACP’s

Ref: QRH
242. What’s the purpose of ground To provide DC power to equipment required for
service bus (GSB)? servicing while on the ground

Ref: AOM 2A
243. What are the sources of power for Right main DC bus, external DC, or right battery
ground service bus?

Ref: AOM 2A
244. Name the locations of the four (4) One behind the cockpit on REER System/Monitor Test
GSB control switches. panel, one in Security / Gnd Svc panel, one on ground
service panel in tail compartment, and one in refuel
panel.

Ref: AOM 2A
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 29
245. What happens on a dark airplane Right battery powers the ground service bus and anti-
when GND SVC BUS switch on collision beacon illuminates. In addition, both SMC’s
Security / Gnd Svc panel is and MCDU #2 are powered.
selected to ON?

Ref: AOM 2A
246. There are four (4) GND SVC Bus When GND SVC BUS is powered by right battery or by
annunciator lights: one on cockpit external DC power (i.e., other than normal source of
EPCP, one in Security / Gnd Svc power).
panel, one in refuel panel, and one
in ground service panel in tail
compartment. When do they
illuminate?

Ref: AOM 2A

247. When ground service bus is When all the doors are closed: tail compartment door,
automatically deactivated? main door, Security / Gnd Svc panel door, and refuel
door

Ref: AOM 2A
248. What’s the purpose of Secondary It takes 28 VDC and 115 VAC power from primary
Power Distribution System power system and distributes it to various aircraft loads
(SPDS)?

Ref: AOM 2A
249. SPDS is composed of two (2) RIU’s perform system control functions and interface
Remote Interface Units (RIU’s) with other aircraft systems: they’re the brains of this
and eight (8) Modular Power Tiles system. MPT’s perform power routing and circuit
(MPT’s) (4 for AC and 4 for DC). protection functions using AC and DC Solid State
What’s the difference between Power Controllers (SSPC’s).
RIU’s and MPT’s?

Ref: AOM 2A

30 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
Powerplant
250. What section of engine provides 5TH & 8TH stage of the HP compressor
air for Environmental Control
System (ECS), wing anti-icing,
nose cowl anti-icing and engine
internal cooling / sealing?
Ref: AOM 2A
251. The parameter used to measure By forming ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure
forward thrust in primary control
mode is Engine Pressure Ratio
(EPR). How is it derived?
Ref: AOM 2A
252. What happens to engine during Bleed handling valves are commanded OPEN,
water ingestion? continuous ignition is selected ON automatically, and
engine idle speed is increased to ensure engine
stability and allow water to pass into bypass flow.

Ref: AOM 2A
253. FADEC is normally powered by Alternate source of power is provided by aircraft 28V
its Permanent Magnetic DC essential power
Alternator (PMA). What happens
during engine start or failure of
PMA?
Ref: AOM 2A
254. Primary function of Engine Two (2) sets of probes (one primary and one
Vibration Monitoring System secondary) to measure amount of rotation on both LP
(EVMS) is to monitor the and HP rotating components
balance of rotating assemblies in
the engine in order to detect
possible mechanical failure. How
many sets of probes are used?

Ref: AOM 2A
255. When should an engine be shut If vibration is accompanied by other failure
down for abnormal EVM indications
indications?
Ref: AOM 2A
256. When might vibrations exceed Icing conditions
alert levels and be considered
normal?
Ref: AOM 2A
257. At what altitude must the boost Above 20,000 feet
pumps be operating to sustain
engine operation?
Ref: AOM 2A
258. What’s the primary purpose of It enables engine oil to heat fuel and prevent
Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler (FCOC)? formation of ice crystals in LP filter and FMU. It also
cools the oil.

Ref: AOM 2A

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 31
259. Name four conditions required Not at high power setting, system is armed by selection
for the heated fuel return system of FUEL RETURN switch to AUTO, fuel tank
to operate? temperature drops to approximately 0°C, and crossflow
closed

Ref: AOM 2A
260. At what fuel tank temperature Approximately +10°C
does heated fuel return system
cease to operate?
Ref: AOM 2A
261. What happens during engine Fuel is dumped overboard
shutdown if capacity of drains
tank (environmental container) is
exceeded?
Ref: AOM 2A
262. What three ways can be used to By conventional gravity filling, through remote
fill the oil tank? replenishing or pressure filling system for
maintenance.

Ref: AOM 2A
263. When does Fluid Quantity Five (5) minutes after engine shutdown
Indicator (FQI) take a snap shot
of oil quantity and store it as a
historical reading?

Ref: AOM 2A
264. How does FADEC alternate It changes channels every time you cycle FUEL
channels for consecutive ground CONTROL switch and changes exciters/igniters
starts? every other time unless there’s a start anomaly.

Ref: AOM 2A
265. True/False: When normal ground True
start attempt is aborted due to
anomalies, FADEC automatically
selects the other igniter on the
following normal ground start
attempt.
Ref: AOM 2A
266. True/False: Ignition systems are True. There’s no time limitation; however, continued
capable of being continuously or very frequent use shortens igniter life.
energized by pilot selection of
continuous ignition.
Ref: AOM 2A
267. Which type of engine start uses Normal ground start including crossbleed start and
just one igniter? engine start – battery power only.
Both igniters are used for alternate engine ground start
and all air starts as well as inclement weather mode,
auto-relight, and quick relight.

Ref: AOM 2A
32 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
268. What happens when you select It signals FADEC to arm the automatic start sequence
MASTER START switch to ON? for start valve and ignition, opens isolation valve and
shuts off the right pack.

Ref: AOM 2A
269. During engine start, when would Approximately 44% HP
you expect Starter Air Valve
(SVO) and IGN icons to
extinguish?
Ref: QRH
270. What’s the only time you’re fully During normal start on ground using the MASTER
FADEC protected during an START switch
engine start?
Ref: QRH
271. What’s the caution associated Wear high temperature protective gloves and exercise
with opening the starter air valve caution
manually?
Ref: QRH
272. What is rotor bow? It’s a phenomenon where LP and HP shafts warp or
bow due to uneven temperatures after shutdown.

Ref: AOM 2A
273. When would you expect FADEC If engine has been shut down for more than twenty
to perform an automatic rotor (20) minutes, but less than five (5) hours
bow avoidance procedure during
engine start?
Ref: QRH
274. What would be the corrective Select associated FUEL CONTROL switch to OFF
action for an Autostart Abort? and select ENGINE START MASTER switch to OFF

Ref: QRH
275. Alternate start mode is selected Ignition: the crew must manually select continuous
when MASTER CRANK switch ignition to ON
is placed to ON. In this mode,
what can the FADEC not
command?
Ref: QRH
276. What are the two sources of air Air from inside (i.e., from other engine or APU) or
for rotating the engine during air from outside (i.e., Windmilling).
airborne engine start?
Ref: QRH
277. Name the three (3) airstart Normal Airstart – Automatic,
procedures. Manual Airstart – Starter-Assist
Manual Airstart – Windmilling

Ref: QRH
278. Which airstart method is Normal Airstart – Automatic
preferred?

Ref: QRH

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 33
279. When using Normal Airstart – Airspeed (i.e., < 250 KCAS, the FADEC opens
Automatic checklist, what does starter air valve and > 250 KCAS, starter air valve
FADEC use to determine remains closed)
whether to assist with bleed air or
windmill?
Ref: QRH
280. Under what conditions would If starter was inoperative or in icing conditions
you use the Manual Airstart –
Windmilling procedure?
Ref: QRH
281. What’s the auto-relight mode? It’s automatically initiated by FADEC for engine
flameout and rundown. In this mode, FADEC
energizes both igniters continuously and schedules
fuel flow until rpm stabilizes.

Ref: AOM 2A
282. What’s the quick relight mode? Provides a means of automatically relighting the
engine if FUEL CONTROL switch is selected to OFF
position and then reselected to RUN position within
30 seconds. When activated, fuel is commanded on
and both ignition systems are switched ON.

Ref: AOM 2A
283. How are the engines controlled Engine control is achieved by dual channel Full
and what are the benefits? Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) system
for improved handling, fuel efficiency and longer
engine life.

Ref: AOM 2A
284. Name the three (3) major Electronic engine controller (EEC), data entry plug
components of the FADEC? (DEP), and permanent magnetic alternator (PMA).

Ref: AOM 2A
285. What are the requirements for Valid EPR rating selected, valid speed target selected,
engaging autothrottles on and > 1.05 EPR
takeoff?
Ref: AOM 2A
286. Why do autothrottles go into hold Autothrottle servos are deenergized to prevent
mode at 60 kts during takeoff? unwanted thrust reductions during critical takeoff
between 60 kts airspeed, rotation and climbout to
400’ AGL.

Ref: AOM 2A
287. When does autothrottle system 400’ AGL
come out of hold?
Ref: AOM 2A
288. What affect does the hold mode It allows you to abort with no friction on the throttles
have on rejected takeoff?

Ref: AOM 2A

34 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
289. What happens if you push Go-around is commanded (initial 9° pitch up and
TO/GA during a fully coupled wings level), both autopilot and autothrottles remain
two engine ILS approach? engaged, power levers advance to go-around power,
and FMS sequences to missed approach procedure.

Ref: AOM 2A
290. How can autothrottles be Push either quick disconnect switch, toggle either
disconnected? engage/disengage button, or manually adjust the
throttles.

Ref: AOM 2A
291. How is the engine controlled in With LP
Alternate mode?
Ref: AOM 2A
292. Name the three idle settings. Flight, approach (i.e., high idle), and low or ground
idle

Ref: AOM 2A
293. What’s the requirement for Flaps > 20°, aircraft in flight and no wheel spin-up
approach idle?
Ref: AOM 2A
294. FADEC normally governs the A reversion
engine power using EPR as
primary control parameter;
however, as an alternative,
FADEC can also use LP fan
speed as engine control
parameter. What’s the
changeover between these two
modes of operation called?
Ref: AOM 2A
295. What’s the difference between a A change to alternate control mode, which is initiated
soft and hard reversion? by FADEC, is known as soft reversion. A change
initiated by pilot, through selections made on the
SMC (Sensor page), is known as hard reversion.

Ref: AOM 2A
296. What’s the downside to alternate You lose FADEC protection, you lose autothrottles,
control mode? and you can’t dispatch in alternate control.

Ref: AOM 2A
297. At a given throttle position (other Hard reverted engine in alternate LP control mode
than idle), which engine would would provide higher thrust
provide higher thrust: a hard
reverted engine in alternate LP
control mode or an engine in
normal EPR control mode?

Ref: AOM 2A
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 35
298. True/False: To prevent sudden True
changes in thrust from occurring
when hard reverting the engine
control mode, throttle lever
should always be placed in mid
position before selecting or de-
selecting alternate control on
SMC.
Ref: AOM 2A
299. How would you describe thrust Electrically controlled and hydraulically operated
reverser operation?

Ref: AOM 2A
300. When would thrust reversers be With wheel spin-up or weight-on-wheels
available after landing?

Ref: AOM 2A
301. Were thrust reversers considered Not on dry runways; they were considered for wet
for landing distance certification?

Ref: AFM Performance section

302. How is the engine controlled in With LP
reverse thrust region?

Ref: AOM 2A
303. Describe thrust reverser White REV – unlocked
indications. Green REV – fully deployed (maximum reverse
thrust available)
Amber REV – uncommanded deployment on the
ground: engine limited to idle
Flashing red REV – deployment in flight: engine
limited to idle

Ref: AOM 2A
304. Can an inoperative reverser be Yes
locked out?

Ref: QRH

36 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
Hydraulics
305. What’s the purpose of Power It provides operational redundancy to left system
Transfer Unit? (especially to get the gear up with failure of left engine
on takeoff).
It’s part of both primary hydraulic systems and, when
activated, can power the flaps, landing gear, inboard
brakes and parking brakes, cabin door, and nose wheel
steering.

Ref: AOM 2A
306. What’s the purpose of Aux pump? It’s primarily designed for ground and maintenance
operations. It’s part of the left hydraulic system and,
when activated, can power the flaps, landing gear,
inboard brakes and inboard parking brake, cabin door,
and nose wheel steering.

Ref: AOM 2A
307. Where are hydraulic reservoirs There are two (2) hydraulic reservoirs located in
located? forward section of tail compartment (left hydraulic
system reservoir on left and right hydraulic system
reservoir on the right).

Ref: AOM 2A
308. A visual sight gage is installed on Electrical power is not required to read the sight gage;
high pressure end of each however, the system must be pressurized to obtain a
hydraulic reservoir and clearly correct reading.
indicates proper FULL and
REFILL levels of the reservoir.
What is required for an accurate
reading?
Ref: AOM 2A
309. Describe the engine-driven pump. It’s a constant pressure, variable volume pump, which
means it produces 3000 psi anytime the engine is
running (except for a pump unloading feature during
engine start in-flight).

Ref: AOM 2A
310. What’s the purpose of main To provide hydraulic system components with filtered
hydraulic system filters and what fluid. A CAS message (deactivated) for impending
indication would you get for an blockage.
impending blockage?

Ref: AOM 2A
311. What’s the purpose of hydraulic There are two hydraulic heat exchangers: one for each
heat exchangers and where are system located in each hopper close to the floor.
they located? Functioning as a radiator, the heat exchanger allows
surrounding, cooler fuel to cool the hotter hydraulic
fluid.

Ref: AOM 2A
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 37
312. How many hydraulic accumulators Two: one for each system. Check for 1200 psi at 70°F
are there and what’s the pre-flight nitrogen pre-charge on preflight.
requirement?
Ref: AOM 2A
313. PTU’s bearing wear indicator pops Reset and note time in log book. Continued operation
to indicate excessive motor for next 50 flight hours is allowed; however, you need
bearing wear. What’s the required to check it prior to each flight.
action if it’s discovered popped on
preflight?

Ref: QRH
314. What are the requirements for 1) left system pressure < 2400 psi
PTU operation once it’s been 2) fluid in left system
ARMED? 3) right system not hot

Ref: AOM 2A
315. How would the gear and flaps They’d operate much slower due to low flow rate
operate differently with the aux
pump?

Ref: AOM 2A
316. What are the requirements for Aux 1) left system pressure < 1500 psi
pump operation once it’s been 2) fluid in left system
ARMED? 3) left system not hot
4) flap handle position doesn’t match flap position OR
landing gear handle position doesn’t match gear position
On ground: left system and inboard accumulator
pressure < 1500 psi and brake pedals depressed (ASC
902)

Ref: AOM 2A
317. How does the Aux pump operate It operates regardless of hydraulic quantity or
differently in the air when selected temperature; however, it automatically shuts off after
to ON? two (2) minutes to prevent inadvertent depletion of
batteries.

Ref: AOM 2A
318. What can be done if the Aux pump Cycle the switch and try it again
shuts off due to overload?

Ref: AOM 2A
319. There are two replenishing One is for hydraulics and one is for oil replenishing
systems in the tail compartment.
What are they for?
Ref: AOM 2A
320. Where would you find procedures Handling and Servicing Procedures section of Operating
for hydraulic servicing? Manual or Ground Handling and Servicing Handbook

Ref: AOM Chapter 9

38 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
Flight Controls
321. G650 uses fly-by-wire technology. Pilot inputs are read by a computer that in turn
How does this work? decides how to move control surfaces to best achieve
what the pilot wants.

Ref: AOM 2A
322. Describe some benefits of this fly-by- Enhanced flying qualities, enhanced stability, greater
wire system. protection through entire flight envelope, and
continuous monitoring

Ref: AOM 2A
323. Name the primary flight controls. Ailerons, elevators, rudder, and multifunction spoilers
(i.e., mid-board and outboard spoiler panels).

Ref: AOM 2A
324. Name the secondary flight controls. Horizontal stabilizer, flaps, and inboard spoilers

Ref: AOM 2A
325. How is pitch trim accomplished? From either yoke mounted switch or center console
mounted BACKUP PITCH trim switch

Ref: AOM 2A
326. What’s the purpose of A/P DISC It disengages the autopilot and stops runaway trim in
switch? all three axes.

Ref: AOM 2A
327. What’s the function of FLT CTRL Used to reset flight control computers and
RESET switch? REUs/control surface actuators when directed by a
checklist.

Ref: AOM 2A
328. What effect does loss of one Loss of one spoiler pair
hydraulic system have on the flight Airspeed limitation 285/.90
controls?
Ref: AOM 2A
329. What is common among primary They have two (2) actuators and two (2) REU’s for
flight control surfaces? each primary flight control surface except outboard
spoilers. One of the actuators is an EBHA

Ref: AOM 2A
330. What are control laws? Software in the FCC’s that translate electrical
commands from cockpit control sensors and aircraft
motion sensors (inertial/air data) into flight control
surface commands

Ref: AOM 2A
331. How many computers control the fly- Three (3) computers: two (2) flight control computers
by-wire flight control system? for normal operation and Backup Flight Control Unit
in case both flight control computers fail.

Ref: AOM 2A
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 39
332. What’s the minimum number of FCC One.
channels that can command all flight
control surfaces on the aircraft.
Ref: AOM 2A
333. What’s the purpose of Backup Flight It’s designed to provide what Gulfstream calls “get
Control Unit (BFCU)? home capability” if both primary FCC’s fail.

Ref: AOM 2A
334. What happens once the BFCU It communicates directly with EBHA remote
becomes active? electronics units (REU’s) on separate backup data
buses, and is active for the duration of flight.

Ref: AOM 2A
335. Describe the Electric Backup It’s a special actuator with self-contained electric
Hydraulic Actuator (EBHA). motor/pump and hydraulic reservoir.

Ref: AOM 2A
336. What type of sensor input is provided Input from IRS’s, AHRS, ADS’s and radio altimeters
to FCC’s?
Ref: AOM 2A
337. Describe the AOA limiting feature. In this mode, full aft column input commands the
maximum nose angle-of-attack of 0.96.

Ref: AOM 2A
338. Which mode protects from surface High speed protection
flutter and separation that would
occur greater than Vdive speed?
Ref: AOM 2A
339. What’s the auto-retract feature? It retracts speed brakes at high power settings

Ref: AOM 2A
340. Name the four (4) flight control Normal, alternate, direct, and backup
modes.
Ref: AOM 2A
341. Describe requirements for the flight Normal mode requires air data (multifunction probes)
control mode to remain in normal. and inertial data. HSCU must also be capable of
receiving FCC commands on one of its two (2)
channels.

Ref: AOM 2A
342. When would flight control mode You need to lose multiple air data or inertial sensors
change from normal to alternate? for this to occur. It may also drop into alternate mode
if FCC receives a message that HSCU has reverted to
backup mode.

Ref: AOM 2A
343. What happens if all four (4) FCC Flight control system reverts to direct mode
channels are invalid?
Ref: AOM 2A

40 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
344. What happens if all four (4) FCC Backup Flight Control Unit (BFCU) activates to
channels are unable to compute the provide “get home” capability
control law?
Ref: AOM 2A
345. What term is used to describe the Gain
amplification, attenuation, boosting,
or magnification that’s applied to the
forward signal to achieve the desired
aircraft response?
Ref: AOM 2A
346. The normal mode has five (5) On ground, Takeoff & landing, Cruise, AOA
primary operating sub modes. What limiting, and High speed protection
are they?
Ref: AOM 2A
347. What sub mode is the flight control Takeoff & landing mode. Here’s a clue: you’ll see a
system in when flying with the gear number in the pitch trim digital readout.
and/or flap handle down and
autopilot disengaged?
Ref: AOM 2A
348. Describe how the flight control Pitch, roll, and rudder pedal inputs are multiplied by a
system operates in alternate mode. set of fixed gains to command the elevator, ailerons,
roll spoilers, and rudder

Ref: AOM 2A
349. How many sets of gains are Two: one set of generally smaller numbers used when
associated with degraded flight flap handle and gear handle are up (and aircraft is
control modes? presumed to be traveling at higher speed – 340 kts),
and a set of generally larger numbers that are used if
flap handle or gear handle is down (and aircraft is
presumed to be traveling slower – 250 kts).

Ref: AOM 2A
350. What functions with the ailerons to Mid and outboard spoiler panels extend to a
improve roll response? maximum of 55°

Ref: AOM 2A
351. Name the two types of flight control Hydraulic Actuator (HA) and Electric Backup
actuators. Hydraulic Actuator (EBHA)

Ref: AOM 2A
352. Describe HA operation. It’s controlled electrically by its Remote Electronics
Unit (REU) and uses hydraulic power to move the
control surface.

Ref: AOM 2A
353. What’s the function of REU? It’s mounted on associated hydraulic manifold,
averages FCC1 and FCC2 commands and electrically
controls a valve in hydraulic manifold to control
actuator position to match FCC commands.

Ref: AOM 2A
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 41
354. What additional features do EBHA’s Able to operate in electric backup mode if normal
have? source of hydraulic pressure is lost or operate in MCE
direct control mode for failure of both REU’s

Ref: AOM 2A
355. Describe EB operation. Within EB hydraulic manifold, an electric motor
turns a hydraulic pump that draws fluid from self-
contained reservoir: it acts like third hydraulic
system. The fluid is trapped from normal source of
hydraulics.

Ref: AOM 2A
356. What’s the purpose of Motor Control EBHA REU normally controls MCE when EBHA is
Electronics (MCE)? in EB (electric backup) operation and MCE controls
operation of backup electric motor. For REU failure,
MCE can directly control the EBHA.

Ref: AOM 2A
357. What does the color of HA or EBHA Green for active/healthy and amber for
status border indicate on flight inactive/unhealthy
control synoptic page?
Ref: AOM 2A
358. Which actuator has an electric EBHA
backup mode?
Ref: AOM 2A
359. When does the EB mode function? Only if both HA and EBHA systems cannot function
in their normal hydraulic mode. There will never be
mixed operation where an HA is operating in its
normal hydraulic mode, and EBHA is in electric
backup. This mode is designed to operate when
there’s a complete loss of hydraulics to critical flight
control surface.

Ref: AOM 2A
360. What action is required for a jam in A force-based roll override device under cockpit floor
cockpit roll controls? is provided to overpower and isolate the jammed
portion of roll controls. Activation of roll override
device is accomplished by applying sufficient force
(approximately 10 lbs) to roll control wheels to
overcome breakout force of roll override device. Roll
control is recovered by using unrestricted side of roll
controls. Important note: sensor input from roll
controls is averaged.

Ref: AOM 2A
361. What pilot action is required for an Both pilot and copilot roll control wheels remain
aileron surface or spoiler surface available to control the unrestricted aileron and
jam? spoiler surfaces: fly normally and trim, and refer to
QRH.

Ref: AOM 2A
42 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
362. What happens when ROLL MOTOR Roll trim switches bypass control columns and send
CONTROL switch is selected to signals directly to FCC’s. The only downside to this
OFF? is lack of corresponding control wheel movement.

Ref: AOM 2A
363. What’s the primary purpose of ROLL To remove electrical power from Roll Control Motor
MOTOR CONTROL switch? (under the floor) in the unlikely event of Roll Motor
Control runaway or mechanical jam, and at the same
time enable direct trimming of ailerons via the
FCC’s.

Ref: AOM 2A
364. What action is required for a jam in A force-based elevator override device under cockpit
cockpit elevator controls? floor is provided to isolate the jammed portion of
elevator controls. Activation of this device is
accomplished by applying sufficient force
(approximately 40 lbs) to elevator control columns to
overcome breakout force of elevator override device.
Elevator control is recovered by using unrestricted
side of the elevator controls.

Ref: AOM 2A
365. What pilot action is required for an No pilot action is required since both pilot and copilot
elevator surface jam? elevator control columns remain available to control
the unrestricted elevator surface.

Ref: AOM 2A
366. Under what condition would Loss of input from both FCC’s (i.e., backup mode). If
BACKUP PITCH switch have to be this were to occur, BACKUP PITCH switch bypasses
used? FCC’s and controls the horizontal stabilizer directly
at a constant, minimum rate.

Ref: AOM 2A
367. Why do pitch trim switches have a It prevents inadvertent activation and minimizes the
split design? chance of runaway due to stuck or jammed pitch trim
switch, or electrical fault.

Ref: AOM 2A
368. What pilot action is required in the The pilots would have to use other flight controls or
unlikely event that rudder pedals differential power to control the aircraft: there is no
become mechanically jammed? breakout capability.

Ref: AOM 2A
369. What happens with selection of A signal is sent to FCC’s which then electrically
AUTO CENTER switch? direct the rudder trim actuation system to center the
rudder.

Ref: AOM 2A
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 43
370. What component is responsible for Horizontal Stabilizer Trim Actuator (HSTA), which
moving the stabilizer surface? is a dual electric motor

Ref: AOM 2A
371. Describe HSTS operation in primary FCC’s provide rate commands to Horizontal
or normal mode. Stabilizer Control Unit (HSCU).

Ref: AOM 2A
372. True/False: Standby mode of True: in standby, you’re trimming elevators as
Horizontal Stab, indicated by an opposed to horizontal stab and there’s no off-load
amber Stabilizer Failed CAS feature. Don’t use backup pitch trim switch.
message, occurs when you lose the
ability to trim the stab (e.g., dual
motor failure, jam or dual HSCU
channel failure).
Ref: AOM 2A
373. When is backup mode of HSTS With loss of input from both FCC’s (i.e., backup
entered (indicated by an amber Stab mode). In this mode, BACKUP PITCH switch on
Primary Trim Fail CAS message)? pedestal is used to move the horizontal stabilizer at a
constant, minimum rate.

Ref: AOM 2A
374. What is the elevator off-load feature? Once elevator deflection exceeds a preset value for
predetermined amount of time, horizontal stabilizer
and elevators move simultaneously: horizontal stab
moves to the new trim position as elevators move to
“faired” position (0 degrees relative to horizontal stab
surface). It’s controlled or commanded from FCC’s to
reduce elevator deflection.

Ref: AOM 2A
375. Describe how the flaps operate. Manually operated, electrically controlled,
hydraulically powered, and mechanically actuated

Ref: AOM 2A
376. What happens if there’s any sort of Flap motion is interrupted
malfunction (e.g., flap jam,
asymmetry, runaway, etc.) during
flap operation?
Ref: AOM 2A
377. What happens if you attempt to A load limiter device prevents the flaps from
extend the flaps at high rate of speed? extending

Ref: AOM 2A
378. When do the spoilers function? Six spoiler panels (three on each wing) operate as
speed brakes/air brakes and ground spoilers; four
operate as flight spoilers (i.e., two outboard)

Ref: AOM 2A
44 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
379. What is maximum spoiler deflection? 55°

Ref: AOM 2A
380. What’s the maximum deflection with 30° in-flight or 55° on ground with flap handle not up
full speed brake extension?

Ref: AOM 2A
381. What indications would you get When moved left and aft out of forward detent, a
during speed brake extension? light illuminates inside handle and a blue Speed
Brake Extended message displays.

Ref: AOM 2A
382. How would the indications change As power is increased during level off, the blue Speed
during level off? Brake Extended message changes to amber and you
get the associated two bong caution chime.

Ref: AOM 2A
383. What happens if speed brakes are Speed brakes automatically retract although speed
extended and pilot advances throttles brake handle remains in extended position, and an
to a high power setting? amber Speed Brake Auto Retract message displays.

Ref: AOM 2A
384. What function do ground spoilers They provide a method for full and automatic
perform on touchdown or during deployment of all spoiler panels in order to reduce lift
rejected takeoff? and increase braking effectiveness on ground.

Ref: AOM 2A
385. What are the requirements for ground Switch must be ARMED, power levers must be at
spoiler deployment? idle, and you must have either wheel spin up > 47 kts,
or weight on wheels

Ref: AOM 2A
386. What happens when GPWS/GND Automatic ground spoiler deployment occurs with
SPLR FLAP ORIDE switch is wheel spin up if flaps < 22° and all other parameters
selected to ON? are satisfied. GPWS voice alarm, “TOO LOW,
FLAPS”, is inhibited.

Ref: AOM 2A

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 45
APU
387. What’s the purpose of APU? Auxiliary source of electrical power and bleed air during
for ground operations. In-flight, the APU is used for
backup electrical power or used for air for main engine
start. APU air cannot be used for pressurization in-flight.

Ref: AOM 2A
388. What indication do you have that READY light illuminates on COP.
air inlet door has opened and
APU is ready to start?

Ref: AOM 2A
389. When should you check APU oil 15-30 minutes after shutdown to prevent over-servicing
level?
Ref: AOM 2A
390. What’s the purpose of APU load It opens to provide bleed air from APU while aircraft is
control valve? on ground, as well as in-flight if needed, for main engine
start. It’s controlled by APU BLEED AIR switch.

Ref: AOM 2A
391. When is APU bleed air available? After APU reaches operating speed. If APU was started
under cold conditions (i.e., EGT < 149°C), bleed air
loading is delayed for 60 seconds unless attempting main
engine start in-flight.

Ref: AOM 2A
392. When selecting APU BLEED Isolation valve
AIR switch to ON during ground
operations, what valve opens in
addition to load control valve?

Ref: AOM 2A
393. True/False: Load control valve is True
prevented from opening in flight
as a function of Weight-On-
Wheels (WOW).
Ref: AOM 2A
394. Regarding the APU, two things R COWL OPEN light illuminates on APU panel and
occur with right engine lower ECU inhibits the start while on ground in order to protect
cowl door open. What are they? engine cowl.

Ref: AOM 2A
395. What function does ECU perform It automatically shuts down the APU on ground (non-
if APU limits are exceeded? essential mode) and in some cases, in flight (essential
mode).

Ref: AOM 2A

46 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
396. Name the things that occur when Illuminates ON legend in APU MASTER switch,
APU MASTER switch is selected performs initialization and APU prestart Built-in Test
to ON. (BIT), checks APU oil temperature, commands APU
inlet air door open, and commands APU fuel shutoff
valve open

Ref: AOM 2A
397. What happens when APU Switch legend extinguishes, APU fuel shutoff valve
MASTER switch is selected to closes and APU, if running, immediately shuts down;
OFF? inlet door also begins to close.

Ref: AOM 2A
398. When does READY light If all prestart conditions are passed, ECU commands the
illuminate? signal to illuminate READY light (within 10 to 16
seconds), indicating APU is ready to start.

Ref: AOM 2A
399. Can the APU be started if Possibly: give it a try
READY light fails to illuminate?

Ref: AOM 2A
400. What’s the significance of ON When illuminated, it indicates that starter is engaged. It
legend in APU START switch? extinguishes at starter cutout by 60%.

Ref: AOM 2A
401. What happens when APU STOP If APU is running (on-speed), APU loads are shed and
switch is depressed? APU enters cool-down mode. If on ground and up to
20,000 feet, ECU decreases APU RPM on linear scale
(1/2% per second) for 60 seconds (to 70% RPM), then
shuts down APU. If above 20,000 feet, ECU maintains
APU RPM for 60 seconds, then shuts down APU.

Ref: AOM 2A
402. What happens if APU START APU is commanded to 100% RPM
switch is depressed at any time
during 60 second cool down
period?
Ref: AOM 2A
403. What’s the quickest way to APU MASTER, any time switch is selected off, APU
shutdown the APU? immediately shuts down (APU fuel shutoff valve closes)

Ref: AOM 2A
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 47
404. When does APU Generator come When APU reaches operating speed
on line?

Ref: AOM 2A
405. Why does APU GEN switch It represents abnormal in-flight condition
indicate amber ON?

Ref: AOM 2A
406. What are APU’s two operational Essential mode (Flight) and
modes? Non-Essential mode (Ground)

Ref: AOM 2A
407. I
What’s the difference between n non-essential mode, there are many conditions which
essential and non-essential? would cause ECU to shutdown the APU (e.g., ECU
failure, loss of speed, APU fire, overtemp, reverse flow,
low oil pressure, etc.). If this were to occur, cool down
mode is bypassed, APU’s fuel shutoff valve closes, and
APU shuts down immediately. When in essential mode
(WOW air), some protective shutdowns are disabled to
allow continued operation.

Ref: AOM 2A
408.
What happens if the APU is APU continues to assume aircraft is in essential mode
operating in essential mode prior until APU MASTER switch is selected off (or 15 min
to landing? has elapsed).

Ref: AOM 2A
409. I
What’s an amber APU Essential t means it hasn’t shutdown for one of the malfunctions
CAS message indicate? that would have caused shutdown on ground. Don’t shut
it down if you really need it because subsequent start
may be inhibited. If you don’t need it, shut it down
quickly by turning off APU MASTER.

Ref: QRH
48 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
Landing Gear & Brakes
410. How is the landing gear controlled on Electrically controlled, hydraulically actuated, and
G650? electrically sequenced

Ref: AOM 2A
411. What does the light (red FAA or Disagreement between landing gear handle and the
white for EASA) indicate in the gear gear
handle?

Ref: AOM 2A
412. What’s the meaning of magenta gear Gear in transit
indication on flight control synoptic
page?
Ref: AOM 2A
413. How are gear failures depicted on Amber
flight control synoptic page?
Ref: AOM 2A
414. What functions are performed from Used to open/close gear doors. Maintenance can
Landing Gear Control Maintenance change WOW status, retract or extend the gear. In
Panel (LGCMP)? maintenance mode, gear handle input is ignored.

Ref: AOM 2A
415. What’s normally accomplished after Selection of ground spoilers to OFF: it’s the only step
moving the gear handle to UP after of gear UP flow pattern
takeoff?
Ref: PTH
416. What’s the purpose of landing gear It allows landing gear handle to be placed in UP
LOCK RELEASE button? position regardless of WOW mode or electrical
power

Ref: AOM 2A
417. What’s the normal source of Aux pump (in the absence of hydraulic pressure from
hydraulics for opening and closing left system) through Landing Gear Control
the gear doors on ground? Maintenance Panel LGCMP

Ref: AOM 2A
418. What’s the caution associated with Always pin the doors open when movement is not
gear doors once they’re opened for desired
preflight?
Ref: QRH
419. After opening the gear doors for Close all gear doors and select Normal on LGCMP;
preflight, what must be accomplished otherwise, the plane will remain in MX mode and
to put the airplane back into “ready gear will not retract on departure.
for flight mode?”
Ref: QRH
420. What’s the location of nitrogen There are two (2) bottles: one located on each side of
bottles used for emergency landing nose wheel well
gear extension?
Ref: AOM 2A
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 49
421. What’s the pressure on a fully 3,000 psi at 70°F/21°C; enough for only one
serviced emergency landing gear extension of landing gear
extension bottle?
Ref: AOM 2A
422. What happens to uplocks when left They move to correct position.
hydraulic system pressure is applied
during gear retraction?
Ref: AOM 2A
423. What happens if an uplock is found The hook will snap to correct position: there’s no
in wrong position during preflight preflight requirement to make sure they’re open.
and aux pump pressure is applied?
Ref: AOM 2A
424. What happens if you takeoff with These pins prevent accidental gear retraction and are
nose and main gear down lock safety designed to withstand full hydraulic system retraction
pins installed? pressure. If you takeoff with pins installed, the gear
will not come up.

Ref: AOM 2A
425. What should nose wheel strut 2 to 9 inches
extension be during pre-flight?
Ref: Maintenance Manual
426. What’s the purpose of disconnecting It ensures NWS unit not damaged by over travel.
torque link from NWS unit during With steering unit torque links disconnected, nose
towing? wheels are free to rotate 360°

Ref: AOM 2A
427. Describe the WOW system. Two proximity sensors are installed on each landing
gear and provide WOW indications.

Ref: AOM 2A
428. When is a klaxon tone generated to Either power lever at idle, flaps < 22° and any
warn flight crew of unsafe landing gear not down and locked at
conditions? < 350’ AGL (radio altitude) OR engine power levers
at any setting, flaps > 22° and any gear not down and
locked.

Ref: AOM 2A
429. How can warning horn be silenced if By either retracting the flaps or extending the landing
flap position is > 22° and the gear is gear
retracted?
Ref: AOM 2A
430. How many landing gear dump valves Two: one for nose and one for mains
are there?
Ref: AOM 2A
431. After performing an emergency It illuminates when respective dump valves are
extension, a blue DUMP legend activated (i.e., moved from hydraulic to pneumatic
illuminates inside both DUMP position)
VALVE switches. What does this
indicate?
Ref: AOM 2A

50 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
432. What happens when you depress An electrical solenoid resets respective dump valve
either DUMP VALVE switch? for hydraulic operation and DUMP legend
extinguishes

Ref: AOM 2A
433. What happens with selection of FDR It places an event stamp on FDR tape, initiates CMC
/ CMC EVENT switch? time series recording, and switch legend illuminates
blue

Ref: AOM 2A
434. Describe what happens when EMER Emergency air release valve opens and releases
LDG GEAR handle is pulled? compressed nitrogen into landing gear extension
system

Ref: AOM 2A
435. What happens when EMER LDG Nitrogen pressure is released from actuators and
GEAR handle is returned to stowed exhausted overboard through a vent on right side of
position? nose wheel well adjacent to NLG doors

Ref: AOM 2A
436. What’s the position of landing gear Open
doors following an emergency
extension?

Ref: AOM 2A
437. Describe sources of hydraulics for Inboard brakes are powered by hydraulics from left
normal braking. system, PTU or aux system. Without a source of
hydraulics, inboard accumulator is available for use
through toe brakes as well as PARK BRAKE handle.
Outboard brakes are powered by hydraulics from
right hydraulic system. Without a source of
hydraulics, outboard accumulator is available for use
through toe brakes as well as PARK BRAKE handle.

Ref: AOM 2A
438. Describe sources of hydraulics for Parking brake uses pressure from left and right
parking brake system. hydraulic systems (i.e., left system for inboard and
right system for outboard). In the absence of left or
right system pressure, it uses accumulator pressure
which is charged from left and right hydraulic
systems. Important note: if you select AUX pump to
ON during ground operations without engines
running, only the left (inboard) parking brake
accumulator is charged.

Ref: AOM 2A
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 51
439. What happens if both pilots are The greater input wins
providing brake input?

Ref: AOM 2A
440. What’s the purpose of brake fuses? They shut off applied brake fluid in case of line
rupture and fluid loss downstream

Ref: AOM 2A
441. Each MLG wheel has a dedicated Provides main wheel de-spin during retraction of the
brake assembly which functions as landing gear
normal toe brakes and parking
brakes. What other functions do they
perform?
Ref: AOM 2A
442. When parking brake handle is set, Repeater valve
what component ensures the pressure
coming from outboard accumulator is
equal to or slightly less than pressure
coming from inboard accumulator?
Ref: AOM 2A
443. How is brake life determined during “Life remaining” is determined by wear pin indicator
the preflight? (2 per brake assembly) attached to end of stator and
protruding through hydraulic part of chassis. The
amount of protrusion indicates the amount of life
remaining in the heat stack (parking brake must be set
for proper indication).

Ref: AOM 2A
444. How does G650’s basic antiskid It’s accomplished by comparing individual wheel
work? deceleration rates to predetermined ideal reference
deceleration

Ref: AOM 2A
445. Below what speed is antiskid 10 knots
protection no longer available?

Ref: AOM 2A
446. How does touchdown protection Zero brake pressure is applied until five (5) seconds
work? after WOW shifts to ground mode or wheel speed
spins up > 70 knots.

Ref: AOM 2A
447. Why is brake pressure applied during During gear extension to check system health and
gear extension and retraction? during retraction to control rate of wheel spin down

Ref: AOM 2A

52 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
448. What does Gulfstream recommend to Always chock the aircraft: parking brake system is
hold the aircraft for extended periods not designed to hold the aircraft for extended periods
of time? of time.

Ref: AOM 2A
449. While performing TAKEOFF INIT FMS is not able to perform brake temperature
on FMS, you notice that ENABLED monitoring computations.
legend under BTMS is highlighted.
What does that mean?

Ref: AOM 2A
450. What’s the source of hydraulics for Left hydraulic system: if left system pressure is not
NWS? available, PTU can provide system pressure, or aux
hydraulic pump can pressurize the system once
aircraft is on ground with weight-on-wheels.

Ref: AOM 2A
451. What happens if NOSE WHEEL Nose wheel is free to caster in passive mode,
STEERING POWER is selected to responding to tracking forces of differential braking
OFF? or engine power settings

Ref: AOM 2A
452. What happens when PEDAL Rudder pedal steering is disabled
STEERING switch is selected to
OFF?

Ref: AOM 2A
453. What does a NWS popped over That steering unit has been forced beyond normal
travel indicator indicate? travel range and maintenance is required

Ref: AOM 2A
454. What’s the purpose of variable gain? It helps to prevent the pilot from over controlling the
nose wheel steering.

Ref: AOM 2A
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 53
Pneumatics
455. What are the three sources of air on External, APU and engine air
ground?

Ref: AOM 2A
456. What’s another name for 5 and 8
th th
Mid and high stage
stage air?

Ref: AOM 2A
457. What’s the purpose of pressure Maintain a maximum bleed manifold pressure of
regulating shutoff valve? approximately 40.5 psi

Ref: AOM 2A
458. What’s the preferred source of air 5th stage because it has lower pressure and
and why? temperature

Ref: AOM 2A
459. What’s the purpose of 8 stage bleed
th
To supply supplemental air to maintain bleed
valve? manifold pressure of 14 to 35 psi depending on
configuration and existing conditions

Ref: AOM 2A
460. What’s the caution associated with Do not connect air with electrical power off
use of external air?

Ref: QRH NG-16

461. What are the requirements for APU Both engine bleed air switches, both pack switches,
load control valve to open in-flight? and both wing anti-ice switches must be in OFF
position

Ref: AOM 2A
462. What’s the purpose of isolation In the normally closed position, it isolates left and
valve? right bleed air manifolds

Ref: AOM 2A
463. Other than using ISOLATION valve APU air switch with weight on wheels, or engine
switch, how else can isolation valve MASTER START or CRANK
be opened?

Ref: AOM 2A
464. If isolation valve cannot be opened It incorporates a manual wrenching device
electrically, how else can it be
opened?

Ref: AOM 2A

54 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
465. Why does one pack shut down after This shutdown is designed to prevent large pressure
selection of MASTER START or bump during start by initiating two smaller ones that
CRANK, and another shut down with shouldn’t be as noticeable
selection of L or R ENG START?

Ref: AOM 2A
466. What’s the caution associated with They shouldn’t be selected ON at same time
use of engine bleed air and APU air?

Ref: QRH
467. What computers control operation of Bleed Air Controllers (BAC’s)
the bleed air system?

Ref: AOM 2A
468. What are BAC’s responsible for? Regulation of bleed air manifold temperature and
supply pressure (i.e., responsible for min pressures
and all temperatures)

Ref: AOM 2A
469. What wing temperature is maintained Approximately 130°F
during wing anti-ice operation?

Ref: AOM 2A
470. What happens to high stage bleed It’s reset to 35 psi
pressure when a PACK switch is
selected to OFF?

Ref: AOM 2A
471. What temperature would you expect Maximum of 630°F depending on power lever
at precooler inlet during wing anti-ice position
operation?

Ref: AOM 2A
472. What precooler outlet temperature 400°F
would you expect under normal
operating conditions?

Ref: AOM 2A
473. What’s the maximum temperature of 500°F
bleed air at precooler outlet during
wing anti-ice operation with single
WING ANTI ICE switch or single
ENG BLEED switch selected to ON?

Ref: AOM 2A

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 55
Air Conditioning
474. What controls the associated ECS Air Conditioning Controllers (ACC’s)
pack discharge air temperature and
prevents ice accumulation inside
pack by monitoring compressor inlet
and compressor outlet temperature? Ref: AOM 2A
475. How many temperature zones are Three: COCKPIT, FWD CABIN and AFT CABIN
there on G650?
Ref: AOM 2A
476. What happens when a PACK switch Pack valve is opened and control circuitry is initiated
is selected to ON? in ACC

Ref: AOM 2A
477. What pack outlet temperature would 35°F
you expect with packs operating
normally? Ref: AOM 2A
478. What do temperature control They control trim air valves that control mixing of
rheostats control? hot air from hot air manifold with cold air from cold
air manifold to produce comfortable air.

Ref: AOM 2A
479. How can you select ram air? Select RAM AIR to RAM or turn both PACK
switches to OFF

Ref: AOM 2A
480. When does ram air check valve Pressure in ducts and pressure vessel must be equal to
open? or less than pressure outside
Ref: AOM 2A
481. What’s the purpose of ozone filters? They change bleed air ozone to oxygen before it
enters packs to enhance pax comfort

Ref:AOM 2A
482. With AUTO TEMP SELECT Temp windows reflect selected temperatures for
switches selected to ON, what respective zones which are also displayed in blue
temperatures are displayed inside digits on ECS/PRESS synoptic page
temp windows and how are they
displayed on ECS/PRESS synoptic
page? Ref: AOM 2A
483. What’s the temperature select range 60 to 90°F
in automatic mode?
Ref: AOM 2A
484. How is temperature controlled in When in amber MAN position, COLD-HOT control
manual mode? knobs allow crew to manually control temp for
respective zones between full cold of 35°F and full
hot maximum of 230°F
Ref: AOM 2A
485. What type of air comes from Cold air always comes from overhead gaspers in both
overhead gaspers and baseboards? cockpit and cabin while conditioned air comes from
baseboards or foot level outlets
Ref: AOM 2A
56 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
Pressurization
486. How is pressurization achieved? By supplying constant inflow of air and by regulating
amount of air leaving aircraft through Thrust
Recovery Outflow Valve (TROV)

Ref: AOM 2A
487. How is control of Cabin Pressure With pressurization system in AUTO mode, cabin
Selector page on SMC affected by pressure selector page provides a means to view input
pressurization system mode of data provided by FMS and ADS, and RNG/SET knob
operation? is disabled. With pressurization system in SEMI
mode, data is input via RNG/SET knob for aircraft
cruise/cabin altitude, barometric correction, landing
field elevation, and cabin rate of climb/descent.

Ref: AOM 2A
488. Automatic pressurization is available Main batteries through static inverter
down to what source of power?
Ref: AOM 2A
489. What’s the meaning of amber It indicates failure of both channels of dual channel
FAULT light on CABIN PRESSURE controller: you’d have to select MANUAL
CONTROL panel?
Ref: AOM 2A
490. When does pressurization system It’s initiated if doors are closed and any of the
automatically switch to FLIGHT and following occur: switch is in FLIGHT position,
begin to pre-pressurize cabin prior to airplane begins to move > 9 knots or throttles are
takeoff? advanced

Ref: AOM 2A
491. What happens in-flight when Cabin pressure control system automatically switches
LANDING is selected on FLIGHT- to descent pressurization schedule (i.e., 300 fpm).
LANDING switch?
Ref: AOM 2A
492. When does FLIGHT-LANDING When aircraft descends from cruise at least 1,000 feet
switch automatically switch to
LANDING?
Ref: AOM 2A
493. When would you use semi-automatic Whenever FMS data is not available or is invalid,
(SEMI) mode? when directed by checklist, or at discretion of flight
crew (e.g., flying in QFE environment or to high
altitude airport)

Ref: AOM 2A.

494. What’s one of the benefits of flying You have more control over the system
in SEMI mode?
Ref: AOM 2A
495. What’s the purpose of MANUAL Used to manually control TROV and may be used as
mode? backup method in event of failure of both channels of
cabin pressure controller.

Ref: AOM 2A

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 57
496. What controls the TROV in manual You do using a DC motor
mode?
Ref: AOM 2A
497. In manual mode, how would you By observing motor power indicator: frequency of
determine rate of TROV movement? flashes is proportional to valve opening or closing
speed.

Ref: AOM 2A
498. What’s the purpose of pressure relief It provides rate-limiting function to prevent damage
valve? to aircraft fuselage from excessive positive or
negative pressures.

Ref: AOM 2A
499. What type of action does the system During ground operations when TROV is full open,
perform after landing to ensure pressure relief valve is forced open with bleed air
minimal differential pressure exists (unless you’re in manual mode)
within the cabin?
Ref: AOM 2A
500. When would pressure relief valve There are two (2) pneumatic chambers: one relieves
start to relieve pressure? at 10.80 differential pressure and the other relieves at
11.00

Ref: AOM 2A
501. What are cabin pressure low warning Landing field elevation
trip points based on?
Ref: AOM 2A
502. What are the prerequisites for Cabin Pressure Low CAS message
Emergency Descent Mode (EDM)? Aircraft altitude ≥ FL400
Autopilot engaged

Ref: AOM 2A
503. Describe aircraft operation in EDM. Aircraft automatically enters HDG hold mode, turns
90° left and enters FLCH mode with 340 kt manual
speed (MAN SPD) target. Altitude preselector is set
to 15,000 ft. If not already engaged, AT engages, and
throttles pull back to facilitate rapid descent. The
aircraft performs an ASEL capture at 15,000 ft and
SPD target changes from 340 kts to 250 kts. The
target SPD is maintained as long as AT is engaged.

Ref: AOM 2A
504. How can EDM be cancelled? By disengaging AP

Ref: AOM 2A
505. With rapid loss of cabin pressure or Don personal oxygen mask and ensure mask is set to
altitude, what’s the first thing the 100% oxygen
crew should accomplish?

Ref: QRH

58 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
Ice & Rain Protection
506. What are the two types of protection Electric and pneumatic
used on G650?
Ref: AOM 2A
507. Where is ice buildup prevented? Wing leading edges
Engine cowl inlets
Windshields
Probe sensors
Aft drain mast

Ref: AOM 2A
508. Describe the ice detection system. It’s comprised of two independent systems consisting
of two ice detectors: one mounted below pilot
window and one below copilot window.

Ref: AOM 2A
509. If Anti-ice switches are set to AUTO, Automatic activation of anti-ice system is inhibited.
anti-ice operates automatically for
altitudes ≤ 35,000 feet. What happens
for altitudes > 35,000 feet?
Ref: AOM 2A
510. When does the amber Ice Detected If ice accumulation is < 0.02” for one minute, amber
CAS message extinguish? Ice Detected CAS message extinguishes.

Ref: AOM 2A
511. What continues to receive heat after Cowl heat continues for three (3) minutes and wing
the amber Ice Detected CAS message heat continues for five (5) minutes
extinguishes?
Ref: AOM 2A
512. Describe the wing anti-ice (WAI) It consists of two independent control systems,
system? pneumatically linked via the crossover duct. One
system provides WAI for left wing and one provides
WAI for right wing.

Ref: AOM 2A
513. Where is wing anti-ice exhausted Hot air flows through leading edges of each wing,
overboard? passes through main wheel well, and through two
screens aft of wheel well on bottom of aircraft

Ref: AOM 2A
514. What happens when wing anti-ice is WAI operates regardless of altitude or ice detection.
selected to ON?
Ref: AOM 2A
515. What do blue wing anti-ice lines Wing anti-ice temperature ≤ 100°F within two (2)
indicate on ECS/PRESS synoptic minutes
page?
Ref: AOM 2A
516. What do green wing anti-ice lines Normal temperature (100 to 180°F)
indicate on ECS/PRESS synoptic
page? Ref: AOM 2A

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 59
517. What do amber wing anti-ice lines Wing temperature < 100°F after two minutes from the
indicate on ECS/PRESS synoptic time it’s commanded to ON or > 180°F
page?

Ref: AOM 2A
518. In regards to FMS programming, Remember to make appropriate selection during
what must you do if you plan to TAKEOFF INIT or your speeds won’t box
takeoff with WAI and/or cowl anti-
ice (CAI) selected to ON?

Ref: AOM 2B
519. What happens to cowl anti-ice if both Nothing: cowl anti-ice uses 5th stage air
ENG BLEED AIR switches are
selected to OFF?

Ref: AOM 2A
520. What happens to cowl anti-ice valve It spring loads open
with loss of electrical power or loss
of 8th stage air to hold it closed?
Ref: AOM 2A
521. Where is cowl anti-ice exhausted Hot air travels through cowl anti-ice supply duct to
overboard? heat lip skin and exhausts overboard through exhaust
vent located at bottom of engine.

Ref: AOM 2A
522. What happens when cowl anti-ice is CAI valve solenoid is de-energized and the valve
selected to ON? opens regardless of altitude or ice detection.

Ref: AOM 2A
523. What happens to the spinner if ice Soft rubber tip distorts and provides passive ice
accumulates during engine shedding
operation?

Ref: AOM 2A
524. What kind of rain removal system There’s a surface coating on windshield that deflects
does G650 have? water

Ref: AOM 2A
525. What’s the caution associated with Use of mechanical means to remove ice from
removal of ice from the windshield? windshield causes degradation and should be avoided

Ref: AOM 2A
60 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
526. What happens when EVS WSHLD Switchlight indicates blue ON and two (2) minutes of
HT switch is selected? thermostatically controlled continuous heating is
provided to EVS windshield. Otherwise, operation is
automatic if aircraft is airborne and cowl anti-ice is
ON (either from manual selection or automatic
selection with ice detection). The type of heat applied
is dependent on position of landing gear.

Ref: AOM 2A
527. What happens when CABIN WDO The 16 cabin windows are electrically heated with
HT switch is selected to ON? single phase of low power alternating current (AC)
when WOW is in flight mode and OFF caption is
extinguished. When WOW is in ground mode, the 16
cabin windows are not electrically heated and OFF
caption is illuminated unless this feature is overridden
by activating WDO HT GND BYP switch controlled
through MCDU SSPC menu.

Ref: AOM 2A
528. What safety feature does WDO HT It automatically reverts to OFF after 10 minutes to
GND BYP switch in SSPC prevent overheating which could cause window
incorporate? damage and discoloration. It can be reset through
MCDU.

Ref: AOM 2A
529. Are TAT probes heated on ground? No; except for ≥ 60 kts or both throttles
≥ 30°.

Ref: AOM 2A

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 61
Fire Protection
530. Which bottle can be discharged into Left bottle
the APU?

Ref: AOM 2A
531. How do you know if a fire bottle has You get an associated CAS message
discharged?

Ref: AOM 2A
532. How are fire handles normally locked By an electrical solenoid
in the stowed position?
Ref: AOM 2A
533. What happens if a fire handle A manual override button underneath each fire handle
solenoid malfunctions? allows handle activation

Ref: AOM 2A
534. What happens when a fire handle is It shuts off fuel at the hopper, trips the Generator
pulled? Control Unit (GCU), and shuts off hydraulics in the
tail compartment

Ref: AOM 2A
535. What happens if the engine fire Fire handle may be rotated to inboard DISCH 2
persists after discharging the first position to inject agent from left fire bottle into the
bottle? engine

Ref: AOM 2A
536. The smoke evacuation valve has how Two (2)
many positions?
Ref: AOM 2A
537. Fire testing, detection, and protection Main batteries only: it’s not available with emergency
is available down to what source of batteries
power?

Ref: AOM 2A
538. What’s the location of smoke Ceiling of baggage compartment
detector? Ref: AOM 2A
539. What happens when the smoke Smoke evacuation valve opens and baggage
evacuation valve is selected to compartment air is vented overboard through a vent
VENT/SMOKE position? on ceiling of baggage compartment. Air is exhausted
overboard through right side wing-to-body fairing
near lavatory servicing.

Ref: AOM 2A
540. Can the interior baggage No, it’s impossible without equalizing the pressure
compartment door be opened once between baggage compartment and cabin
the baggage compartment is
depressurized?
Ref: AOM 2A

62 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
541. If interior baggage compartment door Smoke evacuation valve must be placed back to
is closed, what’s the process for NORMAL position, and reset toggle switch must be
reentry once the baggage held UP for 10 seconds. This causes baggage
compartment depressurizes? compartment ventilation shutoff valve to reopen and
restore airflow to the compartment.

Ref: AOM 2A
542. Describe the engine fire detection Each detector rail assembly is comprised of two
system. mechanically parallel, electrically independent
thermal detector loops (Loop A and Loop B) mounted
on a support tube.

Ref: AOM 2A
543. What computer monitors the fire Fire Detection Control Unit
detection system?

Ref: AOM 2A
544. What happens if a fire loop fails? The flight crew can deselect the affected loop and
continue to operate in a single loop configuration (in
accordance with MMEL).

Ref: AOM 2A
545. What happens when you depress the You get three chimes and eight lights: LOOP A,
R ENG FIRE TEST switch? LOOP B, two red W’s, two red CAS messages, light
in right fire handle, and starlight in the right engine
fuel control switch handle.

Ref: AOM 2A
546. Describe the APU’s fire detection It has a seven foot helium filled tube secured to the
system. top of APU enclosure

Ref: AOM 2A
547. What happens to the APU during a ECU automatically shuts down the APU
fire?

Ref: AOM 2A
548. What happens when APU FIRE You get three chimes and eight lights: APU TEST
TEST switch is depressed? light on fire test panel, FIRE light on APU control
panel, two red W’s, two amber C’s, and two CAS
messages. Additionally, you get a fire bell in nose
wheel well if the aircraft is on ground.

Ref: AOM 2A
G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 63
549. What indications do you get for an You get three chimes and only four lights: FIRE light
actual APU fire? on APU control panel, two red W’s, and one red CAS
message. Additionally, you get a fire bell on ground.
Ref: AOM 2A

550. Describe the equipment overheat A number of thermal switches are installed in the
detection system. aircraft interior to monitor temperature levels. They
utilize two preset temperatures: 150°F and 250°F,
depending on location and type of equipment
monitored. Switches set at trip point of 150°F
generate an amber CAS message when that
temperature is reached and switches set at trip point
of 250°F generate a red CAS message (generally
amber for electrical and red for bleed air).

Ref: AOM 2A
551. What’s the location of the fixed Two identical single shot fire bottles are mounted in
bottles? tail compartment: pressurized by nitrogen and filled
with Halon.

Ref: AOM 2A
552. What happens if a bottle becomes A pressure relief disc seal ruptures, allowing bottle
over pressurized due to excessive contents to escape into the tail compartment
temperature?

Ref: AOM 2A
553. What’s the location of portable fire One Halon extinguisher in cockpit, and two (2) Halon
extinguishers? extinguishers in cabin

Ref: AOM 2A
64 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
Oxygen
554. G650 has separate oxygen bottles for Through a common line
crew and passengers. How are the
bottles connected and serviced?

Ref: AOM 2A
555. What’s the location of oxygen Right side of aircraft opposite the main door
service panel?

Ref: AOM 2A
556. When does overboard discharge High pressure in high pressure system, high pressure
occur? in low pressure system or high temperature
Ref: AOM 2A
557. Where are the oxygen control panels On flight deck: one controls oxygen to cockpit and
located? one controls oxygen to passengers.

Ref: AOM 2A
558. At what cabin altitude do passenger When sensed cabin altitude reaches approximately
masks automatically deploy? 14,750 feet with HIGH ALT switch in normal and
approximately 15,750 feet with HIGH ALT switch
selected (i.e., lighted)

Ref: AOM 2A
559. What kind of test is performed with Leak check
PRESS-TO-TEST AND RESET
control switch on oxygen mask
storage box?

Ref: AOM 2A
560. What would indicate a leak in Blinker remains yellow
oxygen system while pressing and
holding the PRESS-TO-TEST AND
RESET control switch?
Ref: AOM 2A
561. When the mask is removed from The open doors
storage container, what activates the
shutoff valve?
Ref: AOM 2A
562. How is the mask microphone By selecting MIC button on Audio Control Panel
activated? (ACP) to the extended or mask position (onside
speaker is also automatically selected).

Ref: AOM 2A
563. What’s the difference between In NORMAL, you get diluted oxygen and with 100%
oxygen selections of NORMAL and selected, you get undiluted oxygen
100% on the mask/regulator?

Ref: AOM 2A

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 65
564.
What’s the difference between In NORMAL, it allows regulator to provide diluter-
selections of NORMAL (fully demand flow, and in EMERGENCY position, it sets
counterclockwise) and regulator to provide constant pressure of undiluted
EMERGENCY (fully clockwise)? oxygen.

Ref: AOM 2A
565.
How can the tension in mask harness By using a comfort toggle on the front of mask
be adjusted to make it more
comfortable?

Ref: AOM 2A
566.
What action must passengers perform Pull on lanyard to remove flow pin
to get oxygen to flow into passenger
mask retaining bag?

Ref: AOM 2A
567.
The crewmember Protective Two: one installed in flight deck and the other
Breathing Equipment (PBE) is a self- installed in vicinity of baggage compartment.
contained, portable, personal
breathing device designed to
safeguard wearer from the effects of
smoke, carbon dioxide, harmful
gases, and oxygen deficiency while
managing in-flight fire, smoke or
fume emergencies. How many are on
the aircraft?

Ref: AOM 2A

66 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
Water & Waste
568. What is the capacity of water 2 x 20 gal tanks
system?
Ref: AOM 2A
569. What switches control power for CABIN / GALLEY MASTER switch on the cockpit
the water & waste system? overhead panel as well as CABIN/GALLEY
switches in SSPC

Ref: AOM 2A
570. Name the four (4) places where the Touch screens in galley and vestibule, external
water system is controlled. service panel, and tank enclosure

Ref: AOM 2A
571. How many toilets are on the Two
aircraft? Ref: AOM 2A
572. What’s the capacity of the waste 18 gallon storage tank with 12 gallon usable
tank? capacity

Ref: AOM 2A
573. How is the water system With an air compressor, or engine or APU bleed
pressurized? air

Ref: AOM 2A
574. How many drains are there and There are two drains on the bottom of aircraft: a
where are they located? drain mast located in back and penetration port
located forward. Water drains out the back in
flight due to nose attitude and differential
pressure, and drains out the front on ground due
to nose attitude.

Ref: AOM 2A
575. What are the three requirements select CABIN / GALLEY master switch to ON, 2)
for water system operation? the GALLEY POWER switch in MCDU (SSPC
system) must be ON, and 3) water system must be
selected to ON (green indication) at galley touch
screen

Ref: AOM 2A
576. What happens when the water The system heaters are selected ON and operation
system is selected to ON with cabin of water system is delayed for approximately 20
temperature below 34°F? minutes

Ref: AOM 2A
577. What’s the difference between a A line drain allows all water in supply lines,
line drain and system purge? lavatory water heaters and galley water heater to
drain from aircraft. A system purge removes all
water from the supply lines and water tanks.

Ref: AOM 2A

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 67
578. How much time is required to Approximately seven (7) minutes per tank
purge the water tanks?

Ref: AOM 2A
579. If you initiate a line drain or system The process won’t be complete until after landing
purge in flight, when is the since the forward supply/drain valves don’t open
procedure completed? until weight-on-wheels.

Ref: AOM 2A
580. True/False: A leak check is True
performed to isolate a leaking
faucet, water heater, valve, or line
downstream of tank valves.

Ref: AOM 2A
581. What happens if the water system It invalidates the results
is used during 15 minute leak Ref: AOM 2A
check?
582. What’s the normal fill time for each Approximately seven (7) minutes per tank
water tank?

Ref: AOM 2A
583. What generates the vacuum for Cabin differential pressure or vacuum generator.
flushing the toilet? The vacuum generator is required for differential
pressure < 6 psid (i.e., below approximately
16,000 ft).

Ref: AOM 2A
584. Can you flush the toilet on ground No
without AC power?

Ref: AOM 2A
585. Regarding toilet flushing, what A separate manual flush handle can momentarily
happens if the normal system fails open the flush valve
to function properly (e.g., flush
switch failure)?

Ref: AOM 2A

68 G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87
*Rev 2_73 on 21 Apr 15 for deletion of question 588.

*Rev 2_74 on 17 Jun 15 for minor change to question 423.

*Rev 2_75 on 19 Aug 15 for minor change to question 338.

*Rev 2_76 on 18 Sep 15 for deletion of question 386 and minor change to question 495.

*Rev 2_77 on 21 Mar 16 for minor change to question 224 & 372.

*Rev 2_78 on 18 May 16 for minor change to question 3.

*Rev 2_79 on 29 Sep 16 for removal of CRM questions.

*Rev 2_80 on 20 Dec 16 for removal of Weight & Balance and Performance questions.

*Rev 2_81 on 8 Mar 17 for minor change to question 316.

*Rev 2_82 on 8 Aug 2018 updated the cover graphic, internal tables color-keyed per system

*Rev 2_83 on 28 August 2018 for cosmetic change to question 54.

*Rev 2_84 on 4 September 2018 for cosmetic change to question numbering after question #11.

*Rev 2_85 on 12 Aug 2018 for question numbering.

*Rev 2_86 on 2 December 2019 for bookmarks.

*Rev 2_87 on 2 December 2019 formatting tweak.

G650-P-StudyGuide-Rev-2_87 69